Haematopoiesis and Anaemias Flashcards

(69 cards)

1
Q

Main function of red blood cells (erythrocytes)

A
  • transports O2 and CO2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Main function of neutrophils

A
  • phagocytose and destroy invading bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Main function of eosinophils

A
  • destroy larger parasites and modulate allergic inflammatory responses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Main function of basophils

A
  • release histamine (and in some species serotonin) in certain immune reactions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Main function of monocytes

A
  • become tissue macrophages, which phagocytose and digest invading microorganisms and foreign bodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Main function of B cells

A
  • make antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Main function of T cells

A
  • kill virus-infected cells and regulate activities of other leucocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Main function of natural killer (NK) cells

A
  • kill virus-infected cells and some tumour cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Main function of platelets

A
  • initiate blood clotting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Wright’s stain

A
  • Histological stain that differentiates blood cells
  • Eosin bind to basic compounds like proteins in cytoplasm and methylene blue; converting ferric iron in Hb to ferrous iron
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Stem Cell Theory of Haematopoiesis

A
  • All cells derived from a pool of stem cells that are self-renewing
  • Pluripotential & multipotential stem cells give rise to committed stem cells for each cell line
  • Committed stem cells have receptors for specific growth factors
  • Respond to stimulation by division & maturation (precursor cell stages) into end-stage cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Progenitor and precursor cells

A
  • unspecialized or exhibits partial characteristics of specialized cells, but can produce more than one type of specialized cell type
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cell differentiation definitions

A
  • TOTIPOTENT; form all cells including extraembryonic and placental cells
  • PLURIPOTENT; give rise to all cell types
  • MULTIPOTENT; give rise to more than one cell type but limited
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What can multipotent stem cell (MSC) differentiate to?

A
  • Colony Forming Unit-Granulocyte, Erythrocyte, Monocyte, Megaokaryocyte (CFU-GEMM); myeloid cell line - late RBC’s, platelets, granulocytes and monocytes
  • Lymphoid stem cell (lymphoid cell line – later lymphocytes and natural killer cells)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Haemopoietic stem cells (HSC)

A
  • HSC are multi-potent stem cells that occur at a

frequency of 1:5000 in bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Timeline of development of blood cells

A
  • 3 wk : formation of blood islands from yolk sac
  • 6 wk : liver becomes hematopoietic organ
  • 6-8 wk : spleen (until 8th month)
  • ~20wk : bone marrow (life-long)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is meant by stem cell niche?

A
  • a specific site (microenvironment) in adult tissues where stem cells reside
    and undergo renewal and differentiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 2 haematopoietic niches in bone marrow?

A
  • Osteoblastic niche at the endosteal surface

- Vascular niche involving sinusoidal blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the osteoblastic niche?

A
  • maintains quiescence and harbours the Long Term-HSC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the vascular niche?

A
  • supports proliferation, differentiation and mobilization (transendothelial migration) of Short Term-HSC to blood stream in response to physiological demands and act as back up outside the BM for HSC during times of BM stress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Intrinsic v Extrinsic factors controlling haematopoiesis

A
  • Cell fate determination is governed by interactions between extrinsic and intrinsic factors
  • Soluble growth factors (extrinsic)
  • Transcription factors (intrinsic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sequence of erythropoiesis

A
  • proerythroblast
  • basophilic erythroblast
  • polychromatophilic erythroblast
  • orthochromatophilic erythroblast
  • reticulocyte
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Proerythroblast

A
  • First cell committed to RBC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Basophilic erythroblast

A
  • nucleus becomes smaller

- cytoplasm becomes more basophilic due to the presence of ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
polychromatophilic erythroblast
- produce more haemoglobin | - cytoplasm starts to take up both basophilic and eosinophilic stains
26
orthochromatophilic erythroblast
- extrudes nucleus
27
reticulocyte
- cytoplasm containing reticular networks of polyribosomes | - Enters circulation
28
transcription factors in erythropoiesis
- regulate stem cell survival (e.g. GATA2) or involved in differentiation (e.g. GATA1 – myeloid differentiation) - can interact to reinforce one programme which may suppress that of another lineage and can induce protein synthesis associated with a specific lineage
29
soluble factors in erythropoiesis
- act locally or systemically | - May cause proliferation, stimulate differentiation, maturation, prevent apoptosis and affect function
30
Erythropoietin
- hormone produced in peritubular fibroblast like cells - anti-apoptotic - levels increase with decrease in Hb
31
Red Blood Cell metabolism
- Red blood cells function without a nucleus and mitochondria - Only nucleated RBC; normoblasts (RBC precursor) and megaloblasts which appear in megaloblastic anaemia - No nucleus; enhances flexibility, restricts size, increasing O2 carrying capacity - Reduced life span
32
Pentose Phosphate Pathway
- Generates reduced NAD i.e. NADPH - NADPH generates reduced glutathione (anti-oxidant) - Generation of reduced glutathione stimulates glucose metabolism - help prevent oxidative stress - to reduce the oxidated form of glutathione - keep haemaglobin in ferrous state (Fe2+ allow O2 binding)
33
Methemoglobin reductase pathway
- Maintains iron in Fe2+ state
34
Leubering Rapaport Bypass
- 2,3-DPG regulates O2 carrying capacity and release
35
Lactic acid fermentation
- Produces NAD+ and ATP
36
How do red blood cells make ATP?
- EMBDEN MEYERHOF PATHWAY - glycolysis of glucose to pyruvate forming ATP and NADH - lactic acid fermentation on pyruvate forming ATP, NAD+, lactate
37
Causes of anaemia
- decrease in production - increase in destruction - blood loss
38
WHO definition of anaemia
- < 13g/dL (men) - <12g/dL (women) - <11g/dL if pregnant
39
Classification of anaemias
- by film appearance/morphology | - by cause (underlying morphology)
40
Diagnosis of anaemia
- Physical examination - Full blood count - Reticulocyte count; decreased in states of decreased production, Increased in destruction of red blood cells - Bone marrow biopsy
41
RBC Assessment
- Number – Done by automated counters - Size - Large, normal size, or small; all same size versus variable sizes (anisocytosis). Mean volume - Shape - Normal biconcave disc, versus spherocytes, versus oddly shaped cells (poikilocytosis) - Color - Generally an artifact of size of cell
42
Normocytic anaemia
- Normal size RBC – reduced number
43
Haemolytic anaemia
- RBC destroyed faster than being synthesised
44
Normochromic/normocytic (NN) anaemia classification
- reduction in Hb and RBC counts - normal mean corpuscular volume (MCV), mean corpuscular Hb (MCH) and mean corpuscular Hb concentration (MCHC). - Due to bleeding from internal or external injury. - Due to bone marrow failure. - Many haemolytic anaemias.
45
Macrocytic (normochromic) (MN) anaemia classification
- MCV of > 100 fl and a normal MCHC. Cells are much larger but the cellular [Hb] is normal. - Megaloblastic anaemias - certain haemolytic anaemias.
46
Microcytic (hypochromic) (MH) anaemia classification
- MCV of < 85 fl and an MCHC of < 30 g/dl. - Iron deficiency anaemia (most common) - Sideroblastic anaemias (impaired haem synthesis) - Thalassaemia syndromes (impaired globin synthesis)
47
Red blood cell aplasia
- erythroblasts; reduced or increased - Pure RBC aplasia (PRBCA) most common due to reduced erythroblasts - Congenital, most common DIAMOND-BLACKFAN ANAEMIA (congenital hypoplastic anaemia), ribosomal protein genes - Myelodysplastic syndrome-excessive fibroblast growth
48
Acquired PRBCA
- Causes; Primary or secondary - infections; virus e.g. HIV, bacteria e.g. staphylococcal - Solid and haematological tumours - Autoimmune disease - Drugs and chemical
49
Treatments of aplastic anaemia
- transfusions - corticosteroids - bone marrow transplant
50
Macrocytic (megaloblastic) anaemia
- disorder of DNA synthesis, cells undergo incorrect division - B12 and/or folate deficiency - dietary or due to malabsorption - decrease in Hb, increase in mean corpuscular volume - classical anaemia symptoms plus neurological symptoms - other rapidly dividing cells (skin GI mucosa, hair follicles etc.) also affected
51
Anaemia of chronic disease
- normochromic/normocytic (i.e normal cells in reduced numbers) - mechanism unclear; often seen in malignant disease, chronic inflammation and chronic infection - only cured by treating underlying cause
52
Chronic renal failure
- reduced production of erythroid precursors - caused by lack of EPO production (by kidneys) - normal cells produced but in greatly reduced number - normochromic normocytic anaemia
53
Polycythemia vera
- increase in all blood cells - causes: unknown mutation in stem cells and JAK2, increased sensitivity to EPO (erythropoietin) - symptoms: headaches, dizziness, flushed complexion, increased blood viscosity, number of RBCs increased for no other reason
54
Erythemia
- increase in red blood cells | - phlebotomy is most common treatment
55
Haemolytic anaemia
- results from increased rate of RBC destruction - RBC are removed extravascularly by macrophages of reticuloendothelial system in marrow, liver and spleen - increased haemolysis: symptoms of anaemia, splenomegaly due to increased workload
56
How doesn’t shortened lifespan always lead to anaemia?
- bone marrow can increase production 6-8 fold - maintains normal Hb level - marrow will exhibit hyperplasia - “compensated haemolytic disease” for haemolytic disorders with reticulocytosis, but no anaemia
57
Classifying haemolytic anaemia
- intrinsic or extrinsic: is problem within RBCs themselves (membrane, enzymes, globin) or outside (physical, chemical, mechanical, drugs)? - intravascular or extravascular: site of production - important for diagnosis - acquired or inherited
58
Intravascular haemolysis
- RBCs destroyed in circulation - released Hb in plasma - can be immune mediated e.g. blood group incompatibility - iron containing compounds in blood can cause damage - Free Hb can bind haptoglobin, can reduce haptoglobin levels
59
Extravascular haemolysis
- premature destruction of RBCs in spleen/bone marrow - RBC removed by macrophages - Haem breakdown in macrophage generates bilirubin - bilirubin released and bound onto albumin to liver for conjugation and excretion in bile - rise in unconjugated bilirubin - jaundice
60
Evidence of increased haemolysis
- damaged RBCs: destroyed released into plasma, osmotic fragility, sickle cells, red cell fragments - biochemical indicators: bilirubin, haptoglobin, breakdown products - haemoglobinuria (high Hb in urine) and often linked with haemolytic anaemia - increased erythropoiesis: reticulocytosis, erythroid hyperplasia
61
Acquired (extrinsic) anaemia
- immune: autoimmune, HDN, incompatible transfusion, drug induced - non-immune: mechanical, chemical, infection, burns, toxins
62
Inherited (intrinsic) anaemia
- membrane defects: e.g. spherocytosis - globin defects e.g. sickle - enzyme defects e.g. G6PD deficiency
63
RBC Membrane defects in haemolytic anaemia
- hereditary spherocytosis; skeletal membrane and lipid bilayer protein interactions, spherical, loss of flexibility - hereditary elliptocytosis; oval and elliptoid, protein deficiency - paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria; mutation in PIG-A, defect in GPI, cells sensitive to complement
64
Hereditary spherocytosis/elliptocytosis
- abnormal membrane construction - RBCs are unusual shape and rigid - readily removed by spleen - morphology: spherocytes/elliptocytes, reticulocytosis, RBCs smaller than usual - responds to splenectomy
65
Globin abnormalities e.g. sickle cell
- defective Hb produced: caused by single amino acid substitution on beta-chain of molecule - during sickle crises (infection, low O2 tension etc.) Hb becomes rigid: cells distort lifespan 10-12 days
66
Mechanical part of extrinsic haemolytic anaemias
- RBCs damaged/destroyed by mechanical process - prosthetic heart valves, laying down of fibrin strands, marching, long-distance running - lab findings: film shows fragments
67
Chemical/physical part of extrinsic haemolytic anaemias
- RBCs damaged directly - Burns victims: heat over 47oC cremates cells - lead poisoning: direct toxic effect on RBCs - damaged cells removed by spleen (haemolysis)
68
Immune-mediated haemolysis
- antibodies react with RBCs and cause destruction - causes include incompatible blood transfusion, autoantibodies e.g. lupus, drug reactions - RBCs May show autoagglutination on film - can be extravascular
69
Infection of extrinsic haemolytic anaemias
- RBCs removed as spleen defects intracellular infection e.g. malaria - organism conducts life-span within RBC