Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

PANCE > Hard numbers/concepts > Flashcards

Hard numbers/concepts Flashcards

(103 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

PEN, Cephs, and Vanc (glycopeptides) inhibit what?

A

Cell wall synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Tetracyclines and Aminoglycosides act on what?

A

30s subunit ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Macrolides and lincosamides act on what?

A

50s subunit ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

FQ and nitromidazoles (metro) act on what?

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Septra inhibits what?

A

Folate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Rifampin has what ADR’s?

A

Red lobster syndrome (dye) and Hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Isoniazid has what ADR’s?

A

Peripheral neuropathy and hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Isoniazid’s peripheral neuropathy is prevented with what medication?

A

B6/Pyridoxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pyrazinamide has what ADR?

A

Polyarthralgia (tx = NSAID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ethambutol has what ADR?

A

Optic neuritis and loss of red-green color vision . E for Eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Samter’s Triad (ASA triad) and why does it matter?

A

Atopy/asthma, Nasal polyps, Aspirin allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What scores can be used for UA/NSTEMI?

A

Heart or TIMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you monitor heparin? What about warfarin?

A

Heparin = aPTT, Warfarin = PT/INR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do you reverse heparin? Warfarin?

A

Protamine sulfate. Vitamin K or Fresh Frozen Plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Beck’s Triad? What other signs are seen in pericardial tamponade?

A

Becks = hypotension, muffled heart sounds, JVD

Narrow pulse pressure
Kussmaul’s sign (Increased JVP w/ inspiration)
Pulsus paradoxus (decreased BP w/ inspiration)
Electrical alternans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 3 types of AFIB?

A

Paroxysmal <7 days
Persistant >7 days
Permanent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What increases the effect of warfarin?

A

fluconazole, amiodarone, septra, grapefruit juice, alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the reversal agents for DOACs?

A 
Dabigatran = Idarucizumab
Xa = Andexxa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the causes of High Output HF

A

Hyperthyroid, Anemia, Beriberi (b1-thiamine def), Sepsis, Pregnancy, AV fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the goal BP reduction for HTN emergency?

A

Start at 180/120 w/ end organ dmg. Reduce by 25% max in 1 hour. Then to goal ~160/100 over next 23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the goal BP reduction for aortic dissection?

A

Reduce to systolic 100-120 now!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

`RAE vs. LAE

A

RAE is tall in L2 and V1

LAE is wide/notched in L2 and biphasic in V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What meds can increase statin myopathy

A

Fibrates, macrolides, amioderone, verapamil, grapefruit juice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a normal PR interval? What is a normal QRS complex?

A

PR = 0.12-0.2 seconds (3-5 boxes or 1 large box)

QRS = <0.12 or < 3 boxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What things can cause prolonged QT interval?
``` Electrolytes = Hypo Ca, K, Mg Amioderone Antipsychotics ABX = FQ and Azithromycin TCA's ```
26
How soon should you incise an auricular hematoma?
Around 48-72 hours
27
What is the definition of chronic rhinosinusitis? What about recurrent rhinosinusitis?
12 weeks. 4+ episodes per year.
28
Hoarseness for how long should be referred to ENT?
4 weeks w/ no associated URI symptoms
29
What is the mnemonic for CN innervation of EOM?
LR6SO4 3
30
What is the normal IOP?
8-21
31
What is the IV ABX of choice for orbital cellulitis?
Vanc and Ceftriacone or pime
32
What is the pathognomonic finding for CRAO?
Cherry red macula and boxcar stuff
33
Differentiate dry vs. wet ARMD
``` dry = drusen wet = neovascularization ```
34
When do you conduct optho screening for DM patients?
1 = five years post-diagnosis then annaully 2 = annually
35
What is the normal pr interval
3-5 boxes = 12-20 seconds = 1200-2000 ms
36
What is the diagnostic criteria for DM2?
FBGL = 126+ Random = 200 w/ symptoms or other findings OG challenge = 200 A1C = 6.5+
37
Which DM meds are associated with weight loss and ASCVD prevention? Hypoglycemia? UTI?
1. GLP1 and SLGT2 2. SU 3. SGLT2
38
Which hormones are released by the posterior pituitary?
ADH and oxytocin
39
What is the lab of choice for acromegaly?
IGF-1 (an indirect measure of GH). Oral glucose is supposed to inhibit but GH stays high.
40
How can you differentiate central vs. nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?
Desmopressin (DDAVP) replacement test. DDAVP will work to decrease central. Has no effect on nephro.
41
What medications can be given for hyperthyroidism in pregnancy?
PTU in the first trimester Methimazole later.
42
How do you treat thyroid storm?
Beta blocker (symptoms/don't die) PTU (block synthesis and conversion) Iodide (inhibit release of stored hormone) Steroids
43
How do you treat myxedema coma
Thyroxine Hydrocortisone Fluids
44
How do you diagnose and tx DKA?
BGL 250+, Arterial pH <7.3, Ketones NS + Insulin + Potassium NS = If sodium is high or normal --> 1/2 NS Add D5 @ <250 bgl If potassium is < 3.3, hold insulin till above If potassium is >3.3-5.5, Give potassium in each L of fluid If potassium is >5.5 check q 2 hours
45
Describe EGD screening for barret's esophagus
No dysplasia = q 3 years | Dysplasia = at least yearly
46
Describe gastric ulcer vs duodenal ulcer pain
Gastric hurts with food. Duodenal = better with food.
47
Name the cancer tumor markers and their associated organs
CEA = colon/gastro CA 125 = ovarian AFP = liver CA 19-9 = Pancreatic
48
Describe HEP B serology components
Core AB = Exposed now or at some point Surface antigen = current infection Surface antibody = immune
49
What must be supplemented with mesalamine?
Folic acid
50
Describe the vitamin B deficiencies
b1 = thiamine (beri-beri/HF/Wernicke's) b3 = niacin (pellagra - diarrea, dermatitis, dementia) b12 = macrocytic anemia (neuro, glossitis, chelitis)
51
List the associated cellular findings with each condition - Alpha thalassemia - Beta thalassemia - Sideroblastic anemia - B12 deficiency - Folate def - G6PD - Hereditary spherocytosis
Alpha thal = H Beta thal = F, target cells and basophilic stippling Sideroblastic = Basophilic stippling (lead) B12 = Hypersegmented neutrophils Folate = howell-jolly bodies G6PD = Bite cells and Heinz Bodies Hereditary spherocytosis = increased MCHC and fragile
52
What are the vitamin K related factors?
2, 7, 9, 10
53
List the dz and CD4 counts requiring prophylaxis
PCP = <200 = Septra Toxoplasmosis = <100 = septra Bird pneumonia = < 50 = azithromycin
54
What is the age range for HIV screening?
13-64 Also TB STI PREG
55
What is the lyme spirochete
b. bergdorferi
56
What is the RMSF organism
R. ricketsia
57
What is the dose for empiric acyclovir for Meningoencephalitis?
10mg/kg IV q 8HR (covers HSV until PCR result available)
58
Match the diarrhea cause with appropriate ABX/Tx ``` Giardia E Coli 0157:H7 C. Diff Shigella C. Jejuni Salmonella ```
Giardia - METRO E Coli 0157:H7 - PROB NOTHING (ESP KIDS --> HUS) C. Diff - Oral VANC Shigella - Cipro C. Jejuni - Azithromycin Salmonella - Cipro (Ceftriaxone for typhoid fever)
59
What are the high intensity statin doses?
Atorvastatin 40-80mg | R- statin 20-40
60
How do you treat perioral dermatitis?
Metro
61
What drug should you never give infants due to lack of Ca in sarcoplasmic reticulum?
CCB
62
Number one risk factor for AAA?
Smoking
63
JNC-8 goal for people over 60 BP?
150/90
64
H pylori triple therapy?
CAP or CMP
65
When do we begin screening for HTN? DM?
18 and 35
66
What CCB's are avoided in HF?
Non-DHP = verapmil and diltiazem
67
What electrolyte abnormality increases digitalis toxicity?
Hypokalemia
68
Descending weakness, paralysis and n/v?
Botulism
69
What is cobalamin?
b12
70
What position is Mitral stenosis best heard in?
LLD
71
Tricuspid stenosis is associated with what? Tricuspid regurg?
RF | Endocarditis
72
ITP pt w/ >20k plt and no symptoms? <20k? Life threat?
Observe Corticosteroids and IVIG PLT transfusion
73
#1 cause of male infertility?
varicocele
74
What blood pressure med reduces Ca in urine? | Which med increases it?
Thiazide | Furosimide
75
Acute hemolysis test findings?
Increased K and LDH. Decreased haptoglobin.
76
Most common cause of blindness under 65
DM retinopathy
77
How do you calculate anion gap?
(Na-(Cl + HCO3)) 8-16 is normal
78
What electrolyte is typically low with potassium?
Mg
79
What is CKD in terms of GFR? What is kidney failure?
<60 w/ albumin >30 <15 --> prob. dialysis
80
What is the most common genetic dz in the US? How does it present/diagnose?
ADPKD HTN and abdominal mass/enlarge Renal US *Aggressive tx of HTN
81
What is the mnemonic for sensory vs. motor nerves
Some say marry money but my brother said bad bitches marry money
82
Describe GCS for motor
``` 1 = none 2 = Extend 3 = Flex 4 = withdraw 5 = localize 6 = obey commands ```
83
GCS for verbal
``` 1 = none 2 = sounds 3 = salad 4 = confused 5 = oriented ```
84
GCS for eye
``` 1 = none 2 = pain 3 = verbal 4 = spont ```
85
What is prophylaxis for cluster HA
Verapamil
86
MCA stroke is associated with what loss of vision?
Homonymous hemianopsia and gaze toward infarct
87
What is the main criteria for reperfusion therapy of a stroke?
W/in 4.5 hours and not pregnant No improvement noted BP < 185/110 No high bleed risk
88
For the acute phase or non-reperfusion therapy, when would you treat HTN?
over 220/110
89
What is the key factor for brain neoplasm?
Radiation exposure
90
GBS has what pattern of travel?
Ground to brain
91
Wernicke encephalopathy shows what s/sx and is due to what deficiency?
Thiamine B1 AMS Eye dysfunction Gait abnormality
92
Describe a jefferson's fracture. Describe a hangman's fracture
Disruption of C1 ring (need odontoid) C2 vertebral body fx w/ anterior subluxation
93
Juvenile kyphosis is known as what? What are classic radiological findings?
Sheurman's dz, Shmorls nodes
94
What is the delta pressure for compartment syndrome?
Diastolic BP - measured compartment pressure = >30
95
What is the unhappy triad of knee injury?
ACL, MCL, medial meniscus
96
What is failure to thrive?
Crossing 2 major lines or dropping below 5%
97
Newborn weight doubles when? Triples when?
6 months | 12 months
98
What is the only vaccine at birth?
Hep B
99
Diagnose and treat pertussis
Culture and PCR naso swab Azithromycin
100
When is screening for GBS? What if its positive?
35-37 weeks IV pen G 4 hours before delivery
101
PDA is often secondary to
Premature or Maternal rubella
102
What would show a double bubble sign on x-ray
Volvulus
103
PKU is what?
Decreased activity of phenylalanine hydroxylase (convert phenylalanine to tyrosine)

PANCE (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions