Haematology Flashcards

(104 cards)

1
Q

How can you tell if an anaemia is caused by an issue with removal or production of RBCs

A

measure reticulocyte count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Causes of microcytic anaemia

A

iron deficiency
thalassaemia
anaemia of chronic disease
sideroblastic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

causes of normocytic anaemia

A
acute blood loss
anaemia of chronic disease
CKD
autoimmune rheumatic disease
Endocrine disease
haemolytic anaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Causes of macrocytic anaemia

A
vitamin B12 or folate deficiency 
alcohol
liver disease
hypothyroidism 
drug therapy e.g. azathioprine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is iron absorpbed

A

intestinal haem transporter HCP1 actively transports iron into the duodenal epithelial cells where some binds to ferritin (intracellular store) and the rest circulates in blood bound to transferrin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is iron used

A

majority in haemoglobin

the rest in reticuloendothelial cells, hepatocytes and skeletal muscle cells as ferritin or haemosiderin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Serum test results in iron deficiency

A

low serum iron
high total-iron binding capacity
increase in transferrin receptors
low reticulocyte count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Treatment of iron deficiency

A

usually find a cause first
ferrous sulphate oral
ferrous gluconate if bad SE
parenteral iron (IV iron or IM iron) only in extreme cases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is anaemia of chronic disease

A

bone marrow is sick
second most common cause of anaemia and common in hospitalised patients
usually normocytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Common causes of anaemia of chronic disease

A
tuberculosis
crohns
rheumatoid arthritis
SLE
malignant disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is pernicious anaemia

A

autoimmune disorder in which parietal cells of stomach are attacked resulting in atrophic gastritis and the loss of intrinsic factor production and hence b12 malabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

where is b12 absorped

A

terminal ileum using intrinsic factor (produced by parietal cells in stomach)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

risk factors for pernicious anaemia

A

elderly
female
fair haired
autoimmune disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Treatment for pernicious anemia

A

b12 injections (IM hydroxocobalamin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how might you distinguish between a folate and b12 deficiency

A

no neuropathy in folate deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

treatment of folic acid deficiency

A

folic acid tablets WITH B12 unless known to be normal as can precipitate subacute combined degeneration of the cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

main causes of haemolytic anaemia

A

RBC membrane defects - hereditary spherocytosis

enzyme defects - glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

haemoglobinopathies:
B thalassaemia
A thalassaemia
sickle cell disease

autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

features of haemolytic aneamia (bilirubin)

A
high unconjugated bilirubin
high urobilinogen
high stercobilinogen (dark stool)
splenomegaly
bone marrow expansion
reticulocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

hereditary spherocytosis summary

A

autosomal dominant
deficiency in structural protein spectrum
sphere shaped RBC get stuck in spleen and cause premature haemolytic and splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

presentation of hereditary spherocytosis

A
jaundice at birth
can have delayed jaundice
anaemia
splenomegaly
ulcers on leg
gall stones

aplastic anaemia after infections (particularly parvovirus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

treatment of hereditary spherocytosis

A

splenectomy delayed until after childhood (risk)

post-op life-long penicillin prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

G6PD deficiency summary

A

heterogenous x-linked (more common in males)
G6DP reduces NADP to NADPH which is essential for protecting RBCs from oxidative stress
Leads to reduced RBC lifespan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Presentation of G6PD deficiency

A

asymptomatic

drug-induced haemolytic:
aspirin
antimalarials (quinine, chloroquine)
nitrofuratonin
fava beans

In attacks:
rapid anaemia
jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Results/treatment of G6DP attacks

A
irregular cells on film
Bite cells (cells with indentation in)
reticulocytosis
G6PD enzyme levels will be low but can be falsely high
blood transfusion may be life saving
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the types of haemoglobin
``` HbA foetal Hb (HbF) Hb delta (HbA2) ``` In an adult HbA - 97% HbA2 - 2% HbF - 1%
26
What is the normal production of alpha and beta chains
1:1 ratio | HbA has 2 alpha and 2 beta
27
Beta thalassaemia summary
reduced B chain production results in excessive alpha chains. Excess alpha chains bind with any delta or gamma chains available and oriduce excess Hb delta and foetal Hb IF HETEROZYGOUS THEN ASYMPTOMATIC OR MILD ANAEMIA
28
Mutations in beta thalassaemia
Point mutations
29
Mutations in alpha thalassaemia
gene deletions
30
summary of alpha thalassaemia
four gene deletion - no alpha chain synthesis only Hb Parts (4 gamma chains) is present incompatible with life stillborn infant or die very shortly after birth - hydrops fetalis three gene deletion - reduction in alpha synthesis, HbH has 4 beta-chains, moderate anaemia two gene deletion - microcytosis mild anaemia one gene deletion - normal
31
inheritance of sickle cell trait
autosomal recessive
32
when does sickle cell present
after 6 months as foetal haemoglobin is normal (no beta chains)
33
mutation of sickle cell
single base mutation on beta chain
34
complications of sickle cell disease
vaso-occlusive crises: pain in hands/feet in chidlren long bone pain in adults (femur, spine, ribs) due to avascular necrosis of bone marrow acute chest syndrome vaso-occlusive crisis of pulmonary vasculature pulmonary hypertension and chronic lung disease are the most common cause of death in adults with sickle cell
35
Treatment for sickle cell
vaccinate - prevent infection folic acid to all haemolytic patients attacks - fluids, analgesia, oxygen, antibiotics blood transfusion for acute chest syndrome, aplastic crisis ORAL HYDROXYCARBAMIDE to increase HbF concentration
36
Aplastic anemia definition and causes
pancytopenia (all major blood cell lines) ``` Idiopathic Fanconi's anaemia benzene, toluene and glue sniffing chemo drugs antibiotics - carbamazepine, azathioprine and chloramphenicol infections: EBV, HIV TB ```
37
clinical presentation of aplastic anaemia
``` obvious: anaemia infections bleeding bleeding gums, bruising ``` DD: other causes of pancytopenia - drugs, lymphomas, myeloma, SLE
38
treatment of aplastic anaemia
broad spectrum antibiotics red cell and platelet transfusion bone marrow transplant
39
polycythemia vera
Janus kinase 2 mutation clonal stem cell disorder causing excessive proliferation of RBCs, EBCs and platelets causing a raised haematocrit and viscosity
40
Clinical presentation
``` vague hyper viscosity symptom headache itching tiredness dizziness tinnitus visual disturbance severe itching when warm gout hypertension hepatosplenomegaly ```
41
treatment of polycythemia vera
venesection weekly - 500ml chemotherapy - hydroxycarbamide for those who don't tolerate venesection ++ low dose aspirin
42
What is ITP
thrombocytopenia due to immune destruction ``` bruising epistaxis menorrhagia purpura gum bleeding ```
43
What is primary ITP
acute in children (2-6) recent viral infection. e.g. chickenpox self limiting purport usually on legs
44
What is secondary ITP
chronic in adults women and often associated with autoimmune disorders such as SLE, thyroid disease CLL and HIV infection.
45
Treatment of ITP
prednisolone IV IgG if going into surgery as this will raise the platelet count more rapidly second line: splenectomy
46
What is thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura TTP
widespread adhesion and aggregation of platelets. due to a deficiency in a protease than breakdown vWF
47
Causes of TTP
``` idiopathic autoimmune (SLE) cancer pregnancy drug associated (quinine) ```
48
Clinical presentation of TTP
florid (red) purpura fever fluctuating cerebral dysfunction haemolytic anaemia
49
Treatment for TTP
plasma exchange IV methylprednisolone IV rituximab Low platelets but do not give as in hypercoaguable state!!!
50
would you see schistocytes in ITP or TTP
TTP think clots tear apart RBCs causing fragmentation
51
Which is more serious ITP or TTP
TTP! it is an emergency as blood is clotting! but do a plasma exchange. Can leave ITP if asymptomatic
52
How does DIC arise
systemic activation of coagulation either by release of procoagulant material such as tissue factor or via cytokine pathways as a part of the inflammatory response. caused by extensive damage to vascular endothelium exposing tissue factor or enhanced expression of tissue factor by monocytes in response to cytokines
53
Conditions associated with DIC
``` sepsis major trauma and tissue destruction advanced cancer obstetric complications pancreatitis ```
54
Clinical findings in DIC
severe thrombocytopenia elevated fibrin degradation products - d-dimer fragmented RBCs on film prolonged PT
55
Treatment for DIC
treat cause platelet transfusion FFP to replace coat factors
56
What should you monitor after starting Heparin
platelet levels as can get heparin induced thrombocytopenia
57
most common ages for ALL
2-4 years old
58
which cells does ALL affects
T and B precursors all B cells - children all T cells - adult
59
Diagnosis of ALL
high WCC blast cells on film and in bone marrow CXR/CT may show lymphadenopathy
60
treatment for ALL
``` blood transfusion prophylactic antibac/fung allopurinol prevents tumour lysis syndrome chemo marrow transplant ```
61
Symptoms of AML
anaemia - fatigue, claudication, breathlessness, pallor and cardiac flow murmur infection - fever and mouth ulcers low platelets - bleeding, bruising gum hypertrophy hepatomegaly/splenomegaly
62
treatment for AML
``` blood and platelet transfusion infection prophylaxis allopurinol to prevent tumour lysis syndrome chemo marrow transplant ```
63
age group for CML
40-60 years, male predominance more than 80% have the Philadelphia chromosome
64
diagnosis for CML
very high WCC - whole spectrum of myeloid cells increased, neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils low HB low platelets hypercellular bone marrow
65
treatment for CML
IMATINIB tyrosine kinase inhibitor (Philadelphia chromosome linked to increase TK activity which stimulates cell division)
66
age range for CLL
the most common leukaemia | presents in later life - elderly
67
CP of CLL
asymptomatic often an incidental finding
68
diagnosis of CLL
normal/low hb raised WCC w/ very high lymphocytes smudge cells on blood film
69
outlook for CLL
rule of 3s 1/3 never progress 1.3 slowly 1/3 quickly
70
treatment for CLL
human IV immunoglobulins chemo blood transfusion
71
Hodgkins lymphoma
Reed-Sternberg cells male predominance teenagers 13-19 and over 65s EBV plays a role
72
CP of Hodgkins lymphoma
``` cervical lymphadenopathy (rubbery) B symptoms ``` emergency presentation: infection SVC obstruction blackouts
73
diagnosis of Hodgkins lymphoma
CT/MRI for staging (Ann Arbor) lymph node excision or bone marrow biopsy for Reed-Sternberg cells PET scan
74
Ann Arbor staging
I confined to single lymph node II involvement of two or more lymph node regions on same side of diaphragm III involvement of nodes on both sides of the diaphragm IV spread beyond lymph to liver or bone A: no systemic symptoms (other than itching) B: B symtpoms
75
Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
all lymphomas without reed-sternberg 80% is B cell origin strong link with EBV and Burkitts lymphoma
76
two grades of non-hodgkins
low grade - follicular lymphoma (incurable, slow growing around 11 year survival) high grade - diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
77
treatment of non-hodgkins
``` R-CHOP regimen Rituximab Cyclophosphamide Hydroxy-daunorubicin Oncovin Prednisolone ``` May also use radiotherapy
78
what is myeloma
cancer of differentiated B cells (PLASMA CELLS) which produce antibodies. accumulate in the bone marrow and cause failure peak age 70
79
presentation of myeloma
``` OLD CRAB OLD age Calcium elevated Renal failure Anaemia Bone lytic lesions (activate osteoclasts and inhibit osteoblasts) ```
80
signs of myeloma
``` normocytic normochromic anaemia raised ESR Rouleaux formation on blood film (RBC stack like coins) hyperclacaemia pepper-pot skull vertebral collapse ```
81
treatment of myeloma
``` analgesia for bone pain (avoid NSAID renal) bisphosphonates transfusion/EPO injection chemo stem cell transplant ```
82
what is febrile neutropenia
temp above 38 in a patient with neutrophils <1x10^9 life threatening emergency basically infection in someone with neutropenia
83
risk factors for febrile neutropenia
``` chemo <6 weeks ago aplastic anaemia autoimmune disease leukaemia methotrexate carbimazole clozapine ```
84
treatment of febrile neutropenia
broad spectrum antibiotics immediately
85
which cancers most commonly cause malignant spinal cord compression
myeloma | lymphoma
86
management of malignant spinal cord compression (caudal equine)
quick! bed rest dexamethasone urgent MRI spine
87
what is tumour lysis syndrome
malignant cells breakdown quickly: high uric acid hyperkalaemia hyperphosphatemia hypocalcaemia
88
complications of tumour lysis syndrome
neuro (hypocalcaemia): muscle cramps, seizure cardiac (hyperkalaemia) arrest renal (uric acid crystals) failure
89
treatment of tumour lysis syndrome
allopurinol reduces uric acid levels to prevent kidney failure monitor electrolytes dialysis if needed
90
clinical presentation of hypercalcaemia
bones moans stone psychiatric groans ``` confusion boe pain constipated nausea polyuria renal stones abdo pain shortening of QT interval ```
91
treatment of hypercalcaemia
hydration 3-4L/day | bisphosphionates (takes a few days to effect)
92
how to reverse heparin
protamine
93
reversal of warfarin
immediate - fresh frozen plasma FFP | vitamin K will reverse slowly
94
when would heparin be used
bypass surgery
95
when is LMW heparin used
SC injection | treatment and prophylaxis
96
what is the normal target INR
2-3
97
which clotting factors are vitamin K dependent
1972 II, VIII, IX and X (1 is a 10)
98
which clotting factors do NOACs affect
II or X
99
when would NOACs be used
AF, DVT, PE
100
when would warfarin be preferred over NOAC
mechanical heart valves as NOAC does not allow for exact control over INR OR pregnancy
101
what is the action of rivaroxaban/apixaban
factor Xa inhibitor
102
what is the antibiotic therapy of choice for neutropenic sepsis
piperacillin and tazobactam
103
what is the most common thrombophilia
factor V Leiden - causes mutation in factor V resulting in resistance to inactivation by protein C.
104
What does protein C do
negative feedback on clotting cascade