Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Head and Neck > Head and Neck Surgery > Flashcards

Head and Neck Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

Describe Branchial cysts

A

Congenital epithelial cysts, occurring laterally due to failure of obliteration of the 2nd branchial cleft in embryonic development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe Cystic hygromas

A

Cystic lymphatic lesion that occurs in the POSTERIOR triangle of the neck. Most present at birth or before 2 years. (They are transillumable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where do branchial cysts typically form

A

Anterior to the SCM near the angle of the mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does branchial cyst appear on echo

A

Anechoic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe dermoid cysts

A
  • Derived from pleuripotent stem cells and are located in the midline
  • Usually in a suprahyoid location
  • Contain variable amounts of calcium and fat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe a ranula

A

Mucocele in the floor of the mouth originating from the sublingual glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How are ranulas treated

A

Surgical excision inclusive of the sublingual glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe a Laryngocele

A

Air pocket that arises from the deepest point of the laryngeal ventricle that can bulge internally into the larynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe Pharyngeal pouch

A

Posteromedial herniation between thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles - Killian’s dehiscence (acquired diverticulum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are pharyngeal pouches classified

A

Lahey classification:

  • Type 1 = small mucosal protrusion
  • Type 2 = definite pouch
  • Type 3 = large pouch (oesophagus is pushed forwards)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Distribution of salivary stone disease

A
  • 80-90% Submandibular

- 10-20% Parotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Risk factors for salivary stone disease

A
  • Dehydration
  • Gout
  • Diabetes
  • HTN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Composition of salivary gland stones

A
  • Calcium phosphate

- Calcium carbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

GOLD standard investigation for salivary gland stones

A

Sialography (contraindicated in those with iodine allergy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the management of salivary stone disease

A

Gland excision, unless distally sited and mobile in Wharton’s duct in which case endoscopy can be attempted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What typically causes Sialadenitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What complicates Sialedentiis

A

Development of a submandibular abscess may spread through the deep fascial spaces and occlude the airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most common submandibular gland tumour

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How are submandibular tumours diagnosed

A

FNAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most common parotid neoplasm

A

Benign pleomorphic adenoma (benign mixed tumour)

21
Q

Describe a Warthin tumour

A
  • Most common bilateral benign neoplasm of the parotid
  • Lymphocytic infiltrate and cystic epithelial proliferation
  • Associated with smoking
22
Q

Describe parotid Haemangioma

A
  • Consider with parotid mass in a child (accounts for 90%)

- Hypervascular on imaging

23
Q

Most common type of oral cancer

A

SCC

24
Q

Risk factors for oral SCC

A
  • Smoking and alcohol
  • Betel nut
  • Leukoplakia
  • Dental caries
  • Chronic glossitis
  • Malnutrition
  • Cirrhosis
  • HIV
25
Q

How are oral cavity tumours investigated

A
  • EUA and biopsy
  • Panendoscopy
  • Plain x-ray
  • CT to assess nodal status
26
Q

Management of T1 and T2 <3cm oral tumours

A

Surgery OR Radiotherapy

27
Q

Management of large volume T2, T3 and T4 oral tumours

A
  • Surgery

- Adjuvant radiotherapy

28
Q

How is lymph node disease managed in oral cancer

A

Modified radical or extended neck dissection

29
Q

Risk factors for oropharyngeal SCC

A
  • Smoking
  • Alcohol
  • Betel nut and tobacco chewing
  • Dental sepsis
  • Ionising radiation
  • HPV 8 and 16
  • Submucosal fibrosis of the palatine arch
30
Q

How are oropharyngeal tumours investigated

A
  • FNAC
  • Panendoscopy and bilateral tonsillectomy
  • CT neck and chest
  • Liver USS
31
Q

Outline the management for base of tongue cancerous lesions

A
  • T1 = radical radiotherapy
  • T2-4 = chemoradiotherapy or resection with free flap reconstruction and bilateral neck dissection with postoperative radiotherapy
32
Q

Outline the management of tonsillar cancerous lesions

A
  • T1-2 = transoral surgery or radical radiotherapy
  • T3-4 = radical resection with neck dissection and reconstruction (pectoralis flap or free radial flap, fibular flap if section of mandible is removed)
33
Q

Define level 1 lymph nodes in the neck

A

Submental and submandibular

34
Q

Define level 2 lymph nodes in the neck

A

Upper jugular from skull base to hyoid

35
Q

Define level 3 lymph nodes in the neck

A

Middle jugular from the hyoid to the cricoid cartilage

36
Q

Define level 4 lymph nodes in the neck

A

Lower jugular from cricoid to clavicle

37
Q

Define level 5 lymph nodes in the neck

A

Posterior triangle

38
Q

Define level 6 lymph nodes in the neck

A

Anterior compartment nodes from the hyoid bone to the suprasternal notch, bounded laterally by the medial border of the carotid sheath

39
Q

Define level 7 lymph nodes in the neck

A

Nodes in the superior mediastinum

40
Q

How do nasopharyngeal tumours typically present

A
  • Epistaxis
  • Nasal obstruction
  • Neck lump
  • Otalgia
  • Otitis media with effusion
41
Q

Risk factors for nasopharyngeal tumours

A
  • HLA-A2 gene
  • Positive family history
  • EBV infection
  • Salt-preserved fish (nitrosamines)
  • Vitamin C deficiency
  • Male predominance
42
Q

How are nasopharyngeal tumours managed

A

Curative radiotherapy (surgery has no place)

43
Q

Origin of pleomorphic adenomas

A

Myoepithelial cells and intercalated duct cells

44
Q

How is benign parotid disease such as pleomorphic adenoma treated

A

Superficial parotidectomy

45
Q

What parotid tumour typically invades the facial nerve

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

46
Q

Why may otalgia develop following tonisllectomy

A

Referred along glossopharyngeal nerve

47
Q

What drugs are associated with parotid gland enlargement

A

Thiouracil, isoprenaline, phenylbutazone, COCP

48
Q

Cellular contents of pleomorphic adenoma

A

Epithelial and stromal elements

49
Q

How are salivary gland tumours investigated

A
  • MRI to delineate nerve involvement

- FNAC

Head and Neck (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions