Heart/Blood Vessels Flashcards

(43 cards)

1
Q

2 Types of Small BV disease:

A
Hyaline arteriolosclerosis
Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis (more severe)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which organ is targeted in Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis?

A

Kidney: Acute renal failure results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What risk factors are associated with Aortic dissection?

A

Arterial hypertension
(major cause)
Connective tissue disorders
(Marfan’s syndrome is a predisposing factor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are causes of Direct Infection Vasculitis?

A

Neisseria meningitidis (Bacterial)
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (Rickettsial)
Fungal infection
Viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What viral disease is associated with Immune-mediated Vasculitis?

A

Hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the most common vasculitides?

Which arteries are most affected?

A

Giant cell (Temporal) arteritis
Arteries principally of head
Temporal, Vertebral, OPTHALMIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are common symptoms of Giant cell arteritis?

A

Masseter muscle claudication
Lingual musculature claudication
Transient to complete vision loss (ophthalmic artery involvement + retinal ischemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What other pathology is closely associated with Giant Cell Arteritis?

A

Polymyalgia Rheumatica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which vessel is involved in Takayasu Arteritis?

A

Proximal aorta and its branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What two pathologies are associated with blindness?

A

Giant cell arteritis

Takayasu Arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

PR3-ANCA is associated with which pathology?

A

Wegener Granulomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which disease is most associated with heavy smoking?

A

Buerger disease (Thromboangiitis Obliterans)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Monckeberg Medial Calcification has a higher incidence in individuals who have ____

A

Diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lymphangitis is associated with which type of pathogen?

A

Group A

Beta-hemolytic streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a “Cystic hygroma”?

A

A cavernous lymphangioma

Usually in the neck and axilla of children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which pathology is related to Turner Syndrome?

A

Cystic hygroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which pathology can cause for severe epistaxes?

A
Vascular Ectasia (Osler-Weber-Rendu Disease)
Dilatation of pre-existing capillaries and veins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is an Angiosarcoma?

A

A sarcoma of malignant epithelial cells often in skin

Very aggressive

19
Q

What usually causes Right-sided heart failure?

A

It is typically secondary to Left-sided heart failure

Pulmonary hypertension

20
Q
Pulmonary edema
Pleural effusions
Dyspnea
Orthopnea
Fatigue
Tachycardia
are all associated with which pathology?
A

Left heart failure

21
Q
Systemic venous congestion
Soft tissue edema
Distended neck veins
Enlarged liver
Increased deep vein thromboses
Pulmonary emboli
are all associated with which pathology?
A

Right heart failure

22
Q

Right Ventricular hypertrophy is a symptom of what?

A

Cor Pulmonale

Secondary to pulmonary hypertension

23
Q

Cyanosis occurs when the pressure in the ____ heart is higher than the ____ heart

24
Q

What is the most common cause of Right to Left shunts?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

25
Cyanosis occurs when the pressure in the ____ heart is higher than the ____ heart
Right | Left
26
What is the most common cause of Right to Left shunts?
Tetralogy of Fallot
27
MIs begin in the ____ and extend toward the ____
Subendocardium | Epicardium
28
Unstable angina pectoris cannot be distinguished from what other heart complication with an ECG? What factor can make a differential diagnosis?
non-STEMI If cardiac enzymes are elevated, then a non-STEMI is the diagnosis
29
What is the best laboratory predictor or MI?
Cardiac troponin 1 levels Very specific to the myocardium The "gold standard" for enzyme diagnosis
30
What two factors may limit the extent of and MI?
Thrombolytic agents | Aspirin
31
What is the best laboratory predictor or MI?
Cardiac troponin 1 levels | The "gold standard" for enzyme diagnosis
32
What two pathologies are related to Group A Streptococci?
Lymphangitis | Rheumatic Fever typically preceded by pharyngitis
33
What are two pathologies associated with Marfan's syndrome?
Aortic dissection | Mitral Valve prolapse
34
What is the organism involved in Acute Infective Endocarditis?
Staph aureus
35
Which valves are most often affected in Infective Endocarditis?
Tricuspid | Pulmonary
36
A type of Noninfective Endocarditis is known as:
Lupus Erythematosis Endocarditis | "Libman-Sacks Disease"
37
Which valves are most often affected in Infective Endocarditis?
Tricuspid | Pulmonary
38
What are three types of Pericardial Effusions?
Serous: CHD, hypoalbuminemia Serosanguineous (watery, blood tinged): Blunt chest trauma, Malignancy Chylous (milky): Mediastinal obstruction
39
What is one of the most common causes of sudden death in young athletes?
Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
40
What complication does A-Fib predispose a patient to?
Thromboemboli
41
In what disease are pericardial effusions relatively common?
SLE
42
What complication does A-Fib predispose a patient to?
Thromboemboli
43
What can A-Fib be treated with?
Warfarin (Vit K antagonist) | Factor X or Thrombin anatagonists