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Exam flashcards > Haem > Flashcards

Haem Flashcards

1
Q

HIV is a global condition. Name 3 at risk groups for HIV and the age group for which 50% of all new
infections worldwide occur

A

At risk groups = Men who have sex with men, IVDU, Commercial sex workers. (1 mark per correct answer)

Age group 50% all new infections occur worldwide: 19-24yo (1)

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2
Q

What’s the most common opportunistic infection of AIDS?

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. This infection is the most common presentation of AIS and comprises ~40% of all AIDS-Defining illnesses. Ix includes CXR, showing bilateral mid and lower-zone interstitial shadowing. Tx with Co-Trimoxazole or IV pentamidine for 21d.

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3
Q

how is an infection of pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia treated?

A

IV co-trimoxazole (21 days)
or
IV pentamidine isetionate (21 days)

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4
Q

List four causes of microcytic anaemia.

A
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5
Q

Give two examples of non-haemolytic normocytic anaemia.

A
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6
Q

Give four examples of haemolytic normocytic anaemia.

A
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7
Q

Give two examples of megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia.

A
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8
Q

Give four causes of non-megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia.

A

.

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9
Q

What inheritance pattern is hereditary spherocytosis?

A
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10
Q

Give four complications of hereditary spherocytosis.

A
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11
Q

What are the two main management options for hereditary spherocytosis?

A
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12
Q

Infection with what virus can trigger an aplastic crisis in hereditary spherocytosis?

A
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13
Q

What inheritance pattern is thalassaemia?

A
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14
Q

Diagnostic techniques for alpha thalassaemia (other than FBC)? (2)

A
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15
Q

what’s seen on a peripheral blood film in thalassaemia?

A
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16
Q

How many genes code for alpha and beta thalassaemia respectively?

A
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17
Q

What’s curative for alpha thalassaemia? How is it otherwise managed?

A
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18
Q

What’s the mnemonic for remembering the features of multiple myeloma?

A
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19
Q

What protein can be found in the urine of someone with multiple myeloma?

A
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20
Q

What four investigations can be done for multiple myeloma? (what’s the mnemonic?)

A
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21
Q

What’s seen on a peripheral blood smear in multiple myeloma?

A
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22
Q

What’s used to confirm a diagnosis of multiple myeloma?

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23
Q

6 stages of the malaria life cycle?

A
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24
Q

What are the five malaria causing parasites? Which is most deadly?

A
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25
Q

Which malaria causing parasites can lie dormant in the liver and cause relapsing malaria?

A
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26
Q

Which malaria causing parasites are found in Africa?

A
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27
Q

How many people die from malaria each year?

A
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28
Q

What four things would indicate it’s complicated malaria?

A
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29
Q

What are the three risk factors that Hodgkin’s and Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma have in common?

A
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30
Q

Describe the staging of lymphomas.

A
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31
Q

What drugs are given to manage Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A
32
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells are indicative of what type of cancer?

A
33
Q

Give three risk factors specific to Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (as opposed to Hodgkin’s)

A
34
Q

What’s the most common cancer in children?

A
35
Q

What’s seen on the blood films of the different types of leukaemia?

A

*note - say ‘high concentration of blast cells on blood film’ , not just blast cells.

36
Q

What’s first line treatment for multiple myeloma?

A
37
Q

How is beta-thalassaemia diagnosed?

A
38
Q

What bleeding disorder can lead to jaundice?

A
39
Q

TTP is caused by a deficiency in what protein?

A
40
Q

First line management of ITP?

A
41
Q

Why does an ADAMST13 deficiency lead to microangiopathy?

A
42
Q

What happens in ITP?

A
43
Q

What clotting factors are deficient in Haemophilia A,B and C?

A
44
Q

What inheritance pattern are Haemophilia A,B and C?

A
45
Q

What clotting time is affected in haemophilia A?

A
46
Q

What’s deficient in Bernard-Soulier syndrome?

A
47
Q

Give four causes of DIC

A
48
Q

What blood results would you expect in DIC?

A
49
Q

Definition of erythrocytosis?

A
50
Q

Definition of polycythaemia?

A
51
Q

Two causes of relative polycythaemia?

A
52
Q

What’s primary polycythaemia also known as and what’s it most commonly caused by?

A
53
Q

Summarise the two types of secondary polycythaemia.

A
54
Q

What cells do myeloproliferative disorders affect?

A

Myelo = affects the myeloid pathway
proliferative = increased cell production
(e.g. lymphoma isn’t a myeloproliferative disease as it affects lymphocytes)

55
Q

Define anaemia (2)

A
  • Low Hb Concentration (1)
  • Due to reduced cell mass or increased plasma volume (1)
55
Q

Management of tumor lysis syndrome?

A

.

56
Q

What imbalances do you see in tumour lysis syndrome?

A
57
Q

Two features required for a diagnosis of febrile neutropenia?

A
  • Temperature >38C
  • Absolute neutrophil count <1500 cells/microlitre
58
Q

What is rituximab and how does it treat Leakaemia? (3)

A
  • Monoclonal antibody
  • CD20 protein
  • on surface of B-cells
59
Q

Signs of ITP?

A
60
Q

What’s the technical term for pale lower eyelids when pulled down?

A

Subconjunctival pallor

61
Q

What can happen to the tongue in iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Atrophic glossitis

62
Q

What three things characterise MM?

A
  • Monoclonal protein in blood
  • Excess plasma cells in bone marrow
  • OLD CRAB symptoms/signs
63
Q

What translation is associated with MM?

A
64
Q

What age do you see the different types of leukaemia at?

A

Note - AML rarely seen before 45, however average age of diagnosis = 68

65
Q

What complication of CLL is it important to be aware of?

A

Richter’s transformation

66
Q

What three signs might you see in CLL?

A
  • enlarged, rubbery, non-tender lymph nodes
  • sweating
  • anorexia/weight loss
67
Q

What causes the widespread clots to form in DIC?

A
  • Tissue damage resulting in tissue factor release + activation
68
Q

What is APTT?

A
69
Q

Length of treatment with apixaban for DVT with no other significant history?

A

6 months

70
Q

What’s associated with a poorer prognosis of ALL?

A

WCC>20

71
Q

What two types of haemoglobin do healthy adults normally have? And what about foetuses?

A

HbA (2 alpha, 2 beta)
HbA2 (2 alpha, 2 delta)
HbF (2 alpha, 2 gamma)

*HbA2 can increase in beta thalassaemia when there’s insufficient HbA being produced due to defective beta globin chains

72
Q

What’s the most common cause of haemolytic uraemia syndrome?

A

E. coli producing shiga-toxin which damages endothelial cells and nearby RBCs + platelets

Results in microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury.

73
Q

Immediate management for a 55/60 year old male/female presenting with iron deficiency anaemia?

A

2 week wait referral

74
Q

What drug is given to neonates to increase foetal Hb?

A

Hydrox§yurea

Exam flashcards (14 decks)

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