Hand Tumors Flashcards

1
Q

A 40-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of pain and swelling over the proximal phalanx of the right index finger. He has no history of trauma. X-ray studies and MRI of the finger show an expansile osteolytic lesion of the proximal phalanx. Examination of a specimen obtained on biopsy confirms the diagnosis of giant cell tumor of the bone. Which of the following is the most appropriate staging test for this patient?

A) CT scan of the cervical spine
B) CT scan of the chest
C) MR arthrography of the wrist
D) MRI of the brain
E) Pulmonary function testing

A

The correct response is Option B.

This patient is presenting with a primary giant cell tumor of the proximal phalanx bone. Giant cell tumors of the bone are considered benign but locally aggressive tumors. Only 2 to 5% of giant cell tumors arise from the bones of the hand. These lesions have a 1 to 5% incidence of pulmonary metastases. The distal radius is the third most common site of giant cell bone tumor origin. Hand and distal radius tumors have higher rates of recurrence and metastasis. The lungs are the most common site of metastatic lesions and a CT scan of the chest is recommended as part of the diagnostic work-up.

The tumors are graded radiographically according to the Campanacci grading system. Grade I lesions are well-demarcated with an intact bony cortex. Grade II lesions show cortical expansion, and Grade III lesions show cortical destruction with soft-tissue extension. Grade I and II lesions can be treated with curettage and bone grafting. Adjuvant treatments such as phenol and liquid nitrogen have been recommended, but their efficacy has not been proven. Recurrence rates have been reported between 30 and 80% with this approach. Later stage tumors are treated with en bloc excision or amputation and reconstruction with vascularized or nonvascularized bone grafts. High rates of tumor recurrence are thought to be due to incomplete resection or late presentation at the time of diagnosis.

There is no specific added benefit for an arthrogram of the wrist in a tumor arising from the proximal phalanx as in this case. MR arthrography of the wrist, CT scan of the cervical spine, MRI of the brain, and pulmonary function testing are not typically used for staging giant cell tumor of the bone.

2018

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2
Q

A 24-year-old man who works as a laborer comes to the office because of a 2-cm mass on the dorsum of each hand. MRI shows an anomalous muscle. Which of the following is the most likely structure?

A) Extensor digitorum brevis
B) Extensor digitorum longus
C) Extensor digitorum brevis manus
D) Extensor indicis proprius
E) Extensor medii proprius

A

The correct response is Option C.

The extensor digitorum brevis manus is an anomalous muscle of the hand, which typically presents as a tender dorsal wrist mass. Incidence in the general population is estimated to be 2 to 3%. Anatomically, this muscle classically originates from the proximal dorsal radiocarpal ligament and inserts into the index finger extensor mechanism. Diagnosis is characteristic on ultrasonography or MRI. Treatment should be directed to symptoms and may include rest, activity modification, fourth dorsal compartment release, and/or muscle excision.

2018

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3
Q

A 72-year-old man is referred for surgical treatment of a 3-cm, tender red mass on the left elbow. It developed spontaneously over the past 3 weeks, and has not improved with 10 days of oral cephalexin therapy. During incision and drainage, the mass is found to be filled with copious milky white fluid with white solid granules. Pathology shows crystal deposits in the fluid. In addition to wound packing, which of the following is the most appropriate therapy?

A) Colchicine
B) Doxorubicin
C) Fluconazole
D) Methotrexate
E) Vancomycin

A

The correct response is Option A.

This patient has gout and presents with a gouty tophus of the elbow. The red nodule over a joint with milky white fluid is diagnostic. The treatment of choice is an anti-inflammatory agent, and colchicine is the most common. Gout results from an imbalance in purine metabolism, resulting in uric acid crystal deposition in the joints. The great toe is most commonly affected, classically known as podagra. When these nodules occur in the upper extremity, it is easy to misdiagnose them as bacterial in origin. For unknown reasons, gout is more common in men and occurs more frequently after surgery of any type.

Vancomycin would be appropriate for a severe, systemic bacterial infection such as methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). In this case, purulent drainage would be expected, rather than the milky fluid with granules that was encountered.

Fluconazole is an antifungal. Methotrexate is used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, not gout. Doxorubicin is an antineoplastic chemotherapy agent and would be used to treat a biopsy-confirmed cancer.

2017

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4
Q

A 20-year-old man comes to the office because of an enlarging mass of the humerus. Examination of a specimen obtained on biopsy shows osteosarcoma. Which of the following locations is most likely metastatic in this patient?

A) Brain
B) Colon
C) Digit
D) Liver
E) Lung

A

The correct response is Option E.

The most common site of osteosarcoma metastasis is the lung. The tumor is most commonly found in the upper extremity proximal humerus. Osteosarcoma is the most common malignant bone tumor. It is most commonly found in childhood and rarely in the hands at that time. The incidence in the hand is 0.18%. In patients over 40 years of age, the proximal phalanx and metacarpals are involved.

Symptoms often begin 3 to 12 months prior to diagnosis and include pain and swelling. Radiographs show a sunburst pattern with periosteal elevation at Codman’s triangle. Treatment includes wide excision or amputation and neoadjuvant chemotherapy.

Malignant tumors of bone are rare, occurring in 1/5000 tumors.

2017

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5
Q

A 25-year-old postpartum woman comes to the office because of a painful mass of the left little finger. The patient reports that the swelling began during her teen years but enlarged rapidly and became painful during the third trimester of her recent pregnancy. Physical examination shows the mass is soft and compressible. The patient reports that the mass becomes firm if the hand is dependent. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of treatment in this patient?

A) Arterial embolization
B) Oral propranolol therapy
C) Pulsed-dye laser therapy
D) Surgical excision
E) Observation

A

The correct response is Option D.

In this patient, observation would be inappropriate. Small, painless lesions can be safely observed, but symptoms such as pain or loss of function warrant intervention. In this patient, who has a painful venous malformation, observation would be inappropriate. Pulsed-dye laser therapy provides effective treatment for cutaneous vascular lesions. Although the image does show a bluish discoloration over the lesion in the small finger, the skin is largely uninvolved. This venous vascular malformation represents a deeper lesion that would be unaffected by laser therapies directed at the skin. Surgical excision remains the mainstay for treatment of symptomatic low-flow vascular malformations such as this one. The patient description presents a classic picture (soft, compressible, swelling with dependency, rapid growth with hormonal changes). Sclerotherapy may be combined with surgical excision for larger or more diffuse lesions. In this patient, the small, localized lesion can be approached by surgical excision alone. Arterial embolization can decrease the size of high-flow vascular malformations and decrease blood loss during surgical excision. The presentation of this lesion is most consistent with a low-flow, venous malformation (soft, compressible, swelling with dependency). As there is no arterial feeding vessel, this lesion would not be amenable to arterial embolization. Propranolol would be appropriate treatment for infantile hemangioma but is not appropriate for venous malformation.

2017

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6
Q

An otherwise healthy 30-year-old man is brought to the office because of a slow-growing mass on the volar base of the left ring finger. There is no history of trauma. The patient reports no pain or discomfort. Examination shows a 1.0-cm midline mass that is located immediately distal to the metacarpophalangeal flexion crease. The mass is firm, nonpulsatile, and does not transilluminate. The mass does not move with finger flexion or extension. X-ray study shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Digital lipoma
B) Fibrosarcoma
C) Ganglion cyst
D) Giant cell tumor of tendon sheath
E) Neurilemmoma

A

The correct response is Option D.

The clinical scenario describes a lesion that is midline and overlies the flexor tendon sheath. The two most likely diagnoses in this scenario are ganglion cyst and giant cell tumor of tendon sheath. Both of these lesions tend to present as a ball-like lesion as described. These entities are usually distinguished on the basis of a transillumination test: light will pass through the mass if it is a ganglion cyst (since it is fluid) and will not if it is a giant cell tumor (or other solid masses). Since light was not transmitted through this lesion, and given the characteristic and location of the lesion, it is most likely to be a giant cell tumor of tendon sheath. Fibrosarcoma is extremely unlikely and would almost never present as a midline spherical mass on the palmar surface of the finger. Neurilemmoma is a relatively rare neural tumor that arises from the nerve sheath; on the volar aspect of the finger, it would present more laterally in the path of the digital nerve. Digital lipoma can appear as a midline mass, but this entity is very uncommon.

2017

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7
Q

A 44-year-old, right-hand–dominant man comes to the office because of a painless deep mass on the dorsum of the dominant hand. Biopsy shows myxoinflammatory fibroblastic sarcoma. Which of the following factors is most associated with the need for flap coverage and local recurrence?

A) Digital involvement
B) Dorsal versus palmar location
C) Patient age
D) Transverse biopsy incision
E) Treatment with radiation therapy

A

The correct response is Option D.

Sarcomas are rare tumors in the hand. The dorsum and mid palm are most commonly involved. Tumor types are most commonly epithelioid, malignant fibrous histiocytoma, and synovial sarcoma. The performance of a “suboptimal” biopsy incision (using a site or incision that cannot be incorporated into a standard limb salvage incision or amputation flap) is predictive of the need for flap reconstruction and local recurrence. The other factors listed may encourage a plastic surgeon to consider flap coverage but are not predictive in large series. A transverse incision in the extremities is considered “suboptimal.”

The importance of this knowledge is that surgeons must carefully consider the placement of incisions and the use of inadequate excisions when approaching unknown hand masses.

2017

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8
Q

A 63-year-old woman comes to the office because of progressive pain of the right ring finger over the past 4 months. Physical examination shows the ring finger is held in a flexed position with the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints each at a 45-degree angle. Tenderness over the palm with active digital flexion is noted. The patient reports that when she wakes in the morning, the ring finger is generally fixed in a flexed position, and she has to physically straighten the finger with her other hand. Over the past month, the finger has remained flexed. Medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

A) Central slip rupture
B) de Quervain tendinitis
C) Digital stenosing tenosynovitis
D) Dupuytren contracture
E) Ulnar nerve compression at the elbow

A

The correct response is Option C.

Stenosing tenosynovitis, or trigger finger, is an inflammatory tendinopathy of the digital flexor tendons. It can present with pain, stiffness, and occasionally a mass in the palm. Long-standing stenosing tenosynovitis may occasionally lead to a flexion contracture of the finger after proper treatment is not performing. Dupuytren disease is a flexion contracture of the digits and palm due to contracture of the palmar fascia. Dupuytren disease is a progressive condition and the patient would not be able to passively extend her finger. de Quervain tenosynovitis is a tendinitis affecting the tendons of the first dorsal compartment resulting in pain over the dorsal wrist and thumb. Ulnar nerve compression at the elbow may affect the intrinsic muscles causing a claw deformity and contracture of the ring finger. Commonly, the little finger is also affected, and the patient would have symptoms of paresthesia or numbness in the ulnar innervated fingers. Central slip rupture would cause a Boutonnière deformity with flexion at the PIP and hyperextension at the DIP.

2017

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9
Q

A 35-year-old man comes to the office because of a painless enlargement of the right index finger for the past 6 months. An x-ray study is shown. Curettage of the lesion and grafting with demineralized bone matrix are planned. Which of the following is the most likely outcome of this procedure in this patient?

A) Distant metastasis
B) Local recurrence of the lesion within 2 years
C) Pathologic fracture and extension to surrounding soft tissue
D) Regional nodal metastasis
E) Uneventful healing without recurrence

A

The correct response is Option E.

Uneventful healing without recurrence is most likely in this patient. The bone lesion pictured in the x-ray is characteristic of an enchondroma. Enchondromas are benign chondrogenic tumors arising from aberrant cartilaginous foci within the medullary canal. Chondroblasts are thought to escape from the physis and proliferate in the metaphysis.

Enchondromas are the most common bone tumor found in the hand (approximately 90%). They are found mostly in the proximal phalanx, middle phalanx, and metacarpal. Enchondromas are benign, expansile, and locally destructive lesions. They are usually asymptomatic and discovered incidentally on radiographs taken for another reason. Pain is more frequently associated with a malignant tumor such as a chondrosarcoma or a pathologic fracture from cortical thinning. Typical radiographic features are a well-circumscribed, radiolucent lesion that may be expansile or purely lytic with popcorn stippled calcification.

Smaller asymptomatic lesions can be observed. Larger lesions that are potentially unstable or symptomatic are treated by curettage with or without bone grafting. Many authors recommend the addition of autologous or allograft bone following tumor excision. However, there are studies showing no benefit to adding bone graft or bone graft substitute. There is no consensus on the treatment of lesions involving a pathologic fracture. Stable fractures should be treated with immobilization and allowed to heal prior to treating the enchondroma secondarily. Unstable fractures can be safely treated with curettage and fracture fixation in a single stage.

Enchondromas are benign and complete resection is curative. Recurrence of a lesion after surgery may suggest that the lesion is actually a low-grade sarcoma. The risk of malignant transformation in a solitary enchondroma is approximately 1%.

Pathologic fractures are relatively common, especially in the hand. These occur with minor trauma when the lesion has resulted in significant cortical thinning but expansion of the tumor into the surrounding soft tissue does not occur.

The potential for malignant transformation is greatly increased in multiple enchondromatosis, such as Ollier disease and Mafucci syndrome. Ollier disease is a nonhereditary form of multiple enchondromatosis associated with skeletal dysplasia. Mafucci syndrome is characterized by multiple enchondromatosis and cutaneous hemangiomas. The risk of malignant transformation to chondrosarcoma or osteosarcoma in these cases is up to 30%. Low-grade chondrosarcomas have a low metastatic potential.

2017

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10
Q

A 44-year-old man comes to the office because of a palpable mass of the right dorsoradial distal forearm. The patient reports that the mass has been growing slowly over the past 2 years. On examination, the mass is nontender. Excisional biopsy shows the mass is well encapsulated and separates easily from within the fibers of the dorsoradial sensory nerve, as the nerve emerges from beneath the brachioradialis tendon. Which of the following cells is the most likely origin of this mass?

A) Adipose
B) Giant
C) Glial
D) Spindle
E) Tendon

A

The correct response is Option C.

The mass is most consistent with a neurilemmoma or Schwann cell tumor. These are benign, encapsulated tumors of the nerve sheath. Their cells of origin are glial, likely Schwann cells. These masses usually arise from the side of or from within the nerve. Symptoms can be vague and manifest as a dull ache or as symptoms consistent with nerve compression.

A lipoma derives from adipose cells, but these generally do not originate from the substance of the nerve. Tumors consisting of tenocytes are essentially unheard of, but giant cell tumors originate from the tendon sheath and are usually intimately involved with the tendon sheath and thus unlikely to be found within the fibers of a nerve.

Pathology of spindle cells which form muscle, are usually seen in the setting of sarcoma or carcinoma. In general, they are usually found in a subcutaneous, peritendinous, and intramuscular plane. They are taken with margins and are unlikely to shell cleanly out of their soft tissue of origin.

2017

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11
Q

A 34-year-old woman comes for evaluation because of a 4-month history of pain in the fingers of the right hand. The pain is most severe in the ring finger and is exacerbated by exposure to cold temperatures. Physical examination shows a blue discoloration under the nail of the ring finger. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Cutaneous melanoma
B) Epidermal inclusion cyst
C) Giant cell tumor
D) Glomus tumor
E) Mucous cyst

A

The correct response is Option D.

Glomus tumors are benign neurovascular tumors. The glomus apparatus is believed to function as a thermoregulatory control mechanism. Glomus tumors generally are found in the hand, most commonly in the digit, and often in the fingertip. They are characterized by severe pain, especially with exposure to cold temperatures. Cold sensitivity can be evoked by placing the digit in an ice bath. Glomus tumors are well visualized on MRI using T-1 and T-2 weighted images. Ultrasonography may also be useful in identifying glomus tumors. Treatment for glomus tumors is complete surgical excision. Up to 25% of these tumors may have multiple lesions.

Malignant melanomas may be seen in the subungual area. These tumors usually are identified by a pigmented streak under the fingernail. These tumors are generally painless and often go unrecognized. A pigmented lesion under the nail should be biopsied if it does not resolve by 4 weeks.

Giant cell tumors are benign soft-tissue tumors. They are the second most common tumor in the hand. These tumors generally occur on the volar surface of the fingers and hand. They present as a firm, nodular, nontender mass.

Epidermal inclusion cysts are benign masses of the hand thought to be the result of implantation of the epithelial cells into the underlying soft tissue. They produce a painless mass. Treatment of these cysts is by marginal excision.

A mucous cyst is a term used to describe a ganglion cyst of the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. This is a misnomer because the cysts are not filled with a mucous material, but synovial fluid. The cyst may produce nail deformities. Pain may be associated with these cysts, and is caused by the underlying arthritis of the DIP joint.

2016

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12
Q

A 30-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation regarding a 2-year history of a slow-growing mass on the volar aspect of the left ring finger. The growth is adjacent to the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. Physical examination shows the mass is firm and cannot be transilluminated. The overlying skin is intact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Desmoid tumor
B) Ganglion cyst
C) Giant cell tumor
D) Pyogenic granuloma
E) Vascular tumor

A

The correct response is Option C.

The mass described in this scenario is a giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath. These growths are common in adults younger than 50 years of age. These masses are slow-growing, firm, lobulated, and painless. Giant cell tumors are the second most common tumor of the hand, after ganglion cysts. Unlike ganglion cysts, giant cell tumors cannot be transilluminated. Moreover, they usually occur on the volar aspect of the hand, and bone invasion is not commonly seen. These characteristics are not true of vascular tumors, desmoids, or pyogenic granulomas.

2015

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13
Q

A 48-year-old right-hand–dominant man comes to the office for evaluation of a tender mass of the distal volar forearm. Tinel sign is positive at the site of the mass. MRI shows that the mass involves the median nerve. Biopsy of the mass confirms a malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor. On the basis of these findings, this diagnosis is most likely associated with which of the following conditions?

A) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B) Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
C) Multiple sclerosis
D) Neurofibromatosis 1
E) Parkinson disease

A

The correct response is Option D.

The correct response is that neurofibromatosis 1 (NF1) is associated with malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors (PNSTs).

The majority of “nerve tumors” are PNSTs. Schwannomas and neurofibromas are the most common.

Malignant soft-tissue tumors of the hand are very rare and constitute only 1 to 2% of hand tumors. Malignant PNSTs have a very low annual incidence of 0.001% in the general population, and between 2 and 5% in patients with NF1. The plexiform subtype of neurofibromas poses a substantial risk of malignant degeneration.

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, multiple sclerosis, Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, and Parkinson disease are not commonly associated with malignant PNSTs.

2015

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14
Q

A 25-year-old man is evaluated because of a deep 6-cm, palpable mass to the mid-volar forearm. MRI is performed, but the diagnosis remains inconclusive. An initial diagnostic biopsy is planned. Which of the following is most appropriate during this procedure?

A) Avoidance of cautery
B) Leaving the biopsy site open with compressive dressings
C) Performance of an excisional biopsy
D) Placement of a skin crease transverse incision
E) Use of a tourniquet without Esmarch bandage

A

The correct response is Option E.

An open biopsy is done for forearm tumors that cannot be diagnosed as benign on clinical or radiographic grounds. For a large lesion, an incisional biopsy is performed to minimize the risk of surrounding surgical field tumor contamination. Wide undermining must be avoided.

The biopsy is done with a bloodless field and a tourniquet, but elevate the arm only for exsanguination without an Esmarch bandage. Obtain meticulous hemostasis before wound closure. Sutures are placed close to the wound edges to avoid additional tumor skin contamination.

While a transverse incision may provide a better cosmetic result, it may complicate limb-sparing surgery if pathology determines malignancy.

2015

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15
Q

A 7-year-old girl is brought for evaluation because of a 2-month history of an asymptomatic 1-cm mass over the volar radial aspect of the wrist. The parents note no history of trauma. On physical examination, the mass is not adherent to the skin but affixed to the deeper tissues. She has full range of motion of the wrist without signs of carpal instability. X-ray studies of the wrist show no abnormalities. MRI is consistent with a ganglion. There is no evidence of carpal ligamentous injury. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Observation
B) Sclerotherapy
C) Closed rupture
D) Wrist arthroscopy
E) Surgical excision

A

The correct response is Option A.

The next step in management is a period of observation. Although there is no general consensus regarding the best treatment for pediatric ganglions, most prefer observation and splinting for asymptomatic wrist ganglions. In the literature, the majority of pediatric wrist ganglions will spontaneously rupture and resolve without intervention. The diagnosis of volar wrist ganglion has been made by history, physical examination, and MRI, making needle biopsy unnecessary. This mass is asymptomatic and there is no sign of carpal ligamentous injury on the x-ray study or MRI, therefore there is no surgical indication for excision or wrist arthroscopy.

Closed rupture is a trauma and antiquated therapy for ganglions. Sclerotherapy does not treat wrist ganglia.

2015

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16
Q

A 48-year-old woman comes for evaluation because of a 6-month history of an increasing mass on the right ring finger. She reports that a similar mass was removed from this location 2 years ago. Medical records show that the mass was solid and of a variegated tan-brown color. The pathology report identified foamy histiocytes and hemosiderin deposits. Physical examination today shows a firm, well-demarcated mass on the dorsal-ulnar aspect of the ring finger proximal phalanx. Skin is not adherent to the mass. A photograph is shown. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following?

A) Compromise of blood flow to the finger
B) Invasion of the underlying bone
C) Local recurrence or extension
D) Metastasis to the liver
E) Spread to the regional lymph nodes

A

The correct response is Option C.

This is a giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath.

Ganglion cysts are the most common tumor of the hand, but are cystic in character. Giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath (also called localized nodular synovitis, fibrous xanthoma, and pigmented villonodular tenosynovitis) is the second most common tumor, but it is the most common solid tumor affecting the hand. The hemosiderin deposits give the tumor its variable tan-brown appearance.

This tumor is noted to recur locally, particularly if incompletely excised. Giant cell tumors are not known to metastasize either distantly or to regional lymphatics. Whereas giant cell tumor of bone involves the bone itself, giant cell tumor of tendon sheath does not. This tumor is not known to invade or compromise the digital vessels and thus would not compromise blood flow to the digit.

2014

17
Q

A 15-year-old boy is evaluated because of a 4-month history of a 2.5-cm, soft, well-circumscribed, tender dorsal mass of the right wrist. Examination shows the mass is well defined, does not transilluminate, and softens when the index and long finger are flexed. The image shown is obtained at the time of operative excision. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Anomalous extensor indicis proprius insertion
B) Extensor digitorum brevis manus
C) Fibrosarcoma
D) Giant cell tumor of tendon sheath
E) Multilobulated ganglion cyst

A

The correct response is Option B.

The extensor digitorum brevis manus (EDBM) is a rare (2 to 3% incidence) anomalous muscle of the hand that may present similarly as a tender dorsal wrist mass distal to the radiocarpal joint about the distal edge of the extensor retinaculum. The clinical presentation can mimic a dorsal wrist ganglion cyst and many cases of EDBM were either initially misdiagnosed as or occurred concurrent with ganglion cyst. There are a number of clinical features that may aid in differentiating the anomalous EDBM from a dorsal ganglion. The pathologic EDBM more often presents in adults as pain and swelling following physical activity or manual labor. If bilateral, the dominant hand is more commonly symptomatic. Physical examination may show hardening of the mass with resisted index and long finger extension and softening with resting digital flexion as the muscle relaxes. Treatment is guided by symptom severity and patient preference and alternatives include rest and immobilization, surgical release of the fourth compartment alone, or fourth compartment release with complete muscle excision. Ganglion cyst does not appear solid and would transilluminate.

Giant cell tumor of tendon sheath is a common tumor in the hand but rarely grows this large and is yellow, not red, in appearance.

Anomalous insertion of the EIP is a rare source of dorsal wrist pain, but the mass seen here is not consistent with that diagnosis.

Fibrosarcoma is a possibility but that tumor usually invades the skin, is irregular in form, and does not change in firmness with finger flexion and extension.

2019

18
Q

A 62-year-old woman presents because of a 6-month history of a painless mass near the nail fold of the left index finger. The patient reports that clear thick drainage leaks intermittently from the nail fold. She is concerned about the appearance of the nail. A photograph is shown. On evaluation of this patient, which of the following additional studies in her workup is most appropriate?

A) Blood work
B) Culture of a drainage specimen from the nail fold
C) Diagnostic x-ray study of the finger
D) Incisional biopsy of the mass
E) MRI of the finger

A

The correct response is Option C.

This is a mucous cyst based on history and examination. Mucous cysts are cysts that arise from the distal interphalangeal joints. They are frequently associated with dorsal osteophytes secondary to osteoarthritis and x-ray studies are useful to establish the severity of osteophytes. X-ray views usually demonstrate osteophytes in proximity to the cyst. The cyst can decompress and clear viscous fluid can be seen. Pressure on the germinal matrix from an enlarging mucous cyst can cause nail grooving, which this patient demonstrates.

These masses are benign and do not require treatment. Aspiration and corticosteroid injection can be considered for nonsurgical treatment. The osteophyte is thought to be an inciting cause of the mucous cyst in these patients and should be removed when surgically treating these patients hence the utility of x-rays in evaluation of the patient. The cyst and stalk are traditionally removed as well.

MRI is unnecessary as clinical examination should be sufficient to establish the diagnosis.

Blood work and culture would be unable to establish a diagnosis.

Culture is sometimes necessary if there are signs of infection but there are no concerning signs or symptoms in this patient. Biopsy is helpful when clinical diagnosis is suspect, but unnecessary with this benign mass.

X-ray studies of this patient’s left hand (anteroposterior and lateral) are shown.

2019

19
Q

A 40-year-old man employed as a construction worker comes to the office because of a 3-month history of median nerve sensory distribution deficit. Diagnostic evaluation shows a mass located in the medial cord of the brachial plexus. Histology of the mass shows a malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor. Metastasis is most likely found in which of the following organ systems?

A) Brain
B) Colon
C) Liver
D) Lung
E) Spine

A

The correct response is Option D.

For malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors, metastasis occurs in about 39% of patients, most commonly affecting the lung. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors commonly present as a soft-tissue mass arising from a large peripheral nerve such as the sciatic nerve or brachial plexus. There is usually motor and sensory deficit of the affected nerve. Demographics for solitary neurofibromas are 30 to 55 years, and neurofibromatosis are 20 to 40 years. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors are sarcomas. They originate from peripheral nerves or from the nerve sheath, such as Schwann cells, perineural cells, or fibroblasts. Wide surgical excision is the mainstay of treatment, including the affected nerve. Radiation therapy is an integral part of treatment. Chemotherapy is usually not used except in larger, higher grade tumors.

2019

20
Q

A 44-year-old woman comes to the office because of a 3-month history of a painful subungual area of bluish discoloration. The patient reports severe pain when localized pressure is applied to the area, and cold water testing elicits severe pain. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Glomus tumor
B) Hemangioma
C) Hematoma
D) Melanoma
E) Pyogenic granuloma

A

The correct response is Option A.

Glomus tumors comprise approximately 1 to 5% of soft-tissue tumors of the hand. The majority are subungual. Presentation is typically a raised blue or pink nodule that can discolor or deform the nail. Love’s pin test is performed by applying pressure to the area with a pinhead, causing exquisite pain. Diagnosis can be aided with plain film x-ray and MRI. Treatment includes complete surgical excision. Hematoma, hemangioma, and pyogenic granuloma would less likely present with point tenderness and positive cold water test.

2019

21
Q

A 17-year-old boy presents with a mass of the left forearm that has been enlarging over the past 3 months. A photograph is shown. Biopsy of the mass is consistent with spindle cell sarcoma. MRI shows a well-encapsulated mass that does not infiltrate neurovascular structures. CT scan of the chest shows no evidence of metastatic lesions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Amputation at the midforearm
B) Chemotherapy only
C) Excision and chemotherapy
D) Excision and radiation therapy
E) Radiation therapy only

A

The correct response is Option D.

Soft tissue sarcomas are rare malignant tumors representing less than 1% of all malignancies, with only 25% occurring in the upper extremity. The diagnostic workup generally includes a biopsy, magnetic resonance imaging scan to assess the extent of the tumor and its relationship to adjacent structures, and a computed tomography scan of the chest. This combination allows for appropriate clinical staging of the patient. The role of sentinel lymph node biopsy in the workup of soft tissue sarcomas is controversial. Treatment consists of wide excision, primary reconstruction, and radiation therapy (adjuvant or neoadjuvant). The tumor must be completely removed with a cuff of normal tissue (at least 1 cm); violation of the tumor decreases 5-year survival from 87 to 47%. More than 90% of extremity sarcomas can be managed with a limb-sparing resection.

Chemotherapy is rarely indicated and is never used as the only treatment for soft tissue sarcoma. Primary amputation is considered when the tumor infiltrates major neurovascular structures and resection would result in the sacrifice of more than one major peripheral nerve. Additional indications for amputation include involvement of the interosseous membrane, advanced disease with extensive loss of functional tissues, and severe comorbidities limiting reconstructive options.

2020

22
Q

A 42-year-old man presents with a painful subungual glomus tumor of the index finger. Definitive treatment should consist of which of the following?

A) Chemotherapy
B) Complete surgical excision
C) External beam radiation therapy
D) Immunotherapy
E) Intralesional steroid injection

A

The correct response is Option B.

Glomus tumors include approximately 1 to 5% of soft tissue tumors of the hand. The majority are subungual. Presentation is typically a raised blue or pink nodule that can discolor or deform the nail. Love’s pin test is performed by applying pressure to the area with a pinhead, causing exquisite pain. Diagnosis can be aided with plain film and MRI. Treatment includes complete surgical excision. There is no role for radiation, chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or steroid injections in definitive treatment.

2020

23
Q

A 35-year-old woman presents for examination of a mass of the right volar radial wrist. The patient reports that the mass spontaneously appeared 6 weeks ago and occasionally gets bigger or smaller. On physical examination, the mass transilluminates. Which of the following joints is the most likely origin point of the mass?

A) Lunotriquetral
B) Metacarpotrapezial
C) Radioscaphoid
D) Scapholunate
E) Scaphotrapezial

A

The correct response is Option C.

Ganglia are benign soft tissue tumors that are most commonly encountered in the wrist but may occur in any joint.

Sixty to 70% of ganglion cysts are found in the dorsal aspect of the wrist and communicate with the joint via a pedicle. This pedicle usually originates at the scapholunate ligament but may also arise from a number of other sites over the dorsal aspect of the wrist capsule.

Thirteen to 20% of ganglion cysts are found on the volar aspect of the wrist, arising via a pedicle from the radioscaphoid, scapholunate interval, scaphotrapezial joint, or metacarpotrapezial joint, in that order of frequency. Neither dorsal nor volar ganglion cysts typically originate from the lunotriquetral ligament.

2020

24
Q

A 66-year-old man presents with a mass along the ulnar margin of the index finger proximal phalanx. The patient reports that over the past year, the mass has grown in size. Physical examination shows the mass is now interfering with digital flexion. X-ray studies show bony erosion into the cortex of the middle phalanx. Excisional biopsy demonstrates a tan, multilobulated mass that has surrounded the digital nerve and invaded the bone cortex. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

A) Chondrosarcoma
B) Epidermal inclusion cyst
C) Giant cell tumor of tendon sheath
D) Retinacular cyst
E) Schwannoma

A

The correct response is Option C.

Giant cell tumors of the tendon sheath are the second most common hand masses. They are slow-growing and painless, and affect the volar surfaces of the index, middle and ring finger, at the PIP or DIP joints. They usually appear tan or yellow, lobulated, and well-circumscribed. Bony erosion secondary to long-standing pressure may be observed on x-ray studies. Treatment is excision, with recurrence rates ranging from 0 to 44 percent. High recurrence rates are associated with satellite lesions, poor encapsulation, distal locations, intraosseous involvement, concurrent degenerative joint disease, or involvement of the adjacent joint/tendon. Radiotherapy following surgical excision has shown recurrence rates as low as 4 percent.

Schwannomas are benign peripheral nerve tumors derived from Schwann cells, that can involve the nerves of the hand. They are well encapsulated and slow growing, and typically arise over flexor surfaces. They present as a soft, nontender mass that is mobile and may cause associated paresthesias. Magnetic resonance imaging may be helpful to evaluate for malignant characteristics. These tumors can often be shelled out because they involve the nerve sheath instead of individual fascicles, with little risk of postoperative neurologic deficits. Malignant transformation is rare. Epidermal inclusion cysts are painless, firm, keratin-filled cysts developing from traumatic implantation of epithelium into the subcutaneous tissue. Typical locations include the volar palm and digits. No risk of malignant transformation has been reported, but cortical destruction can be observed, raising suspicion for a neoplastic process. There is a low rate of recurrence with surgical excision. These masses can be differentiated from giant cell tumors of the tendon sheath, in that they are cystic structures filled with keratin and not mutilobulated, solid masses.

Ganglions are usually solitary and occur in specific locations in the hand and wrist. The most common ganglion locations are the dorsal and volar wrist regions. They also occur in the digital flexor tendon sheath (retinacular cyst), arising from the A1 pulley. There is no consensus regarding the preferred treatment of a flexor tendon sheath ganglion. Historically, the large number of therapeutic options described suggests that a predictable treatment approach could not be agreed upon. Recent literature indicates that there are two acceptable treatment options: cyst aspiration or surgical excision.

Chondrosarcomas are the most common primary malignant bone tumors of the hand, most frequently affecting the proximal phalanx. They may arise de novo or from malignant transformation of benign cartilaginous lesions such as enchondromas. At imaging, it may often be difficult to distinguish chondrosarcomas from their benign chondroid counterparts such as enchondromas. Phalangeal chondrosarcomas are locally aggressive and, unlike chondrosarcomas of other skeletal structures, rarely metastasize.

Cortical breakthrough, irregular cortical thickening, and a soft-tissue component are all suggestive of chondrosarcoma rather than benign tumors such as enchondroma. Recurrence rates with intralesional excision are historically high, such that wide excision or amputation had previously been the mainstay of surgical treatment. Recent literature, however, advocates intralesional excision with close follow-up for low-grade lesions or phalangeal tumors in circumstances where amputation will result in significant functional loss. No role for irradiation or chemotherapy has been described.

2020

25
Q

A 48-year-old man presents with a painless mass on the left wrist that has been enlarging gradually over the past year. Physical examination shows a 5-cm mass at the wrist flexion crease, deep to the flexor carpi radialis. The mass is firm, smooth, and nonadherent to surrounding structures. The patient denies numbness, and no motor deficits in the median nerve distribution are noted. Tinel sign is present at the site of the mass. Plain-film x-ray studies show no abnormalities. On MRI, a homogeneous mass is noted within the median nerve. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Enchondroma
B) Lipoma
C) Neurofibroma
D) Radial artery aneurysm
E) Schwannoma

A

The correct response is Option E.

The most likely pathology of this mass is a schwannoma of the median nerve. These benign nerve tumors are typically painless proximal to the wrist. Schwannomas of the digits tend to be painful. Tinel sign can often be demonstrated. Nerve function typically is not disturbed. Because of the size and location, MRI is effective in characterizing and localizing the mass. With magnification, marginal excision of schwannomas is easily performed because they are almost self-extruding from the nerve. Compared with neurofibromas, schwannomas are noninfiltrative. The recurrence rate is approximately 4%. The risk of nerve deficit is higher for excision after recurrence.

An enchondroma would be apparent on a plain x-ray study and would reveal a mass with cortical thinning. A lipoma would likely be present within the carpal tunnel and would not be in continuity with the nerve. It is also unlikely to have positive Tinel sign. An aneurysm of the radial artery presents as a pulsatile mass. Vasospastic or thromboembolic findings may be present. The median nerve may be compressed by the aneurysm.

2020

26
Q

Which of the following histologic findings is most characteristic of giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath?

A) Histiocytoid mononuclear cells
B) Lymphocytic infiltration
C) Myofibroblasts
D) Spindle cells
E) Zones of necrosis

A

The correct response is Option A.

The giant cell tumor of tendon sheath (GCTTS) is the most common benign neoplasm in the hand after the ganglion cyst. It is a slowly growing, usually painless benign lesion of soft tissues. The tumor affects individuals between the ages of 30 and 50 years old and is found more often in women than men. Histologically, it is composed of multinucleated giant cells, histiocytes, fibrotic material, and hemosiderin deposits. Histiocytoid mononuclear cells are the neoplastic component and should always be present on pathologic evaluation of these lesions. Surgery is the main treatment option, but the tumor has a propensity for local recurrence. If untreated, or if the tumor continually recurs, these tumors can result in damage and degeneration of surrounding tissues or structures.

Lymphocytic infiltration, zones of necrosis, spindle cells, and myofibroblasts are not histologic components of GCTTS.

2021

27
Q

A 45-year-old patient has a slowly growing mass along the flexor sheath of the index finger at the level of the distal interphalangeal joint. The mass does not transilluminate and appears multinodular. It shows generally decreased signal intensity on both T1- and T2-weighted MRI. Which of the following surgical procedures is most likely to be recommended?

A) Distal interphalangeal level amputation and lymph node biopsy
B) Incisional biopsy
C) Marginal excision
D) Radical excision

A

The correct response is Option C.

The patient most likely has a giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath. This is a benign nodular tumor that is found on the tendon sheath of the hands. It is also known as pigmented villonodular tumor of the tendon sheath. It is the second most common soft-tissue tumor seen in the hand, following ganglion cyst. There are no known cases of metastasis of this tumor in the literature. The operative treatment is marginal excision, and literature reports a 5 to 50% recurrence rate, more common if the tumor extends into the joints and deep to the volar plate. Local recurrence is usually treated by repeat excision.

Incisional biopsy does not remove the entire tumor and is usually done for diagnosis, not treatment. A radical excision and amputation removes normal structures surrounding the tumor and will lead to unnecessary loss of function.

2021

28
Q

A 32-year-old woman presents with intermittent severe pain of the left ring fingernail that has worsened over the past several years. X-ray studies of the finger show no abnormalities. Which of the following findings on physical examination is consistent with a diagnosis of glomus tumor in this patient?

A) Pain decreases from pinpoint pressure on the nail
B) Pain decreases with inflation of a blood pressure cuff
C) Pain increases in warm temperatures
D) Pain increases only at night

A

The correct response is Option B.

A glomus tumor is a small benign mass containing cells from the glomus apparatus. Most (75%) are found in the hand and most of these (65%) are found in the fingertip. Tumors tend to be intermittent but quite painful. The classic triad of symptoms for a glomus tumor of the fingertip is 1) sensitivity to cold, 2) paroxysmal pain (day or night), and 3) pinpoint pain (Love’s sign). If a blood pressure cuff is inflated proximally, then pain will diminish in the fingertip (Hildreth’s sign). The diagnosis is usually confirmed with an MRI, and treatment is excision. Recurrence rates can be up to 20%.

2021

29
Q

A 13-year-old girl presents with an enlarging mass on the right hand. The patient’s mother reports that the child has always had a bruised-appearing birthmark on the hand, but the region started enlarging in the last year. The patient reports aching pain mainly associated with exercise. On examination, the mass increases in size with dependence. A photograph, an x-ray study, and MRI images are shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Arteriovenous malformation
B) Hemangioma
C) Lymphatic malformation
D) Port-wine stain
E) Venous malformation

A

The correct response is Option E.

Vascular anomalies are divided into tumors and malformations. Hemangiomas are a classic example of a vascular tumor. Malformations are present at birth and grow with age. Vascular malformations don’t regress with age. They may not be obvious at a young age and become more evident as the patient ages or goes through hormonal changes such as puberty and pregnancy (if female). Other reasons for enlargement include trauma, infection, and thrombosis. Vascular malformations are secondary to an error in the morphogenesis of blood vessels, and they don’t enlarge secondary to cellular hyperplasia. There is a normal rate of endothelial cell turnover.

Vascular malformations are characterized by rate of flow and type of predominant tissue in the malformation. Slow-flow vascular malformations include capillary malformations, venous malformations (VMs), and lymphatic malformations (LMs). Fast-flow vascular malformations include arteriovenous malformations (AVMs) or fistulas. Combined vascular malformations aren’t uncommon. Most vascular anomalies can be diagnosed by history and clinical examination. However, medical imaging has become an important component for diagnosis and treatment planning.

This patient presents with a vascular malformation based on history, examination, and MRI. The subtype for this patient is consistent with a venous malformation based on findings of phleboliths (blood clots that become hardened and calcified) on MRI and x-ray. VMs are the most common type of vascular malformation. These malformations may be present in all tissue planes but, when present at the subcutaneous level, give the skin a purplish hue that is accentuated with gravity position of the limb. VMs are traditionally compressible, and the purplish hue and fullness of the mass will frequently diminish with limb elevation against gravity. Painful clots and phleboliths are commonly identified and may be sources of pain causing acute presentation. Patients may report chronic aching pain, swelling, and stiffness that is worse in the morning. Phleboliths demonstrated on imaging are pathognomonic for VMs. VMs of the extremity can be associated with undergrowth or overgrowth.

Ultrasonography, MRI, and catheter angiography are frequently used imaging studies to delineate the rate of flow, identify features, and evaluate the extent of malformation. X-ray study or CT scan may be used to assess bony involvement/bony deformation and may show phleboliths appearing as rounded, lamellated calcifications. Ultrasonography with Doppler scan is frequently the first-line imaging study; it can assess the rate of flow (delineate fast/slow flow), depth of the mass, and any feeding vessels. Compressibility of the mass can also be assessed. An ultrasound of a VM usually shows a sponge-like collection of vessels and compression; then release will show inflow of blood into the cavity. Phleboliths, ectatic/dilated vessels, and thickened overlying tissue can all be shown on ultrasonography. MRI of VMs show multilocular, lobulated, septated masses. These are hypo/isointense on T1-weighted sequences and hyperintense on T2 sequences. VMs can be shown to involve nerves, tendons, muscles, joints, and adjacent organs. Phleboliths can also be appreciated on MRI as low-signal regions/flow voids.

The other options wouldn’t be the most correct diagnosis for this patient. Hemangioma would be present at birth and grow rapidly (and regress for an involuting hemangioma). An AVM is a high-flow lesion and wouldn’t have phleboliths on imaging. An LM is a low-flow lesion and similarly wouldn’t demonstrate phleboliths. Neither an AVM nor an LM would appear to have increased size/congestion with dependence. Port-wine stain or capillary malformation is a flat macular cutaneous malformation and wouldn’t be characterized by this patient’s findings or imaging.

2022

30
Q

A 35-year-old man undergoes excision of a peripheral nerve sheath tumor from the median nerve of the left wrist. Careful dissection is performed, and the encapsulated tumor is removed uneventfully with complete preservation of motor and sensory function. Pathologic studies show a benign tumor. Which of the following is the most likely tumor type in this patient?

A) Clear cell sarcoma
B) Fibroma
C) Intraneural perineurioma
D) Neurofibroma
E) Schwannoma

A

The correct response is Option E.

Peripheral nerve sheath tumors are relatively uncommon and can present with pain or with motor/sensory deficits in the involved nerve. The majority of peripheral nerve sheath tumors are benign, and the most common benign tumor is a schwannoma. These are well encapsulated, slow-growing tumors comprised of Schwann cells. These usually can be removed without significant disruption of adjacent intact nerve fascicles or significant impact on patient function. Malignant nerve sheath tumors are less common but are more likely to have motor or sensory deficits at the time of presentation.

Neurofibromas are the second most common nerve tumor in the hand. They are distinct from schwannomas in that they involve nerve fascicles. Nerve repair or reconstruction may be required after resection. While the overwhelming majority are solitary, the presence of multiple neurofibromas raises suspicion for underlying neurofibromatosis which carries a high risk for malignant degeneration.

Fibromas are rare benign hand tumors. Dermatofibromas generally present as firm, flesh-colored nodules.

Clear cell sarcoma is a rare soft-tissue sarcoma which occurs most often in the extremities. Its predominant histopathologic feature is the source of its name. These tend to arise from tendons.

Intraneural perineurioma is a benign neoplasm of the peripheral nerve sheath that typically affects teenagers and young adults and tends to result in a motor-predominant neuropathy. It comprises up to 5% of neural tumors. Treatment typically requires resection and repair or grafting.

2022

31
Q

A 33-year-old man presents with a 2-year history of a 4-mm reddish discoloration underneath the left index fingernail. He reports significant tenderness to pressure directly on the discoloration, but not the surrounding tissue, along with pain in the area that is worse when going outside in the winter and reaching for items in the freezer. A photograph is shown. Which of the following is the most likely etiologic factor in the origin of this patient’s mass?

A) Arthritis at the distal interphalangeal joint
B) Capillary malformation
C) Growth of myoarterial unit
D) Proliferation at the germinal matrix
E) Trauma to the nail bed

A

The correct response is Option C.

The most likely etiologic factor involved in the origin of this mass is growth of myoarterial unit.

This patient has evidence of a glomus tumor, which is a rare benign tumor that often presents in the subungual region. Glomus tumors arise from the glomus body, which is a myoarterial unit that functions in thermoregulation. Clinical findings include focal tenderness and cold intolerance.

Some tests for glomus tumor include the Love pin test, Hildreth test, and cold-sensitivity test. In the Love pin test, pressure is applied to the area with a pinhead and the area containing the glomus tumor becomes exquisitely painful. In the Hildreth test, pain in the area is relieved by the use of a tourniquet, due to the restricted blood supply. In the cold-sensitivity test, cold water or an ice cube elicits increased pain in the affected area.

Diagnosis of glomus tumor can be verified with MRI or ultrasonography. Management consists of surgical excision of the lesion, as shown in the photograph.

Arthritis at the distal interphalangeal joint can give rise to digital mucous cysts, which can demonstrate nail deformity but typically are not painful.

Capillary malformation can result in reddish-appearing vascular tumors, but these would not typically present the sensitivity and cold intolerance seen in glomus tumors.

Proliferation at the germinal matrix can give rise to nail abnormalities, but these typically manifest as abnormalities in the nail plate rather than in the subungual region (i.e., melanonychia, skin cancers).

Trauma to the nail bed can result in subungual hematoma, which can cause pain, but a hematoma typically will resolve and not persist for years.

2022

32
Q

A 65-year-old woman presents with a slow-growing mass of the hand. Incisional biopsy shows a metastatic tumor. Which of the following is the most likely primary tumor location in this patient?

A) Breast
B) Colorectal
C) Kidney
D) Lung
E) Thyroid

A

The correct response is Option D.

Although smaller case series may show some variability, larger reviews on this topic have been quite consistent. Lung is the most common source of metastasis to the hand, representing 34% of all metastases reported in the most recent large review. Taken together, gastrointestinal tract tumors (esophagus, stomach, and colorectal) are in second place, comprising 25% of the total. Kidney (10%) and breast (5%) round out the top four. Thyroid tumors represent only 2% of metastatic tumors to the hand.

2022

33
Q

A 36-year-old woman comes to the office because of a painless soft-tissue mass on the ulnar aspect of the palm that has grown rapidly during the past 6 weeks. MRI shows a 2-cm heterogenous soft-tissue tumor that is bright on T1 sequences and does not suppress on fat suppression sequences. Thickened irregular septations are seen within the mass, which abuts the metacarpal bones. Examination of a specimen obtained on biopsy shows liposarcoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for this patient?

A) Amputation below the elbow
B) Chemotherapy
C) Double ray resection
D) Marginal excision
E) Radiation

A

The correct response is Option C.

This patient has a tumor with characteristics of a liposarcoma. Although most masses in the hand are benign, some signs indicative of malignancy are the history of rapid growth, heterogeneous nature of the tumor, and the lack of suppression on fat suppression sequences. On MRI, benign lipomas have all the appearances of fat, appearing bright on T1 sequences and showing suppression on fat suppression sequences. Benign lipomas should also appear homogeneous. The history of rapid growth adds to the index of suspicion for malignancy in this case.

Wide surgical excision with clear margins is the most important primary goal in the treatment of soft-tissue sarcomas. In this case, double ray resection would allow removal of the tumor while preserving some hand function.

Amputation below the elbow would resect the tumor, but it is more extensive than required, since preservation of the thumb and radial aspect of the hand is possible in this scenario.

Chemotherapy may be used as an adjunctive technique for soft-tissue sarcomas but does not take the place of surgical excision. When used in an adjuvant setting, it may have some overall benefit, but this is typically recommended for high-grade and large (greater than 5 cm) sarcomas.

Marginal excision would not clear the tumor adequately and would not be recommended in the case of malignant disease. Marginal excision would be appropriate for the excision of benign lipomas.

Radiation may be used for local control after surgical resection but not as a primary modality in treatment. Radiation may help decrease local recurrence rates, but it does not have a significant effect on long-term survival. Typically radiation is advised for larger and high grade lesions.

2023

34
Q

A 59-year-old woman comes to the office because of a 24-hour history of a painful index finger. Physical examination demonstrates tenderness and erythema over the metacarpal head of the index finger of the right hand. Small white nodules are visible underneath the skin. Serum urate concentration is 11.0 mg/dL (N 4.0-8.5 mg/dL). Pathologic examination of joint aspiration demonstrates monosodium urate crystals. Which of the following findings in this patient is most helpful in confirming the suspected diagnosis?

A) Joint aspirate examination results
B) Monoarticular location
C) Onset of symptoms
D) Serum urate concentration
E) Subcutaneous nodules

A

The correct response is Option A.

Gout is caused by the deposition of monosodium urate crystals in articular structures throughout the body. As serum concentrations of urate increase, urate crystals are deposited in joints, leading to the sudden onset of painful, inflammatory arthritis.

Many features of gout may aid in its diagnosis. All components of this clinical scenario are suggestive of gout, but only joint aspiration with demonstration of monosodium urate crystals is the gold standard. A gout flare usually presents over several days with the sudden onset of pain and inflammation of a joint. Serum urate concentration is typically elevated, as in this patient, but this alone is not diagnostic of gout. The presence of small, subcutaneous, chalky white nodules is typical as the urate crystals collect in joint spaces. Finally, it is most common in the lower limbs, particularly the first metatarsophalangeal joint, but the upper limbs may be involved, as in this patient.

2023