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midterms > health science midterm > Flashcards

health science midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Dorothea Dix

A

Superintendent of Female nurses of the Army in 1861

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2
Q

Superintendent of Female nurses of the Army in 1861

A

Dorothea Dix

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3
Q

Florence Nightingale

A

founder of modern nursing

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4
Q

founder of modern nursing

A

Florence Nightingale

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5
Q

Christian Barnard

A

preformed the first successful heart transplant

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6
Q

preformed the first successful heart transplant

A

Christian Barnard

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7
Q

Elizabeth Blackwell

A

first female physician in the U.S in 1849

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8
Q

first female physician in the U.S in 1849

A

Elizabeth Blackwell

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9
Q

Marie Curie

A

isolated radium in 1910

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10
Q

isolated radium in 1910

A

Marie Curie

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11
Q

Gabriel Fahrenheit

A

created the first mercury thermometer

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12
Q

created the first mercury thermometer

A

Gabriel Fahrenheit

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13
Q

William Harvey

A

described the circulation of blood to and from the heart

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14
Q

described the circulation of blood to and from the heart

A

William Harvey

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15
Q

Robert Koch

A

developed the culture plate method to identify pathogens

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16
Q

developed the culture plate method to identify pathogens

A

Robert Koch

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17
Q

Renee Laennec

A

invented the stethoscope

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18
Q

invented the stethoscope

A

Renee Laennec

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19
Q

Joseph Lister

A

began using disinfectants and antiseptics during surgery

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20
Q

began using disinfectants and antiseptics during surgery

A

Joseph Lister

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21
Q

Louis Pasteur

A

began pasteurizing milk to kill bacteria and proved microorganisms cause disease and created a vaccine for rabies

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22
Q

began pasteurizing milk to kill bacteria and proved microorganisms cause disease and created a vaccine for rabies

A

Louis Pasteur

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23
Q

Joseph Priestley

A

discovered the element oxygen in 1774

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24
Q

discovered the element oxygen in 1774

A

Joseph Priestley

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25
Q

Wilhelm Roentgen

A

discovered x-rays in 1895

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26
Q

discovered x-rays in 1895

A

Wilhelm Roentgen

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27
Q

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

A

invented the microscope in 1666

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28
Q

invented the microscope in 1666

A

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

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29
Q

standard precautions (extended version)

A

the minimum infection prevention practices that apply to all patient care regardless of suspected or confirmed infection status of the patient in any setting where health care is delivered

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30
Q

what is RACE

A

R - rescue/remove your patients
A - alert/alarm (fire alarm)
C - confine/contain the fire (by closing doors)
E - extinguish or evacuate

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31
Q

what is PASS

A

P - pull the pin
A - aim (at the base of the fire)
S - squeeze
S - sweep (back and forth)

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32
Q

what are the correct techniques for lifting heavy items?

A
  • maintain a broad base
  • bend from hips and knees
  • use the weight of your body to help push/pull an object
  • carry heavy objects close to your body
  • avoid twisting your body as you work
  • avoid bending for long periods of time
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33
Q

what is the MOST important thing to do if there is a fire?

A

remain calm, get out and alert!

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34
Q

long term care facility

A

to provide assistance and care mainly for elderly patients

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35
Q

to provide assistance and care mainly for elderly patients

A

long term care facility

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36
Q

home health care

A

provide care in a patient’s home

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37
Q

provide care in a patient’s home

A

home health care

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38
Q

hospice

A

provides care for terminally ill persons who usually have life expediencies of 6 months or less

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39
Q

provides care for terminally ill persons who usually have life expediencies of 6 months or less

A

hospice

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40
Q

hospitals

A

one of the major types of health care facilities that vary in size and services provided

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41
Q

one of the major types of health care facilities that vary in size and services provided

A

hospitals

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42
Q

medicare

A

a federal government program that provides health care for almost all individuals over the age of 65

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43
Q

a federal government program that provides health care for almost all individuals over the age of 65

A

medicare

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44
Q

medicaid

A

pays for the healthcare of individuals with low incomes, children who qualify for public assistance, and individuals who are physically disabled or blind

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45
Q

pays for the healthcare of individuals with low incomes, children who qualify for public assistance, and individuals who are physically disabled or blind

A

medicaid

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46
Q

medigap

A

health insurance plans that help pay expenses not covered by Medicare

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47
Q

health insurance plans that help pay expenses not covered by Medicare

A

medigap

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48
Q

worker’s comp.

A

health insurance plan providing treatment for workers injured on the job

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49
Q

health insurance plan providing treatment for workers injured on the job

A

worker’s comp.

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50
Q

HMO

A

type of health insurance plan that provides a managed care plan for the delivery of health care services

  • prevention
  • set list of Dr.’s but GP (general practitioner) has to give referrals to see specialists
  • cheaper premiums
  • less choice of Dr.’s
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51
Q

PPO

A

type of managed care health insurance plan usually provided by large industries or companies to their employees

  • prevention
  • set list of Dr.’s and specialists
  • NO GATEKEEPER
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52
Q

what are the steps in the chain on infection?

A
  • Infectious Agent
  • Source of Reservoir
  • Portal of Entry
  • Mode of Transmission
  • Portal of Exit
  • Susceptible Host
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53
Q

infectious agent

A

a pathogen such as a bacterium or virus that can cause disease

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54
Q

a pathogen such as a bacterium or virus that can cause disease

A

infectious agent

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55
Q

source of reservoir

A

an area where the infectious agent can live

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56
Q

an area where the infectious agent can live

A

source of reservoir

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57
Q

portal of entry

A

a way for the infectious agent to escape from the reservoir in which it has been growing

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58
Q

a way for the infectious agent to escape from the reservoir in which it has been growing

A

portal of entry

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59
Q

mode of transmission

A

a way that the infectious agent can be transmitted to another reservoir or host where it can live

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60
Q

a way that the infectious agent can be transmitted to another reservoir or host where it can live

A

mode of transmission

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61
Q

portal of exit

A

a way for the infectious agent to enter a new reservoir or host

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62
Q

a way for the infectious agent to enter a new reservoir or host

A

portal of exit

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63
Q

susceptible host

A

a person likely to get an infection or disease, usually because body defenses are weak

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64
Q

a person likely to get an infection or disease, usually because body defenses are weak

A

susceptible host

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65
Q

standard precautions (short version)

A

precautions used for everyone based on if you’re going to be in contact with bodily fluids

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66
Q

what are the standard precautions? (list)

A
  • wash hands (after touching blood, bodily fluids, secretions, and contaminated items)
  • wash hands immediately after gloves are removed and between patients
  • always wash hands as you enter and leave a patients room
  • remove gloves after use, before touching non-contaminated items
  • change gloves before caring for a new patient
  • always wash hands if visibly soiled
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67
Q

airborne precautions

A
  • use standard precaution
  • patient must be placed in private room (door kept closed)
  • each person who enters room must wear a N95 mask
  • air must be discharged to outdoor air or filtered before circulating other areas
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68
Q

droplet precautions

A
  • use standard precaution
  • patient must be placed in private room
  • masks must be worn when working within 3 feet of patient
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69
Q

contact precautions

A
  • use standard precaution
  • patient must be places in private room
  • hand hygiene before and after all patient contact (with gloves and hand washing)
  • use of personal protective equipment (gloves, gowns, masks, eye protection, etc.)
  • the room and items in it must receive daily cleaning and disinfection as needed
  • all equipment must be cleaned and disinfected before using on another patient
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70
Q

nosocomial

A

an infection aquired by an individual in a health care facility; transmitted by health care workers to the patient (ex: staphylococcus, pseudomonas and enterococci)

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71
Q

an infection aquired by an individual in a health care facility; transmitted by health care workers to the patient (ex: staphylococcus, pseudomonas and enterococci)

A

nosocomial

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72
Q

opportunistic

A

infections that occur when the body’s defenses are weak (es: kaposi’s sarcoma (rare type of cancer) or pneumoncystis carinii (pneumonia in individuals with AIDS))

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73
Q

infections that occur when the body’s defenses are weak (es: kaposi’s sarcoma (rare type of cancer) or pneumoncystis carinii (pneumonia in individuals with AIDS))

A

opportunistic

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74
Q

antisepsis

A

prevent or inhibit growth of pathogenic organisms but are not effective against spores and viruses (can usually be used on the skin) (ex: alcohol and betadine)

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75
Q

prevents or inhibit growth of pathogenic organisms but are not effective against spores and viruses (can usually be used on the skin) (ex: alcohol and betadine)

A

antisepsis

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76
Q

asepsis

A

the absence of disease-producing microorganisms, or pathogens

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77
Q

the absence of disease-producing microorganisms, or pathogens

A

asepsis

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78
Q

clean

A

objects or parts of objects that do not contain disease-producing organisms

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79
Q

objects or parts of objects that do not contain disease-producing organisms

A

clean

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80
Q

pathogen

A

microorganisms that cause infection and disease

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81
Q

microorganisms that cause infection and disease

A

pathogen

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82
Q

contaminated

A

organisms and pathogens are present/objects contain disease producing organisms

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83
Q

organisms and pathogens are present/objects contain disease producing organisms

A

contaminated

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84
Q

disinfection

A

a process that destroys all microorganisms, both pathogenic and non-pathogenic (including spores and viruses)

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85
Q

a process that destroys all microorganisms, both pathogenic and non-pathogenic (including spores and viruses)

A

disinfection

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86
Q

types of bodily fluids that can carry pathogens

A
  • semen
  • vaginal secretions
  • cerebrospinal fluid (found in brain and spinal cord)
  • synovial fluid (found between your joints)
  • pleural fluid (located between layers of pleura (lungs))
  • peritoneal fluid (by the peritoneum (abdominal cavity))
  • amniotic fluid
  • saliva
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87
Q

steps for donning

A
  • gown
  • mask
  • goggles
  • gloves
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88
Q

steps for doffing

A
  • gloves
  • goggles
  • gown
  • mask
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89
Q

relationship between tissues, organs, cells and organ systems

A

cells combine to form tissues, tissues combine to form organs, and organs combine to for systems

cells > tissues > organs > organ systems

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90
Q

4 main types of tissue

A
  • connective
  • nerve/nervous
  • muscle
  • epithelial (skin)
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91
Q

connective tissue

A

the supporting fabric of organs and other body parts; soft; (ligaments, tendons)

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92
Q

the supporting fabric of organs and other body parts; soft; (ligaments, tendons)

A

connective tissue

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93
Q

nerve/nervous tissue

A

made up of special cells called neurons; control and coordinated body activities by transmitting messages throughout the body; nerves, brain, and spinal cord are composed of this tissue

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94
Q

made up of special cells called neurons; control and coordinated body activities by transmitting messages throughout the body; nerves, brain, and spinal cord are composed of this tissue

A

nerve/nervous tissue

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95
Q

muscle tissue

A

produces power and movement by contraction of muscle fibers; skeletal cardiac, and visceral (smooth) are the main kinds

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96
Q

produces power and movement by contraction of muscle fibers; skeletal cardiac, and visceral (smooth) are the main kinds

A

muscle tissue

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97
Q

epithelial (skin) tissue

A

covers the surface of the body and is the main tissue in the skin; forms the lining of the intestinal, respiratory, circulatory, and urinary tracks; also forms body glands (produces specific secretions such as mucus and digestive juices)

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98
Q

covers the surface of the body and is the main tissue in the skin; forms the lining of the intestinal, respiratory, circulatory, and urinary tracks; also forms body glands (produces specific secretions such as mucus and digestive juices)

A

epithelial (skin) tissue

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99
Q

tort

A

wrongful act that does not involve a contract; occurs when a person is harmed or injured because a health care provider does not meet standards of care

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100
Q

wrongful act that does not involve a contract; occurs when a person is harmed or injured because a health care provider does not meet standards of care

A

tort

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101
Q

what is the range for temperature?

A

97.6-99.6

102
Q

what is the range for temperature?

A

oral: 97.6-99.6

103
Q

what is the range for BP?

A

normal: 100-120/60-80

104
Q

what is the range for BP?

A

normal: 100-120/60-80

105
Q

what is the range for pulse?

A

60-100

106
Q

what is the range for pulse?

A

60-100

107
Q

what is the range for respiration?

A

12-20

108
Q

what is the range for respiration?

A

12-20

109
Q

what are patient’s rights?

A

factors of care that patients can expect to receive

110
Q

what are types of legal directives?

A

living will and POA

111
Q

legal directives

A

legal documents that allow individuals to state what medical treatment they want or do not want in the event that they become incapacitated and are unable to express their wishes regarding medical care

112
Q

living will

A

documents that allow individuals to state what measures should/should not be taken to prolong life when their conditions are terminal

113
Q

living will rules

A

must be signed when individual is competent and witnessed by 2 adults who cannot benefit from the death

114
Q

Designation of Health Care Surrogate or Durable Power of Attorney (POA)

A

a document that permits an individual (known as principal) to appoint another person (known as agent) to make any decisions regarding health care if the principal should be unable to make decisions

115
Q

POA rules

A

must be signed by the principal, agent, and 1 or 2 adult witnesses

116
Q

permission granted voluntarily by a person who is of sound mind after the procedure and all risks involved have been explained in terms the person can understand; all procedures must be explained to the patient and no procedure should be preformed if the patient does not give consent

A

informed consent

117
Q

what are the types of legal directives that can be given?

A
  • DNR (do not resuscitate)
  • DNI (do not intubate)
  • living will (for when you are terminal; how far/how much you want them to do to keep you comfortable)
  • POA (choosing someone to make decisions for you in case something happens)
118
Q

functions of the bones

A
  • framework: support the body’s muscles, fat and skin
  • protection: bone surround vital organs to protect them
  • levers: muscles attach to bones to help provide movement
  • production of blood cells: help produce red and white blood cells and platelets
  • storage: store most of the calcium supply of the body in addition to phosphorus and fat
119
Q

what are the parts of the long bone?

A
  • diaphysis: long shaft (meduallary canal is found inside here and yellow marrow is found in the medullary canal)
  • epiphysis: ends of the bone
  • endosteum: membrane that lines medullary cavity and holds yellow marrow intact
  • periosteum: tough membrane that covers the outside of the bone
  • osteoblasts: special cells that form new bone tissue
  • articular cartilage: covers epiphysis and acts as a shock absorber where 2 bones meet
120
Q

where are long bones found?

A

in vertebrae, ribs, sternum, cranium, proximal humorous, pelvis and femur

121
Q

what and where is red and yellow marrow?

A
  • yellow marrow: mainly a storage area for fat cells: fills the medullary canal (in the diaphysis/extremitie (arms/legs))
  • red marrow: produces red blood cells, cells, platelets, and some white blood cells; is sometimes transplanted into people with defective immune systems; found in certain bones (ribs, vertebrae, sternum, cranium and proximal ends of the humerus and femur)
122
Q

endosteum

A

a membrane that line the medullary canal and keeps yellow marrow intact; also produces bone growth

123
Q

periosteum

A

tough membrane which contains blood vessels, lymph vessels, and osteoblasts

124
Q

fontanels

A

“soft spots”; allow for the enlargement of the skull as brain growth occurs; made of membrane and cartilage, and turn into solid bone by approximately 18 months of age

125
Q

formina

A

openings in bones that allow nerves and blood vessels to enter or leave the bone

126
Q

sutures

A

areas where the cranial bones have joined together

127
Q

joints

A

areas where 2 or more bones join together

128
Q

ligaments

A

connect bone to bone (help hold long bones together at joints)

129
Q

tendons

A

the attachment from muscle to bone (strong, tough, fibrous, connective tissue cords)

130
Q

fascia

A

a tough, sheetlike membrane that covers and protects the tissue

131
Q

diathrosis/synovial

A

freely movable (ball and socket joints of the shoulder and hip, or the hinge joints of the elbow and knee)

132
Q

amphiarthrosis

A

slightly movable (attachment of the ribs to the thoracic vertebrae and the symphysis pubis/joint between pelvic bone)

133
Q

synarthrosis

A

immovable (suture joints of the cranium)

134
Q

types of fractures

A
  • greenstick
  • simple (closed)
  • compound (open)
  • impacted
  • comminuted
  • spiral
  • depressed
  • colles
  • closed fx
  • open fx
135
Q

names of fixing fractures

A
  • closed reduction: positioning bone in correct alignment (applying a cast or splint to maintain position until fracture heals)
  • open reduction: surgical repair of the bone
136
Q

greenstick fx

A

bone is bent and splits, causing a crack or incomplete break

137
Q

simple (closed) fx

A

complete break of the bone with no damage to the skin

138
Q

compound (open) fx

A

bone breaks and ruptures through the skin

139
Q

impacted fx

A

broken bone ends jam into each other

140
Q

comminuted

A

bone fragments or splinters into more than 2 pieces (like a “community” of broken bones)

141
Q

spiral fx

A

bone twists resulting in one or more breaks

142
Q

depressed

A

a broken piece of skull bone moves inward

143
Q

colles

A

breaking and dislocating of the distal radius that causes a characteristic bulge at the wrist

144
Q

closed fx

A

when broken bone occurs within the skin

145
Q

open fx

A

when the bone comes though the skin at time of fracture

146
Q

what are the functions of muscles?

A
  • excitability: the ability to respond to a stimulus such as a nerve impulse
  • contractibility: muscle fibers that are stimulated by nerves, contract, or become short and thick which causes movement
  • extensibility: the ability to be stretched
  • elasticity: allows the muscle to return to its original shape after it has contracted or stretched
147
Q

what is the skeletal muscle?

A
  • attach to bones and provide voluntary movement
  • produce heat and energy for the body
  • help maintain posture by holding the body erect
  • protect internal organs
148
Q

what are the 3 types of muscle?

A
  • cardiac muscle: forms walls for the heart and contracts to circulate blood; involuntary
  • visceral (smooth) muscle: contracts to cause movement in these organs (in digestive and respiratory systems, blood vessels, and eyes); involuntary
  • skeletal muscle: attached to bones and causes body movement; voluntary
149
Q

difference between ligament and tendon

A

ligament is attachment from bone to bone and tendon is attachment from muscle to bone

150
Q

what are the 3 parts of communication

A
  • sender: individual who creates message
  • message: info, ideas, or thoughts
  • receiver: individual who receives message
151
Q

what are the 5 vital signs

A

pulse, BP, temp, respiration and pain

152
Q

list the body planes

A
  • transverse plane: divides the body into a top and bottom half
  • midsagittal/medial plane: divides the body into right and left sides
  • frontal/coronal plane: divides the body into a front and a back section
153
Q

body parts that are above & below the transverse plane

A
  • superior: above

- inferior: below

154
Q

body parts located near the head?

A

cranial

155
Q

body parts located near the “tail” region?

A

caudal

156
Q

body parts that are close to the midline/plane?

A

medial

157
Q

body parts that are away from the midline/plane?

A

lateral

158
Q

body parts in the front plane

A

ventral/anterior

159
Q

body parts in the back plane

A

dorsal/posterior

160
Q

body parts close to the point of reference

A

proximal

161
Q

body parts distant from the point of reference

A

distal

162
Q

list the body cavities

A
  • dorsal cavity: one long, continuous cavity located on the back of the body and is divided into 2 sections (cranial and spinal)
  • ventral cavities: larger than the dorsal cavities and is separated into 2 distinct cavities by the diaphragm
  • thoracic cavity: located in the chest and contains
  • abdominal cavity: is divided into an upper and lower part
  • orbital cavities
  • nasal cavities
  • buccal cavities
163
Q

dorsal cavities

A
  • cranial cavity: contains the brain

- spinal cavities: contains the spinal cord

164
Q

thoracic cavity

A

contains the esophagus, trachea, bronchi, lungs, heart, and large blood vessels

165
Q

abdominal cavities

A
  • upper part: contains stomach, small intestine, most of large intestine, appendix, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, and spleen
  • lower part (pelvic cavity): contain the urinary bladder, reproductive organs, and the last part of the large intestine
166
Q

orbital cavity

A

contains the eyes

167
Q

nasal cavity

A

contains the nose structures

168
Q

buccal cavity

A

(mouth) contains the teeth, tongue

169
Q

what are the regions of the abdomen (quadrants)?

A

insert picture

170
Q

what are the regions of the abdomen (regions)?

A

insert picture

171
Q

what is correct anatomical position

A

standing erect (upright), feet slightly apart, arms at side, palms facing forward

172
Q

malpractice

A

“bad practice”; failure to use the degree of skill expected in an individual’s profession, resulting in injury, loss, or damage to the person receiving care

173
Q

“bad practice”; failure to use the degree of skill expected in an individual’s profession, resulting in injury, loss, or damage to the person receiving care

A

malpractice

174
Q

negligence

A

failure to give care that is normally expected of a person in a particular position, resulting in injuries to another person

175
Q

failure to give care that is normally expected of a person in a particular position, resulting in injuries to another person

A

negligence

176
Q

defamation

A

occurs when false statements either cause a person to be ridiculed or damage the person’s reputation

177
Q

occurs when false statements either cause a person to be ridiculed or damage the person’s reputation

A

defamation

178
Q

libel

A

written statements (that are not true)

179
Q

slander

A

spoken statements

180
Q

invasion of privacy

A

unnecessarily exposing an individual or revealing personal info about an individual without that person’s consent

181
Q

written statements that are not true (defamation)

A

libel

182
Q

spoken statements

A

slander

183
Q

unnecessarily exposing an individual or revealing personal info about an individual without that person’s consent

A

invasion of privacy

184
Q

assault

A

a threat or attempt to injure

185
Q

a threat or attempt to injure

A

assault

186
Q

battery

A

the unlawful touching of another person without consent

187
Q

the unlawful touching of another person without consent

A

battery

188
Q

informed consent

A

permission granted voluntarily by a person who is of sound mind after the procedure and all risks involved have been explained in terms the person can understand; all procedures must be explained to the patient and no procedure should be preformed if the patient does not give consent

189
Q

abuse

A

any care that results in physical harm, pain, or mental anguish

190
Q

what are the types of abuse?

A
  • physical: hitting, restraining, etc.
  • verbal: swearing, shouting, using inappropriate words, writing threats, etc.
  • psychological abuse: threatening harm, denying rights, intimidating, threaten to reveal info about a person, etc.
  • sexual: any unwanted sexual touching, gestures, suggesting sexual behavior, etc.
191
Q

what are the signs and symptoms for abuse?

A
  • unexplained bruises, fractures, burns, or injuries
  • neglect such as personal hygiene
  • irrational fears or change in personality
  • aggressive or withdrawn behavior
  • pt. statements indicate abuse/neglect
192
Q

what is the Patient Self-Determination act?

A

the job of health care workers if to ask the patient what they want to happen to them
(ask pt. if they have legal directives and if they do get a copy and put in chart, if not, offer if they want legal directives)
(educate healthcare workers to ask pt. for legal directives)

193
Q

HIPAA

A
  • established for maintaining confidentiality of health care records
  • patients have total control on how info in their medical records is used
  • states that you cannot give info without patient permission
  • you are granting permission to share medical info to health insurance, etc.
  • states who can call and ask for your medical info
194
Q

what is OBRA

A

guarantees certain rights to residents in long-term care facilities

195
Q

examples of individuals with legal disabilites

A
  • minors (individuals under legal age)
  • under the influence of drugs that alter mental state
  • semiconscious/unconscious people
196
Q

what are privileged communicatios and what are exempt?

A

info that is given by the patient (is to be kept confidential and shared only with other members of the patient’s health care team); exempt: injuries caused by violence that may require police involvement, (drug) abuse, (anything illegal really), etc.

197
Q

what are the abnormalities found in curvatures of the spine?

A
  • kyphosis: “hunchback”; a rounded bowing of the back at the thoracic area
  • scoliosis: side-to-side (lateral) curvature of the spine
  • lordosis: “swayback”; an abnormal inward curvature of the lumbar region
198
Q

abduction

A

moving a body part away from the midline

199
Q

moving a body part away from the midline

A

abduction

200
Q

adduction

A

moving a body part toward the midline

201
Q

moving a body part toward the midline

A

adduction

202
Q

flexion

A

decreasing the angle between 2 bones, or bending a body part (bending a body part)

203
Q

decreasing the angle between 2 bones, or bending a body part (bending a body part)

A

flexion

204
Q

extension

A

increasing the angle between 2 bones, or straightening a body part (straightening a body part)

205
Q

increasing the angle between 2 bones, or straightening a body part (straightening a body part)

A

extension

206
Q

circumduction

A

moving in a circle at a joint or moving one end of a body part in a circle while the other end remains stationary (swinging an arm in a circle)

207
Q

moving in a circle at a joint or moving one end of a body part in a circle while the other end remains stationary (swinging an arm in a circle)

A

circumduction

208
Q

rotation

A

moving a body part around its own axis (turning head side to side)

209
Q

moving a body part around its own axis (turning head side to side)

A

rotation

210
Q

contracture

A

tightening or shortening of a muscle

211
Q

tightening or shortening of a muscle

A

contracture

212
Q

elasticity

A

allows the muscle to return to its original shape after it has contracted or stretched

213
Q

allows the muscle to return to its original shape after it has contracted or stretched

A

elasticity

214
Q

excitability

A

the ability to be stretched

215
Q

the ability to be stretched

A

excitability

216
Q

muscle tone

A

a state of partial contraction

217
Q

a state of partial contraction

A

muscle tone

218
Q

deltoid

A

shoulder

219
Q

shoulder

A

deltoid

220
Q

biceps

A

upper arm (palm side)

221
Q

upper arm (palm side)

A

biceps

222
Q

triceps

A

lower arm (elbow side)

223
Q

upperr arm (elbow side)

A

triceps

224
Q

trapezius

A

upper back & neck

225
Q

upper back & neck

A

trapezius

226
Q

pectoralis major

A

upper chest

227
Q

upper chest

A

pectoralis major

228
Q

gluteus maximus

A

butt, booty

229
Q

butt, booty

A

gluteus maximus

230
Q

rectus abdominus

A

ribs to pubis (pelvis)

231
Q

ribs to pubis (pelvis)

A

rectus abdominus

232
Q

quadriceps femoris

A

front of thigh

233
Q

front of thigh

A

quadriceps femoris

234
Q

communication

A

the exchange of an idea or info that results in understanding

235
Q

difference between verbal and nonverbal communications

A
  • verbal: primarily the spoken word

- nonverbal: messages conveyed by facial expression, eye contact, body language, touch, personal space, and appearance

236
Q

what would involve listening?

A
  • show interest and concern for what speaker is saying
  • be alert and maintain eye contact with speaker
  • avoid interrupting speaker
  • pay attention to what the speaker is saying
  • avoid thinking about how you are going to respond
  • try to eliminate your own prejudices and see the other persons pov
  • eliminate distractions
  • watch the speaker closely to observe actions that may contradict what the person is saying
  • reflect statements back to the speaker to let the speaker know that statements are being heard
  • ask for clarification if not understanding
  • keep temper under control and maintain a positive attitude
237
Q

how are senses used in communication?

A
  • sight: the presence of a rash/sore, color of urine/stool, amount of food eaten, etc.
  • smell: alerts a health care worker to body oder/unusual odors of breath, wounds, urine/stool
  • touch: to feel pulse, dryness of temp of skin, etc.
  • hearing: listening to respirations, abnormal body sounds, coughs, and speech
238
Q

difference between subjective and objective data

A
  • subjective: cannot be seen or felt, statements made by patients (what can be interpreted)
  • objective: can be seen or measured; bruise, cut, rash, etc. (what is visually seen)
239
Q

locations for taking pulse

A
  • temporal (temple/head)
  • carotid (neck)
  • brachial (arm; 2 spots)
  • radial (thumb side of your arm)
  • femoral (groin/femur)
  • popliteal (behind your knees)
  • dorsalis pedis (foot)
  • posterior tibial (back of leg, near ankle)
  • apical (base of heart)
240
Q

where can you take temporal pulse

A

temple/head

241
Q

where can you take carotid pulse

A

neck

242
Q

where can you take brachial pulse

A

arm (in elbow bend and inside of arm)

243
Q

where can you take radial pulse

A

thumb side of your arm (wrist)

244
Q

where can you take femoral pulse

A

groin/femur

245
Q

where can you take popliteal pulse

A

behind the knees

246
Q

where can you take dorsalis pedis pulse

A

foot

247
Q

where can you take posterior tibial pulse

A

back of leg (near ankle)

248
Q

where can you take apical pulse

A

base of heart

249
Q

what are the correct steps in taking BP

A
  • find pulse/rate
  • find the rhythm (regularity of pulse)
  • calculate volume (strength, force, quality, or intensity of pulse)
250
Q

what can cause abnormal vital signs?

A

^ exercise, stimulant drugs, excitement, fever, dehydration, shock, nervous tension

v sleep, depressant drugs (like alcohol), heart disease, coma, physical training

midterms (3 decks)

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