Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > HEENT > Flashcards

HEENT Flashcards

1
Q

Functions of the immune system

A
  • Protect against foreign pathogens
  • Diff b/w self & non-self
  • Regulate response to antigens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

_____ immune response + ____ immune response = immune system

A

innate + adaptive -> immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

innate immunity is (specific or nonspecific?)

A

nonspecific

it recognizes a limited # of molecular patterns common to a variety of pathogens
Components: physical/chemical barriers, phagocytes and NKC, proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Inflammation is produced in response to release of _____

A

cytokines and chemokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Five signs of inflammation

A

Redness, swelling, pain, warmth, loss of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Adaptive immunity is (specific or nonspecific?)

A

Specific to distinct pathogens

adapts to changes to maintain effectiveness of immune response to protect the body
components: lymphocytes + Antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Adaptive immunity = ____ + _____

A

humoral + Cellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Humoral immunity = ____ Cells -> ______

A

Humoral = B Cells -> Antibodies

managed by lymphocytic T cells
regulate intensity, type, duration of immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cellular Immunity = ____ Cells

A

T Cells

kill it or help kill it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Protein molecules which bind to specific antigens and destroy them

A

immunoglobulins (Ig)

Antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

5 types of immunoglobulins

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Innapropriate immune response or appropriate immune response that is too strong

A

Hypersensitivity

Allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Poison ivy: innapropriate or appropriate but too strong immune response?

A

innapropriate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Asthma: innapropriate or appropriate but too strong immune response?

A

Appropriate but too strong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

There are ___ different types of hypersensitivites (allergies)

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity is _____ mediated

A

IgE

Skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Type I Hypersensitivities affect which parts of the body

A
  • Skin (eczema)
  • Eyes (conjunctivitis)
  • Nasopharynx (rhinorrhea)
  • Bronchopulmonary (asthma)
  • GI (gastroenterittis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

General trmnts for Type I hypersensitivity

A

Antihistamines, epi, corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Anaphylactic rxns belong to Type ___ hypersensitivity

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Type ___ = “immediate hypersensitivity”

A

Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Type II hypersensitivity is _____ mediated

A

IgM, IgG

autoimmune

both from blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Type ___ hypersensitivity

Antibody-antigen complexes don’t clear well and build up -> inflammation

A

Type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Type III hypersensitivity is ____ mediated

A

IgG, some IgM

both from blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Type ___ hypersensitivity rxn = Delayed-type

Antigen exposure -> response 2-3 days later

A

IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity is ___ mediated

A

T Cells and macrophages

NOT antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Epi MOA

A

Histamine competitive inhibitor

counteracts massive histamine release by competitively inhibiting receptor binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

two types of histamine receptors

where are there (mainly?)

A

H1: airway
H2: gastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

1st Gen H1RB

A

Diphenhydramine (benadryl)
Brompheniramine (dimetapp)
Doxylamine (unisom)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

2nd gen H1RB

A

Loratadine (claritin)
Desloratadine (Clarinex)
Fexofenadine (allegra)
Citirizine (xyrtec)
Levocertirizine (Xyzal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Common H2RBs

A

Famotidine (pepcid)
Ranitidine (Zantac)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why should you use caution when rx antihistamines (H1RB) to elderly

especially 1st gen

A

fall risk due to dizziness and sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cautions for antihistamines

A

elderly (fall risk)
renal dysfunction (renally cleared)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

H1RB side effects

A

dry mouth + fall risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

H2RB side effects

A

constipation and diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Adverse drug rxns are usually type ___ or ___ reactions

A

I or IV

Type I: beta-lactams, quinolones, platinum (FAST)
Type IV: local anesthetics, topical ABX (SLOW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Can you come straight out the womb with an insect allergy?

A

no, prior exposure required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Food allergy intolerannce vs hypersensitivity

A

Intolerance - physiological response (lactose intolerance)
hypersensitivity - immune allx rxn (hives)

38
Q

Food allergies are type ___ rxns

A

1

39
Q

fancy name for hives

A

utricaria

40
Q
A

angioedema

nonpitting

41
Q

meds that cause Angioedema

A
  • ACE inhibitors (BP meds; can happen anytime like years later)
  • Fibrinolytics (alteplase)
42
Q

trmnt for utricaria and angioedema

A

Antihistamines & oral steroids

both H1RB (2nd gen >1st gen) & H2RB

43
Q

Allergic Rhinitis is a type ___ rxn

A

I

44
Q

Allergic Rhinitis 1st line trmnt

examples and MOA

A

Intranasal Corticosteriods
- Fluticasone (Flonase, Veramyst)
- Mometasone (Nasonex)
- Budesonide (Rhinocort)
- Triamcinolone (Nasacort)
- Beclomethasone (Qnasl, Beconase AQ)

MOA: local anti-inflammatory

45
Q

pt has runny nose and congestion. Will H1RB antihistamines help?

A

It will dry secretions (anticholinergic) but has no effect on nasal congestion

46
Q

Decongestants MOA

A

alpha-agonist (sympathomimetic) causes vasoconstriction of arterioles in nasal mucosa and limits mucus from the start

47
Q

Nasal decongestants should only be used for up to ___ to avoid ___

A

up to 3 days to avoid rebound nasal congestion

48
Q

Oral nasal decongestant example

A

Sudafed

49
Q

Allergic Rhinitis Trmnt

Intranasal Mast-Cell Stabilizer example and MOA

A

Cromolyn (Nasal Crom)
- inhibits mast cell degranulation, limits release of histamine, tryptase, and prostaglandin D2

50
Q

Allergic Rhinitis Trmnt

Intranasal Anti-Muscarinic

A

Ipratropium
- MOA: inhibits serous & serous gland secretions
- not regularly used

for severe cases

51
Q

Allergic Rhinitis Trmnt

Anti-Tussives (OTC)

A

Dextromethorphan (Delsym)
- MOA: interuppts cough impulse in the medulla
- not for kids <4 yr old

better for URI (expectorants for LRI)
for post nasal drip

52
Q

Allergic Rhinitis Trmnt

Anti-Tussives (Rx)

A

Benzonatatate (Tessalon)
- MOA: topical anesthetic on respiratory stretch receptors
- Not for kids < 10 yo

53
Q

Allergic Rhinitis Trmnt

Anti-Tussives Rx Only

list

A
  • Benzonatate (tessalon)
  • Codeine (Cheratussin AC, Virtussin AC)
  • Hydrocodone (tussionex)
54
Q

MOA

Anti-Tussives - Codeine

Cheratussin AC, Virtussin AC

A
  • MOA: bind to opiod receptors in CNS and depresses cough center in medulla
  • not for kids < 12 yo
  • controlled substance

wont be on test

55
Q

Rx Anti-tussive for allergic rhinitis that is not a controlled substance

A

Benzonatate (Tessalon)

56
Q

What

bil eyes are itching, tearing, watery discharge

type ____ rxn

A

Allergic Conjunctivitis

type I rxn

57
Q

what type of antihistamines for allergic conjunctivitis

topical trmnt

A

H1RB
Pheniramine/naphazoline (Naphon-A, Visine - A)
- MOA: blocks anthistamine receptors in conjunctiva and eyelids
- Decongestant: vasoconstriction and decreased conjunctival edema

58
Q

Allergic conjunctivitis

avoid H1RB in pts with ___

A

narrow angle glaucoma (vasoconstrictor component)

59
Q

Antihistamines with Mast Cell-stabilizers end in _____

A

“-dine or - tine”
* Olopatadine (Patanol, Pataday, Pazeo)
* Alcaftadine (Lastacaft)
* Azelastine (Optivar)
* Epinastine (Elestat)
* Ketotifen (Ketotifen, Zaditor)

60
Q

OTC Mast-Cell Stabilizer

A

Ketotifen

61
Q

Mast Cell Stabilizers (w/o antihistamines) have ___ in their name

A

“crom”
* Cromolyn sodium (Opticrom)
* Nedocromil (Alocril)
* Iodoxamide tromethamine (Alomide)
* Mechanism of Action: previously discussed
* Full efficacy in 5-14 days
* Four times daily dosing

62
Q

Topical Glucocorticoids have ___ in their name

A

“pred” or “-olone”
* Loteprednol (Lotemax)
* Rimexolone (Vexol)
* Prednisolone (Pred Mild)
* Fluorometholone (FML)

63
Q

Topical Glucocorticoids MOA & caution

A

MOA: suppress late-phase reaction of allergic inflammation
Caution: cataract, elevated intaocular pressure -> glaucoma

last resort option

64
Q

Pink eye

____ Conjunctivitis = watery discharge

A

Viral

65
Q

____ Conjunctivitis = purulent discharge

A

Bacterial

66
Q

Bacterial Conjunctivitis Trmnt options

A
  • Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment
  • Trimethoprim-polymyxin B (Polytrim) ophthalmic drops
  • Bacitracin-polymyxin B ophthalmic ointment
  • Ofloxacin (Ocuflox) ophthalmic drops
  • Ciprofloxacin (Ciloxan) ophthalmic drops
  • Azithromycin (Azasite) ophthalmic drops
67
Q

Contact lens wearers with pink eye should be Rx

A

Fluoroquinolone drops (ciprofloxacin and ofloxacin)

68
Q

Causes of dry eye

A

decreased tear production or increased evaporative loss

69
Q

Dry eye Rxs

A

Cyclosporine emulsion (restasis)
- calcineurin inhibitor; immunosuppressant agent

Lifitegrast (Xiidra)
- integrin antagonist

70
Q

2nd most common cause of blindness in US

A

glaucoma

71
Q

Primary, closed, narrow angle glaucoma

A

Outflow issue

Anterior chamber angle is reduced and limits aqueous humor outflow
- medical emergency

72
Q

Open-angle, secondary glaucoma

A

Increased production of aqueous humor or degenerative change in the outflow system

73
Q

Glaucoma Trmnts

A

-#1 topical prostaglandiin agonists
- #2 or 1 Beta-adrenergic antagonists (beta blockers)
- Alpha-2 Adrenergic Agonists
- Miotics
- Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors
- Netarsudil (Rhopressa)

74
Q

Topical Prostaglandin Agonists

A

Latanaprost (Xalatan), bimatoprost (Lumigan), travoprost (Travatan), unoprostone (Rescula)
- once daily dosing
- side effects: discoloration of iris (permanent), eyelash changes

glaucoma

75
Q

Beta-adrenergic agonists (topical beta blockers)

A

Betaxolol (betoptic), Carteolol (ocupress)
- decrease intraocular pressure 22%
- MOA: decreases aqueous humor production by interfering with cAMP
- Contraindications: cardiac/pulm disease

glaucoma

76
Q

Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists

A

Apraclonidine (iopidine), dipivefrin (propine), brimonidine (alphagan)
- MOA: decrease prod of aqueous humor and increase its outlfow. mimics epi and dilates iris muscle to decrease congestion of blood vessels in conjunctiva

glaucoma

77
Q

examples, MOA, caution

Miotics

A

Carbachol (isopto carbachol), pilocarpine (isopto carpine)
MOA: increase outlfow of aqueous humor -> decreases IOP
Caution: Hx of retinal detachment or corneal abrasion

contracts muscles

78
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors

A

Topical: brinzolamide (Azopt), dorzolamide (Trusopt)
Oral: acetazolamide (Diamox)
- MOA: feedback mech leads to decreased production of aqueous humor and decrease in IOP
- Caution: Sulfa Allx

glaucoma

79
Q

Netardsudil (Rhopressa)

A

MOA: rho kinase inhibitor; increase outflow of aqueous humor
- add-on to prostaglandin antagonist therapy

glaucoma

80
Q

Brimonidine + timolol = ____
Brimonidine + brinzolamide = ______
Dorzolamide + timolol = _____

A
81
Q

Meds that increase intraocular pressure and shouldnt be given to pts with glaucoma

A
  • antihistamines
  • anticholinergics (oxybutynin, tolterodine, benztropine)
  • chronic corticosteroids (especially eye drops, prednisolone)
82
Q

1st line trmnt for otitis externa

A

Cleaning the ear canal

83
Q

Topical therapy options for otitis externa (mild, mod, severe)

A

Mild: acidifying agent + glucocorticoid
Mod: ABX + glucocorticoid
Severe: ABX + glucocorticoid +/- wick +/- systemic ABX

84
Q

Ear fullness + hearing loss

A

Cerumen impaction

85
Q

Cerumen impaction trmnt

A

Ceruminolytics to soften and remove
- Carbamide peroxide (debrox) 4 days max
- Triethanolamine 10% (cerumenex)

86
Q

1st line trmnt for otitis media (and dosing) for an adult with no recent beta-lactam therapy, hx of recurrent AOM, or conjunctivitis

A

Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin)
(90mg/kg/day of amoxicillin and 6.4mg/kg/day clavulanate divided twice daily

87
Q

1st line trmnt for otitis media (and dosing) for a child with no recent beta-lactam therapy, hx of recurrent AOM, or conjunctivitis

A

Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
90mg/kg/day divided twice daily

88
Q

1st line trmnt for otitis media (and dosing) for a pt with recurrent AOM unresponsive to amoxicillin

A

Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin)
(90mg/kg/day of amoxicillin and 6.4mg/kg/day clavulanate divided twice daily

89
Q

Other otitis media trmnt options

A
90
Q

Glaucoma trmnt opt if only one eye has increased pressure

A

Beta-adrenergic agonists (beta-blockers)

Betaxolol (Betoptic), carteolol (Ocupress), levobunolol (Betagan), timolol (Timoptic)

91
Q

1st line trmnt for otitis media (and dosing) for an adult with no recent beta-lactam therapy, hx of recurrent AOM, or conjunctivitis

A

Pharmacology (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions