Haemolytic Crash Course Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

Which of these is the most concerning for an acute leukaemia:

A. Neutrophil count of 12

B. 10cm splenomegaly

C. Microcytic anaemia

D. Blast cells present on blood film examination

E. Cervical lymphadenopathy

A

D. Blast cells present on blood film examination

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2
Q

What can cause a high platelet count? (5)

A
  • Acute infection
  • Chronic inflammation
  • Malignancy (5-10%)
  • Essential thrombocytopenia
  • Polycythaemia rubra vera

Patients who are well with no inflammation or infection should be investigated

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3
Q

Which of these blood differentials is most in keeping with CML?

A

1
Chronic leukaemias always have a high WCC (excluding 3 + 4)

With CML would expect a high neutrophil count (excluding 2)

High platelet, eosinophil + basophil count is in keeping with CML

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4
Q

Rank these in order of Ann-Arbor staging (top stage 1- bottom stage 4)

A. Cervical lymphadenopathy + BM infiltration

B. Mediastinal + axillary lymphadenopathy

C. Inguinal + Cervical lymphadenopathy

D. A single enlarged lymph node in the axilla

A

D. Single enlarged LN in axilla

B. Mediastinal + axillary lymphadenopathy

C. Inguinal + Cervical lymphadenopathy

A. Cervical lymphadenopathy + BM infiltration

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5
Q

A patient with newly diagnosed Burkitt Lymphoma has these blood results 6h after chemotherapy

Creatinine 200 (baseline 90)

Urea 14.4 (baseline 6)

K+ 7.1 (3.5-5.5)

Na+ 140 (135-145)

Ca2+ 1.81 (2.2-2.6)

Phosphate 1-1.6)

Uric acid 800 (<400)

What is the diagnosis?

What is the treatment?
A

Diagnosis: Tumour lysis syndrome

Tx: Resburicase (depletes uric acid levels), treat K+, renal replacement therapy

Use Allopurinol to prevent this or Resburicase in high risk patient

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6
Q

What investigations are needed for a patient with an IgG lambda paraprotein of 25g/l discovered on a routine blood test?

A

Anyone with a IgA paraprotein >10 or IgG paraprotein >15 get referred to haematology clinic

Imaging to look for bone lesions + BM biopsy

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7
Q

55M with no PMH presents with fatigue to his GP. Bloods show

WCC 7 

Hb 90

MCV 95

Na 140

K 4.0

Creatinine 90

Calcium 2.5

Serum electrophoresis shows an IgG kappa paraprotein of 37g/l

Full body MRI shows no lytic lesions 

BM aspirate shows a clonal population of plasma cells, 15% of marrow cells

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute Leukaemia

B. Multiple Myeloma

C. Smouldering Myeloma

D. MGUS

E. Waldenstrom’s Macroglobulinaemia
A

B. Multiple Myeloma

Paraprotein >30 means it can only be multiple myeloma or smouldering myeloma

CRAB Sx: fatigue and Hb of 90 (with no other cause) confirms dx of MM

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8
Q

55M presents with 2/52 hx of fatigue and easy bruising to his GP. Bloods show

WCC 27 

Hb 90

Plt 30 

Na 140

K 4.0

Creatinine 90

Calcium 2.5

Blood film shows presence of blasts, with 27% blasts in marrow

Flow cytometry shows a clonal population of cells expressing CD34, CD19 + TdT

Cytogenic analysis shows the presence of t(9;22)

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

B. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

C. Mixed Phenotype Acute Leukaemia

D. Adult T-cell Leukaemia-lymphoma

E. Burkitt’s lymphoma
A

B. Acute lymphoblastiic leukaemia

Any % >20% blasts in BM defines acute leukaemia

CD19: B cell marker

TdT: Lymphoid precursor marker

t(9;22): seen in CML, but also ~1/3 cases of ALL

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9
Q
  1. 55M presents with 2/52 hx of fatigue and easy bruising to his GP. Bloods showWCC 27Hb 90Plt 30Na 140K 4.0Creatinine 90Calcium 2.5Blood film shows presence of blasts, with 27% blasts in marrowFlow cytometry shows a clonal population of cells expressing CD34, MPO

What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
B. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
C. Mixed Phenotype Acute Leukaemia
D. Adult T-cell Leukaemia-lymphoma
E. Burkitt’s lymphoma

A

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

Auer Rod

MPO: myeloid cell marker

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10
Q

25M presents to GP after 4/52 hx of intermittent fevers + drenching night sweats. Blood results show:

WCC 7 

Hb 120

Plt 300 

Na 140

K 4.0

Creatinine 90

Calcium 2.5

Examination reveals cervical lymphadenopathy , which is biopsied. On biopsy there are multinucleated cells. What is the diagnosis?

A. Mantle Cell lymphoma

B. Disseminated tuberculosis

C. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia

D. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

E. Burkitt’s Lymphoma
A

D. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Reed Sternburg cell on biopsy

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11
Q
  1. A 50F presents to GP with left sided abdominal pain. Examination reveals palpable splenomegaly. Blood tests:WCC 30Hb 110Platelets 500Neutrophils 20Monocytes 0.7 (<1)

A blood film shows left shifted granulocytes.

Urgent FISH shows presence of BCR-ABL1 fusion gene. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia 

B. Chronic Myelomonocytic Leukaemia

C. Myelodysplastic syndrome

D. Essential Thrombocythaemia 

E. Myelofibrosis
A

CML

Left shifted granulocytes and BCR-ABL1 fusion gene

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12
Q

Give 3 clinical manifestations of BM failure

A

Anaemia: SOB, Chest pain on exertion, fatigue

Thrombocytopenia: easy bruising, petechial rashes, spontaneous bleeding e.g. epistaxis

Neutropenia: frequent or severe infections inc. opportunistic infections

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13
Q

In which type of leukaemias is splenomegaly more common?

A

LESS common in ACUTE than chronic leukaemias (as takes a long time for spleen to enlarge that much)

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14
Q

Give 5 potential features of AML on presentation

A

Bone pain

Occassional mild lymphadenopathy

Fevers from disease

Rarer: gum infiltrates, skin

Pancytopenia: May have elevated WCC- but low neutrophil count

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15
Q

In which type of leukaemia is there less burden in the BM?

A

Chronic
Slower proliferation
(thus less anaemia, thrombocytopenia + neutropenia, but will develop eventually given enough time)

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16
Q

How may chronic leukaemias be differentiated on examination?

A

CLL: Lymphadenopathy + Splenomegaly

CML: Splenomegaly

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17
Q

How may chronic leukaemias be differentiated on examination?

A

CLL: Lymphadenopathy + Splenomegaly

CML: Splenomegaly

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18
Q

What is leukostasis? What can this result in? (4)

A

Haematological emergency

High WCC causes blood to be viscous + end organ damage:
Retinopathy
Pulmonary infiltrates
Bleeding
Thrombosis

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19
Q

What is the treatment for leukostasis?

A

Leukaphoresis or chemo/ steroids

20
Q

Give 6 features that may present in a question about ALL

A
  • Often 2-5y
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Bone pain/ limp
  • Fevers
  • CNS Sx (up to 10%)
  • Testicular swelling (rare but specific)
21
Q

How would ALL present in an adult?

A

BM failure
Bone pain, splenomegaly
Lymphadenopathy

22
Q

What will be seen on a blood test in acute lymphoid leukaemia?

A

High WCC (but not always)
Anaemia
Thrombocytopenia

Some analysers flag blasts as lymphocytes

23
Q

What will be seen on blood film in ALL?

A

High nuclear : cytoplasmic ratio
Lymphoblasts larger than RBCs (normal lymphocytes same size as RBCs)
Blasts often have tails/ blebs of cytoplasm

24
Q

What can be used to distinguish between ALL and AML?

A

Immunophenotyping (looking at markers expressed)

25
Give 2 markers of immaturity which are seen in ALL
CD34 TdT
26
Which markers are expressed by B cells in ALL?
CD19 CD20 CD22
27
Which markers are expressed by T cells in ALL?
CD3 CD4 CD8
28
Which mutation may be associated with ALL? What % of adults have this? Which targeted treatment can be used against this?
BCR-ABL1 t(9;22) 20-30% of ALL in adults (same mutation that causes CML) Imatinib
29
What is the chemo treatment for ALL?
Induction: chemo + steroids Consolidation: high dose, multi-drug Maintenance: 2y in F + adults, 3y in M Consider allo-SCT if high risk of relapse
30
Name 3 targeted treatments in ALL
Nelarabine (T-ALL) CAR-T cells Blinatumumab (B-ALL)
31
Give 5 poor prognostic factors for ALL
Age < 2y or > 10y WBC > 20 * 10^9/l at dx T or B cell surface markers Non-Caucasian Male sex
32
What supportive treatment is given in ALL?
Blood products Abx prophylaxis Allopurinol, Fluid + Electrolytes to prevent TLS
33
Give 4 features to look for in a question about AML
- Incidence **INCREASES** with age - Might have had pre-existing **myelodysplastic syndrome** (MDS) - Sx of cytopenias - May have hx of chemotherapy, though mostly idiopathic
34
What will be seen on blood test in AML? (6)
- Anaemia: due to BM suppression - Leukocytosis: high no. circulating white cells - Thrombocytopenia: due to BM suppression - Neutropenia: lack of mature white cells due to excess of blasts - High no. circulating blasts - Normal INR: normal for AML
35
What may be seen on a blood film in AML?
AUER RODS A single Auer rod is enough to diagnose AML (or MDS), but sometimes there are lots Not all AML patients have Auer rods Granules
36
What markers are expressed in AML? (4)
MPO = myeloid cells CD13 CD33 CD117
37
Which marker is expressed in both ALL and AML? What is this indicative of?
CD34 Precursor/ stem cells
38
What targeted treatment can be used for acute promyelocytic leukaemia? What is the MOA?
ATRA All-trans-retinoic acid Forces cells to differentiate, stops proliferation
39
Which chemotherapy drugs are often used in AML?
Induction: Daunorubicin + Cytarabine Consolidation: Cytarabine Consider allo-SCT if high risk of relapse
40
Which drugs may be used in older patients with AML?
Azacytidine +/- Venetoclax
41
Name 3 targeted treatments in AML
Midostaurin: FLT3 mutations Gemtuzumab: CD33 immunotherapy Enasidenib: IDH mutations
42
What are 4 types of myeloproliferative neoplasm?
Essential Thrombocytopenia Polycythaemia Vera Myelofibrosis Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia
43
Give 3 features of essential thrombocytopenia
Platelet count >450 consistently with no other cause Increased risk thrombotic events (arterial + venous) Small risk of transformation to myelofibrosis or AML
44
Give 3 mutations seen in essential thrombocytopenia
JAK2 CALR MPL
45
What treatment is required for essential thrombocytopenia?
Aspirin (reduce stroke risk) Hydroxycarbamide (to lower count)
46
What is seen on blood film in essential thrombocytopenia?
Large platelets + megakaryocyte fragments