Flashcards in Haematology and Oncology Deck (33):
1
What characteristics do malignancies that are high risk for tumour lysis syndrome have?
1. Malignancy highly responsive to treatment
2. Large tumour burden
3. High tumour cell proliferation rate - lymphomas, leukaemia, small cell carcinomas
2
List 5 metabolic derangements seen in tumour lysis syndrome
1. Hyperuricaemia - rapid cell death leads to release and breakdown of nucleic acid breakdown
2. Hyperphosphataemia - tumour cell death release large amounts of phosphate
3. Hyperkalaemia - lysed tumour cells release K which kidneys have difficulty excreting - can cause arrhythmias
4. Hypocalcaemia - usually the result of high phosphate leading to precipitation of calcium phosphate in renal tubules
5. Uraemia
3
What type of cells are targeted in chemotherapy?
Cells that divide rapidly; chemotherapy cannot distinguish between normal cells and cancer cells
"non-targeted" cells = hair follicles, GI mucosa, germ cells, bone marrow
4
What are the three types of chemotherapy-induced N&V?
1. Anticipatory - experiencing Sx in hours before receiving chemotherapy - conditioned response to previous effects from CT and environmental stimuli
2. Acute - within 24 hours and related to chemotherapeutic agents
3. Delayed - more than 24 hours post chemotherapy - specific agents - cisplatin, cyclophosphamide, adriamycin
5
List 5 medications used in the treatment of nausea (chemotherapy).
1. Dopamine antagonist - prochlorperazine/metoclopramide/haloperidol
2. Serotonin receptor blockers - ondansetron
3. Steroids - dexamethasone
4. Benzodiazepines - lorazepam
5. NK -1 receptor inhibitor - aprepitant
6
Which condition is the characterised by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells?
Hodgkin Lymphoma
7
What is are the components Ann Arbor staging?
Numbers
Stage 1 - a single node group
Stage 2 - nodes confined to one side of the diaphragm
Stage 3 - Nodes both sides of the diaphragm
Stage 4 - liver and/or bone marrow involved
Letters
A - no constitutional symptoms
B - fever; weight loss more than 10%; night sweats
E - extra-nodal site e.g. skin, bone, lung
S - denotes spleen
X - the largest deposit is >10 cm large ("bulky disease"), or whether the mediastinum is wider than 1/3 of the chest on a chest X-ray
8
What is superior vena cava syndrome? (2)
1. Oncological emergency - partial or complete obstruction of blood flow through SVC - may be due to compression, invasion, thrombosis, fibrosis
2. Severe reduction in venous return from head, neck and upper extremities - can induce rapid increase in intracranial pressure and can lead to brain oedema
9
What is febrile neutropaenia?
Complication of cancer chemotherapy
Oral temperature of more than 38.5C OR two consecutive readings of 38.0C
AND
absolute neutrophil count of less than 0.5
10
What is the age distribution of Hodgkin lymphoma?
Bimodal - one peak at 20s, 30s and second peak at age 50
11
Describe the clinical presentation of Hodgkin lymphoma (4)
1. Cervical/supraclavicular lymphadenopathy
2. B symptoms (fever, night sweats) over weeks to months (in widespread disease)
3. Mediastinal masses - usually discovered on routin CXR
4. Splenomegaly +/- hepatomegaly
12
What is the ABVD regimen?
Doxorubicin
Bleomycin
Vinblastine
Dacarbazine
Hodgkin lymphoma
13
How would you investigate Hodgkin lymphoma? (5)
1. FBE
2. Biochem - HIV serology, LFTs, UECs (prior to initiating chemotherapy), ALP, Ca2+ (bone involvement), ESR and LDH (monitor disease progression)
3. Imaging - CXR, CT chest/abdo/pelvis
4. Excisional lymph node biopsy CONFIRMS diagnosis
5. Bone marrow biopsy to assess marrow infiltration (only necessary if B-symptoms, stage III or IV, bulky disease)
14
What investigations would you order in suspected Haemophilia A?
APTT (prolonged)
INR (normal)
Decreased Factor VIII
FBE (normal platelets)
15
What is Haemophilia A ?
Factor VIII deficiency - BLEEDING! - X-linked recessive
16
What is Haemophilia B?
Factor IX deficiency - Christmas disease - X-linked recessive - BLEEDING
17
What investigations would you order in suspected Haemophilia B?
APTT (prolonged)
INR (normal)
Decrease Factor IX
FBE (normal platelets)
18
What is the pathology behind multiple myeloma?
Abnormal proliferation of plasma cells leading to secretion of immunoglobulins - predominantly IgG (2/3) and IgA (1/3)
19
List 4 symptoms seen in multiple myeloma.
1. Osteolytic bone lesions causing backache, pathological fractures and vertebral collapse - due to increased osteoclast activation from signalling by myeloma cells
2. Anaemia, neutropaenia or thrombocytopenia - marrow infiltration of plasma cells (causing anaemia, infections or bleeding)
3. Recurrent bacterial infections
4. Renal impairment due to light chain deposition
20
What investigations should be conducted if multiple myeloma is suspected? (5)
1. FBE - anaemia
2. ESR - increased
3. UECs - elevated urea and creatinine
4. Serum and urine electrophoresis - Bence jones proteins in urine
5. Imaging: x-rays - lytic punched out lesions
21
What are mixing studies and when are they conducted?
50:50 mix of patient and test plasma incubated together. If abnormality corrects - suggests factor deficiency. If abnormality does not correct - suggests an inhibitor
Mixing studies conducted in the presence of an abnormal aPTT or PT proceed to mixing studies
22
What is the most commonly inherited bleeding disorder?
Von Willebrand disease - a deficiency in vWF which is required in platelet adhesion
23
What 2 broad categories contribute to a reduced reticulocyte count?
1. Hypoproliferative anaemias - anaemia of chronic disease, iron deficiency, bone marrow infiltration etc.
2. Maturation abnormalities - megaloblastic and sideroblastic anaemias
24
What is myelodysplasia?
Heterogeneous group - clonal stem disorders characterised by dysplastic ineffective erythropoiesis (with mature cells functionally defective), peripheral blood cytopaenias and progression to AML
25
Who gets myelodysplasia?
Median age of 70, 10-15% therapy-related
26
List 3 factors that can induce the clinical features of G6PD deficiency
1. Drugs - antimalarials/sulphonamides
2. Broad bean - favism
3. Infections
27
What is the inheritance pattern of G6PD deficiency?
X-linked
28
What is the inheritance pattern of hereditary spherocytosis?
Autosomal dominant
29
What is the pathophysiology behind hereditary spherocytosis?
Defective membrane proteins leading to increased RBC fragility and reduced deformity - haemolysis
30
What are the three charasteristic features of haemolytic uraemic syndrome?
1. MAHA
2. Thrombocytopaenia
3. Renal failure
31
List 5 causes of microcytic anaemia
1 Iron deficiency
2. Anaemia of chronic disease
3. Thalassaemias/Haemoglobinopathies
4. Hyperthyroidism
5. Sideroblastic anaemia
32
List 4 causes of normocytic anaemia
1. Acute blood loss
2. Anaemia of chronic disease
3. Chronic renal failure
4. Endocrine causes - hypothyroidism, hypopituitarism
33