Hand Tendons Flashcards
(196 cards)
A 46-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after sustaining an injury to the dominant right wrist. Examination shows a 6-cm-diameter wound on the dorsal surface of the wrist. Significant contamination of the wound and segmental tendon loss are noted. Neurovascular status is intact. The patient is unable to extend the index, long, and ring fingers. Which of the following is the most important next step in management?
A) Immediate coverage with a free flap and delayed tendon grafting
B) Irrigation and debridement of all contaminated and nonviable tissue
C) Placement of allograft tendons and skin substitutes
D) Primary repair of tendons
E) Primary single-stage tendon grafting and coverage with a groin flap
B) Irrigation and debridement of all contaminated and nonviable tissue
Severely contaminated wounds, open fractures, and joint capsule lacerations require emergent and thorough irrigation and debridement. Fractures and skin loss should be treated in the initial procedure when feasible. Fractures should be fixed rigidly enough to allow early dynamic splinting or active motion. For lacerations without associated injury, the extensor tendon can be repaired emergently or in a delayed primary fashion after irrigation, debridement, and loose closure of the wound. If the repair is delayed, it should be performed within 7 days before the tendon ends retract or soften.
Within what time frame should tendon repair be performed?
7 days
Favorable vs unfavorable zones of extensor tendon injury
Good results: Zones I, II, IV, V
Worse results: Zones III, VI
An 18-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a degloving injury to the dorsal aspect of the nondominant left hand in an all-terrain vehicle rollover. Physical examination shows loss of the soft tissues and the extensor tendons of the index, long, ring, and little fingers and an abnormal Allen test. Fractures of the second, third, and fourth metacarpal shafts are also present. Following serial debridements, the patient has a dorsal hand defect measuring 6 × 8 cm with obvious open fractures. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the soft-tissue defect? A) Anterolateral thigh free flap B) Full-thickness skin grafting C) Rectus abdominis muscle free flap D) Reverse radial forearm flap E) Split-thickness skin grafting
A) Anterolateral thigh free flap
Dorsal hand defects with exposed bone cannot be safely reconstructed with a split-thickness skin graft and require durable coverage. Although more durable than split-thickness skin grafts, full-thickness grafts cannot be expected to take over a large area such as this defect with exposed bone. Appropriate choices include the anterolateral thigh free flap or other perforator flaps (thoracodorsal artery perforator flap) or muscle flaps.
Local flaps such as the reverse radial forearm flap can be used in the upper extremity, although advances in microsurgery have led to a decrease in use, so as to minimize the added morbidity of the already injured extremity.
Local flap vs free flap for maimed upper extremity
Local flaps such as the reverse radial forearm flap can be used in the upper extremity, although advances in microsurgery have led to a decrease in use, so as to minimize the added morbidity of the already injured extremity.
Appropriate coverage for dorsal hand defects with exposed bone
Appropriate choices include the anterolateral thigh free flap or other perforator flaps (thoracodorsal artery perforator flap) or muscle flaps.
A 35-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a deep laceration of his left dorsal hand. Physical examination shows a transverse 2-cm laceration over the dorsal metacarpal joint of the index finger with exposed extensor tendons. Radial nerve blockat the level of the wrist is planned before exploration. The needle should be inserted superficial to which of the following landmarks? A) Flexor carpi radialis tendon B) Lister tubercle C) Radial artery D) Second dorsal extensor compartment E) Styloid process of the radius
E) Styloid process of the radius
The sensory branch of the radial nerve arises between the brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis brevis approximately 8 cm proximal to the styloid process of the radius. It pierces the fascia approximately 5 cm (3 fingerbreadths) proximal to the radial styloid. The nerve then fans out proximal to the wrist and passes superficially to the radial styloid and first dorsal compartment.
Where does the sensory branch of the radial nerve arise?
The sensory branch of the radial nerve arises between the brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis brevis approximately 8 cm proximal to the styloid process of the radius.
Anatomical course of the sensory branch of the radial nerve
The sensory branch of the radial nerve arises between the brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis brevis approximately 8 cm proximal to the styloid process of the radius. It pierces the fascia approximately 5 cm (3 fingerbreadths) proximal to the radial styloid. The nerve then fans out proximal to the wrist and passes superficially to the radial styloid and first dorsal compartment.
What anatomical landmark should be used for radial nerve block at the wrist?
The nerve should be inserted superficial to the styloid process of the radius
The FDS tendon flexes the ____ joint
PIP joint
A 30-year-old man comes to the emergency department after sustaining a laceration of the palm of the left hand from a knife. He reports difficulty flexing the ring finger of the left hand. A photograph is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate method to clinically assess the integrity of the flexor digitorum superficialis tendon?
A) Hold the distal interphalangeal joint of the ring finger in extension and ask the patient to flex
B) Hold the index, long, and little fingers in extension and ask the patient to flex
C) Hold the long, ring, and little fingers flexed atthe metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint and ask the patient to flex
D) Hold the MCP joints of the index, long, and little fingers in flexion and ask the patient to extend
E) Hold the ring finger extended at the MCP joint and ask the patient to flex
B) Hold the index, long, and little fingers in extension and ask the patient to flex
The flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) tendon flexes the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. The flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon can also flex the PIP joint, in addition to flexing the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. To confirm that the FDS tendon is flexing the PIP joint, FDP motion must be excluded.
FDS function
The flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) tendon flexes the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint.
FDP function
In addition to flexing the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint, the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon can also flex the PIP joint.
How to confirm that the FDS tendon is functioning
To confirm that the FDS tendon is flexing the PIP joint, FDP motion must be excluded.
A 28-year-old man comes to the office for evaluation because of restricted movement of the little finger of his right hand 3 years after sustaining a Zone II flexor tendon injury. Active flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint is to 20 degrees; he is unable to actively flex the distal joint. Staged flexor tendon reconstruction is considered. Which of the following factors would prohibit consideration for tendon reconstruction?
A) Limited passive range of motion of the distal interphalangeal joint
B) Patient age
C) Poorly compliant patient
D) Scarred soft-tissue bed
E) Uncontrolled pain
C) Poorly compliant patient
Staged flexor tendon reconstruction is a challenging endeavor that should not be undertaken lightly. To reach a successful outcome, both the patient and the surgeon must make a commitment to extensive surgeries, therapy sessions, and the possibility that the outcome may not be ideal; in fact, the outcome may compromise some existing function (as in cases of secondary quadriga or infection).
Prerequisites for attempted surgical intervention include good passive range of motion of all joints involved; a healthy, well-vascularized soft-tissue bed for tendon gliding; and good patient compliance with postoperative therapy and wound care. In such a setting, staged flexor tendon reconstruction can be undertaken with a reasonably good chance of success. Patient range of motion can be controlled with therapy. With good compliance, patient age is not a factor. Uncontrolled pain can become controlled with appropriate medication and therapy
A 15-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department because he felt a “pop” followed by acute pain in his left ring finger while grabbing an opposing player’s jersey during a rugby match. Physical examination shows pain, tenderness, and swelling over the volar aspect of the finger, from the area of the distal interphalangeal joint flexor crease to the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint crease. The distal phalanx rests at neutral and no active flexion is possible. The patient can flex at the PIP with minimal discomfort. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) End-to-end flexor tendon repair
B) Flexor tendon reinsertion
C) Open reduction and pin fixation of the middle phalanx
D) Splinting, followed in 2 weeks by range-of-motion exercises
E) Tendon transfer
B) Flexor tendon reinsertion
The scenario described provides a classic example of a distal flexor tendon avulsion. Because of several potential factors, the ring finger is the most common finger to present with this type of injury. The flexor digitorum profundus of the ring finger has a less robust insertion at the distal phalanx than the long finger, which is a tip-off in the vignette for this classic injury. Yet the ring finger is similarly involved in the type of hyperextension force, or resisted flexion force, which generates this injury. The little finger does not present as much with this injury either.Flexor tendon reinsertion is correct, because the indicated management is early operation and reinsertion, if possible, of the avulsed tendon. This can be accomplished in a variety of ways, but that discussion is not central to the question.
Why is the ring finger more often involved in jersey finger?
The flexor digitorum profundus of the ring finger has a less robust insertion at the distal phalanx than the long finger, which is a tip-off in the vignette for this classic injury. Yet the ring finger is similarly involved in the type of hyperextension force, or resisted flexion force, which generates this injury.
A 25-year-old lawyer comes to the office because of a 1-year history of limited ability to extend the right long finger at the proximal interphalangeal joint with no limitation of flexion following a jammed finger after playing basketball. X-ray study shows a normal articular surface and no evidence of fracture or foreign body. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
A) Dorsal collateral ligament contracture
B) Dorsal edema
C) Dupuytren contracture
D) Extensor adhesions
E) Flexor adhesions
E) Flexor adhesions
Previous injuries to a flexor tendon or canal can result in scar formation of the tendon to anadjacent structure. Other structures which can limit digital extension include volar plate contracture (including checkrein ligaments), collateral ligament contracture (true and accessory), scarring or insufficiency of the skin volar to the joint, and joint irregularity, arthrosis, or bony block.
What structures can limit extension at the PIPJ?
- Flexor adhesions
- Volar plate contracture (including checkrein ligaments)
- Collateral ligament contracture (true and accessory)
- Scarring or insufficiency of the skin volar to the joint
- Joint irregularity
- Arthrosis
- Bony block.
A 24-year-old man comes to the office three months after sustaining a crush injury to the volar aspect of the right forearm during the rollover of a motor vehicle. Fasciotomies were performed when he awoke from a coma two days after the initial injury. Physical examination shows the digits flexed into the palm. Tenodesis effect without fixed contractures is present. A modified Henry fasciotomy scar is noted on the right forearm; skin coverage is otherwise excellent. No peripheral nerve injury is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical procedure to correct this deformity? A ) Innervated free muscle transfer B ) Muscle slide C ) Resection of the intrinsic muscles D ) Tendon lengthening E ) Tendon transfers
D ) Tendon lengthening
The most appropriate surgical procedure for the correction of the deformity described is tendon lengthening.
The patient described would be classified as a Holden II, mild type, because his ischemia was caused by direct trauma and his muscle involvement is limited to the deep flexors at the site of theinjury. Z-plasty tendon lengthening and possible skin release and limited scarred muscle resection are sufficient.
Patients with established ischemic forearm contractures are categorized by:
Patients with established ischemic forearm contractures are categorized by both the Holden and Tsuge classification systems.
Holden I injuries
Patients with established ischemic forearm contractures:
In Holden I injuries, the arterial ischemia and venous stasis begin proximal to the forearm fascial compartment.
Holden II injuries
Patients with established ischemic forearm contractures:
Holden II injuries are from direct trauma, and the ischemia begins at the site of the injury.