Hematology Flashcards
(405 cards)
1
Q
At what temperature is PT best performed?
A
37°C
2
Q
Identify what RBC anomaly:
Red cells that look like shooting targets with a central bullseye and a darker outer edge.
A
Codocytes/Target cells
3
Q
Maturational sequence of thrombocyte:
A
Megakaryoblast - Promegakaryocyte - Megakaryocyte - Thrombocyte
4
Q
Associated with abetalipopreteinemia
A
Acanthocytes
5
Q
Thrombin is what factor
A
Factor IIa
6
Q
Factor II
A
Prothrombin, Prethrombin, Thrombogen
7
Q
Factor I
A
Fibrinogen, Thrombin substrate
8
Q
Factor VII
A
Stable factor, Proconvertin, Autoprothrombin I, Serum Prothrombin Conversion Accelerator
9
Q
Factor X
A
Stuart-prower factor, Autoprothrombin III
10
Q
FDP is measured using
A
D-dimer
11
Q
D-dimer test could be used to diagnose:
A
DIC, DVC, Pulmonary embolism
12
Q
When should you remove the tourniquet?
A
Not more than 1 minute
13
Q
The tourniquet should be ____ inches or ____ cm above the puncture site.
A
3-4 inches; 8-10 cm
14
Q
In what organ does platelet sequestration occur?
A
spleen
15
Q
___ of total population of platelets are sequestered in the spleen
A
1/3
16
Q
Size of the spleen is ____ to the number of platelets, and ____ to platelet count.
A
directly proportional; inversely proportional
17
Q
Red marrow exists in all of the following, except:
A
Distal ends of long bones
18
Q
Red marrow to yellow marrow ratio
A
1:1; 50:50
19
Q
Yellow marrow is composed of ____, _______, & _______
A
Adipocytes, mesenchymal, macrophages
20
Q
What happens when the medtech uses a needle with a larger bore than required?
A
Hematoma formation
21
Q
Common gauge of needle in Adults
A
g21
22
Q
Major production of EPO occurs in:
A
Kidneys
23
Q
Production of platelets:
A
Thrombopoiesis
could also be thrombocytopoiesis
24
Q
A child accidentally ingested rat poison. which of the ff tests should be performed to test the effect of the poison on the child’s coagulation mechanism?
A
PT
Note: rat poison: coumadin: warfarin-like
25
How will you differentiate Leukemoid reaction from CML?
LAP (Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase) score
26
LAP score method of counting
Kaplow count
27
What is being described?
Count 100 neutrophils and rate 0-4 depending on its staining; differentiate as CML (Low activity) or Leukemoid reaction (High activity)
LAP score
28
Microscopic method for sickle cells
Sodium Metabisulfite
29
Positive reaction for sodium metabisulfite
sickling
30
Positive reaction for sodium dithonite
Turbidity: black lines
31
Both myeloid and monocytic cells are present to the extent of at least 20% of the total leukocytes:
M4
32
Normal value of APTT
25-35 seconds; < or = 32
33
A clot retraction test is
A reflection of the quantity and quality of platelets and other factors
34
Pelger-Huet Anomaly: Bilobed or Hyposegmented?
Both
If no both answer Bilobed
35
Identify the Plasmodium Species:
Gametocytes are crescent, banana or sausage shaped. The chromatin is in a single mass (macrogamete) or diffuse (microgamete).
P. falciparum
36
P. falciparum causes ____ malaria
severe
37
What Plasmodium species:
Causes relapsing fever; resides in the liver
vivax
38
What Plasmodium species:
Only affects young RBCs
P. vivax & P. ovale
39
What Plasmodium species:
Only affects old or mature RBCs
P. malariae
40
What Plasmodium species:
- Affects all types of RBCs.
Invades other organs
- Invade other organs
- cerebral malaria
- black urine
P. falciparum
41
Test for PNH
Sucrose Hemolysis
42
Sugar water screening test indicates ___% lysis to be considered as PNH
5
43
Confirmatory tests for PNH
Sucrose hemolysis & Acid serum test
44
Other name for Acid serum test
Ham's acidified test
45
Ham's acidified Test
pH:
Temperature & time:
Sample:
pH: 6.5
Temperature & time : 37 for 1 hour
Sample: Whole blood difribinated
46
Gold standard for PNH
Flow cytometry (FLAER)
47
Test for Intrinsic and Common factors
APTT
48
Test for Extrinsic and common factors
PT
49
What factor deficiency?
- (+) bleeding
- (N) other parameters
Factor XIII deficiency
50
Test for factor XIII deficiency
Duckert's test
51
Red marrow to yellow marrow
retrogression
52
Sites of active marrow in adults
Ribs
Skull, sternum
Vertebrae
Proximal portion of long bones & Pelvis
53
Specific site for EPO production in adults
Renal cortex peritubular cells
54
Major site for EPO production in fetus
liver
55
Aside from the kidneys, EPO can also be made by the ___, ____, ____, _____
spleen, liver, bone marrow, lungs, & brain
56
Regulates EPO
PO2
57
Solution for PCV
Therapeutic phlebotomy
58
Difference between primary and secondary PCV
1° = dec to normal EPO
2° = Increased EPO
59
A single megakaryocyte could form ____ to ___ platelets
2000 to 4000 platelets
60
10 fold increase of platelets
Immune thrombocytopenic pupura
61
Average size human: 10^8 megakaryocytes producing 10^11 platelets per day and a total turnover rate of __ to __ days.
8 to 9
62
___ drug inhibits Vitamin K epoxide reductase complex
warfarin
63
Vitamin K dependent factors and prothrombin group
9, 10, 7, 2
64
Prothrombin group is not consumed during clot formation except factor __
Factor 2
65
Contact group.
* Not consumed in clot formation
HK, PK, XII, XI
66
Fibrinogen group
1, 5, 8, 13
67
Sample for Sodium metabisulfite
Fresh blood
68
Reagents for Sodium metabisulfite test
0.2 g of SM in 10 mL of distilled water
69
FAB classification of AML > or = __% blasts
20%
70
Automated specimen and reagent volume:
APTT:
PT:
APTT: 0.2 mL plasma & 0.2 mLCaCl2
PT: 0.1 mL plasma & 0.2 thromboplastin reagent
71
Alder-reilly anomally
Abnormal granulation of metachromatic granules in WBC
72
Test for platelet quality
Bleeding time
73
If a pediatric preoperative patient has a family history of bleeding but has never had a bleeding episode herself, what test should be included in a coagulation profile in addition to the PT, APTT, and platelet count?
Bleeding time
74
If a blood smear is too long, the problem can be resolved by:
Increasing the angle of the pusher slide
75
Most common factor deficiency
Hemophilia A or factor 8 deficiency
76
Factor V
Labile factor, Accelerator Globulin (Ac globulin), Proaccelerin
77
In megaloblastic anemia, the typical erythrocytic indices are:
MCV inc, MCH inc, and MCHC normal
78
MCV of < 80 fL causes what anemias?
TAILS (Microcytic anemia)
79
What anticoagulant should be used in cases of platelet satellitism?
Citrate
80
Citrate to blood ratio
1:4
81
Correction factor for platelet satellitism
1.1
82
Example of closed wound
hematoma
83
Accumulation of blood in the tissue
Hematoma
84
Petechia: __ mm
1-3 mm
85
Purpura: __ mm
> or = 3 mm
86
Ecchymosis __cm
> or = 1 to 2 cm
87
What is abnormal in dysfribinogenemia?
a. PT
b. APTT
c. TT
d. Fibrinogen level
a, b, c
88
First step in cleanup when a blood specimen is spilled on a laboratory bench or floor area?
Absorb blood with disposable towels
89
As a blood cell matures, the N:C ratio:
decreases
90
Normal range for reticulocytes in adults:
0.5 to 1.5%
91
The average diameter of a normal erythrocyte:
7.2 um
92
Increased amounts of 2,3 DPG___ the O2 affinity of the Hb molecule.
Decreases
93
Variation in size
anisocytosis
94
variation in shape
poikilocytosis
95
Stages of neutrophilic granulocyte development
Myeloblast
promyelocyte
myelocyte
metamyelocyte
band & segmented neutrophil
96
On the basis of the ff data, calculate the absolute value of the segmented neutrophils. Total leukocyte count = 12X10^9; percentage of segmented neutrophils on the differential count = 80%. the absolute segmented neutrophil value is:
9.6x10^9L
Solution: 12x0.8
97
Niemann Pick Cells are what type of cells?
Macrophage
98
Low 2,3 DPG, H+, PCO2, T
Love O2
Shift to the Left
99
Rise in 2,3 DPG, H+, PCO2, T
Reject O2
Shift to the Right
100
Deficiency in B-glucocerobroside
Gaucher's disease
101
Appearance of lysosomes are onion skin or crumpled paper
Gaucher's disease
102
Gargoylism
Hunter's syndrome
103
Foamy cells
Neimann-Pick disease
104
Beta-Hexosaminadase A deficiency
Tay-Sach's diseas
105
A patient with a severe decrease in Factor X activity would demonstrate normal:
TT and BT
TT - fibrinogen
BT - Platelet function
106
Th function of thromboplastin in PT test is to provide _____ to the assay:
Phospholipoprotein
107
Which of the following parameters can be abnormal in classic vWD type 1?
BT (best answer)
PT (would be N° or Decreased)
108
Which parameters are calculated rather than directly measured?
a. HCT & RDW
b. RBC & WBC count
c. WBC count & HCT
d. Platelet count and PCV
A
109
What source of of error will have greatest effect on PCV (hematocrit)
a. Incorrect dilution of blood & diluent
b. Hemolysis of whole blood specimen
c. excessive anticoagulant will produce shrinkage of cells
C
110
Excess anticoagulant may cause ___ in HCT
False decrease
111
Insufficient centrifugation will cause ____ in HCT
False increase
112
Major application of flow cell cytometry:
a. determining cell size and granularity
b. sorting of cells and cellular identification using monoclonal Abs
c. treating cancer cells and identifying specific virus types
d. Counting leukocytes and platelets
B
113
Determines cell size and granularity
scatterplot
114
Passage of the cell in a single file in front of a LASER
Flow cell cytometry
115
In an erythrocyte histogram, the erythrocytes that are larger than normal will be the ___ of the normal distribution curve.
Right
116
Test most affected when there is excess anticoagulant:
a. RBC count
b. HGB
c. HCT
d. ESR
C
117
Poikilocyte with membrane folded over:
HGB C
118
Azurophilic granules are produced in what stage?
a. promyelocyte
b. myelocyte
c. metamyelocyte
d. band
A
119
Product of CLP
a. Megakaryocyte
b. T lymphocyte
c. HCT
d. granulocyte
T lymphocyte
120
Which of the ff morphologic changes occurs during normal blood cell maturation?
a. Inc. in cell diameter
b. development of cytoplasm basophilia
c. condensation of nuclear chromatin
d. appearance of nucleoli
C
121
An acquired platelet disorder:
a. Facto V deficiency
b. vWD
c. BSS
d. Uremia
D
122
Increased BUN and Crea
Normal PT and APTT
Increased BT
Uremia
123
Source of light in AccuVein
Near Infrared
124
Patient has normal PT, PTT, and TT
Factor XIII deficiency
125
Which organ is not hematopietic?
Kidneys
126
Hematopoietic organs include:
BM, Liver, & yolksac
127
RDW and MCV are quantitative description of red cells. if both of these are increased, ___ is possible.
a. megaloblastic anemia
b. acute aplastic anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. NOTA
A
128
Scatterplot cell population:
- Forward plot:
cell size or diameter
129
Scatterplot cell population:
- Side scatter:
cell granularity & cell complexity
130
Electronic impedance:
(+) resistance of electric charge = larger pulse of cell population
131
Fibrous tissue sources:
Fibroblast seen in connective tissues
132
APTT normal value for people under therapy:
1.5 - 2.5X
133
Snake bite
DIC
134
RBC size
6-8 um
135
Slide smear spread angle
< 30 - 45°
136
Macrocytes effect to ESR
Increased
137
Too much acids in slide preparation:
reddish cells
138
Coumadin
Vitamin K inhibitor
_ also affects protein C and protein S
139
What is deficient in Howell jolly bodies:
Bitamin B12 & Vitamin B9
140
Which of the ff is not STORED by the liver?
a. Vit A
b. Vit D
c. Vit C
d. Vit K
C
- vitamin C is excreted
141
ESR is increased. what is the cause of the increase with WBC as the basis?
Leukemia
142
Hyperfibrinogenemia _____ESR:
Increased
143
Which drug can cause AIHA:
Methyldopa
144
ESR is decreased. What is the cause of the decrease with WBC as the basis?
Leukocytosis
145
Precursor of Kallikrein
Prekallikrein, Fletcher factor
146
Aplastic anemia antibiotic:
Chloramphenicol
147
Normal newborn hemoglobin:
16.5 g/dL
148
Normal Hemoglobin in adults:
12-15 g/dL
149
Hemoglobin value as basis for blood bank transfusion:
< 7g/dL
150
Hemglobin value as basis for blood bank transfusion in patients with heart failure:
< 10 g /dL
151
Monocyte cytoplasm color with wright stain
Bluish gray
152
A small hemorrhagic spot but larger than petechiae characterized by a rounded or irregular blue or purplish patch; also known as bruise and is found in skin and mucus membrane.
Echymosis
153
Lymphocyte cytoplasm color in Wright stain
pale blue
154
RBCs color in Wright stain
Salmon Pink
155
Acute leukemia type of anemia
Normocytic, normochromic
156
> 11x10^9 WBCs
Leukocytosis
157
Tertiary granules appear during what stages?
Metamyelocyte/Band
158
It is referred to as gamma heavy chain disease
Franklin's disease, Frank anemia
159
Serine proteases
2, 7, 9, 10, 11, 12, PK
160
Cofactors
3, 5, 8, HMWK
161
Intrinsic factors
8, 9, 11, 12
162
Extrinsic factors
3, 7
163
Intrinsic factors
8, 9, 11, 12, PK, HMWK
164
Common pathway factors
1, 2, 5, 10
165
Fresh plasma
No 3 & 4
166
Aged plasma
No 5 & 8
167
Aged serum
No 1, 2, 5, 8, &13
168
Adsorbed plasma
No 2, 7, 9, & 10
169
Factor 5 deficiency
Parahemophilia
170
Giant Platelet syndrome
BSS
171
Drabkin's reagent wavelength
540 nm
172
Carboxyhemoglobin wavelength and color
576 nm
cherry red color
173
Sulfhemoglobin wavelength and color
618 nm
Mauve lavender
174
Methemoglobin wavelength and color
630 nm
chocolate brown
175
Capillary tube length and bore:
7 to 7.5 cm (70 to 75 mm) long, 1 mm bore (1.2 mm)
176
Wintrobe tube
11.5 cm lng, 3 mm bore
177
Westergren tube
30 cm long, 2.5 mm bore
178
The maintenance of high intracellular potassium level is governed by the ____.
sodium-Potassium pump
179
Cyclooxygenase is inhibited by:
Aspirin, specifically NSAID
180
Last stage in RBC series capable of mitosis:
Rubricyte, 3rd stage
181
Last stage in WBC series capable of mitosis:
Myelocyte
182
Last nucleated stage (RBCs)
Metarubricyte, Orthochromatophilic erythrocyte
183
What is the solid tumor counterpart of stem cell leukemia?
Undifferentiated lymphoma
184
Erythrocyte morphology abnormality: marked
4+
185
BD transfer needle
18
186
An RES component that removes RBC inclusions without lysing it.
Spleen
187
M3 usually manifests this coag problem
DIC
188
pediatric needle gauge
23
189
Autosplenectomy is common in
sickle cell anemia
190
Computation:
corrected Reticulocyte count:
(% retic count x HCT)/45
191
Computation:
corrected WBC count:
(uncorrected WBC count x 100)/(100+NRBCs per 100 WBCs)
192
Function of eosinophil storage vesicles
carry protein from secondary granules to be release to the ECF
193
Clotting factor with "Fitzgerald factor" as another name
HMWK
194
Result of fibrinogen deficiency in clot test/coagulation studies
Increased PT, APTT
Normal TT
Decreased Fibrinogen
195
Fibrin clot electromechanical method
Fibrometers
196
Carboxyhgb and Methgb
Incapable for O2 transport
197
Helmet cells with horn-like projections
Keratocytes
198
Calculate the MCHC
(Hgbx100)/HCT
unit %
199
Characteristic RBC in Primary myelofibrosis
Dacrayocytes
200
What is the primary inhibitor of fibrinolytic system?
A2-antiplasmin
201
SCD anemia
normocytic, normochromic
202
What is the major leukocyte in aplastic anemia? BM?
Lymhocytes
203
Result of facto X deficiency in clote test/coagulation studies?
Increased PT, APTT,
Normal TT
204
Embryonic hemoglobins
Gower I
Gower II
Portland I
205
Miller disk is utilized for
reticulocytes
206
nRBCs are counted in
WBC chambers
207
smallest platelets
Wiskot-Aldrich syndrome
208
Blood cell disorder with a low platelet count and cytoplasmic inclusions with granules that look like dohle bodies
May Hegglin Anomaly
209
CML negative for philadelphia chromosome
Poor prognosis
210
Better prognosis
AML
211
TRAP (Tartrate Resistant Acid Phosphatase) hallmark
Hairy Cell Leukemia
212
Not affected by falsely elevated HCT
MCH
213
A cell seen normally in the peripheral blood and is considered as the youngest type regularly seen in smears
band cells
214
Nucleated RBCs seen in smears is
accelerated RBC production
215
A black line is used for this Hgb S
Sodium dithionate test
216
Cell count
(Cell count x DF)/(Area x depth)
217
Preferred anticoagulant for ESR
EDTA/ Na citrate (Black)
218
Not stained by Sudan Black B
Lymphocytes
219
G6PD deficiency is characterized by
Bite cells/Heinz bodies
220
The only unmeasured hemoglobin in Cyanmeth.
Sulfhemoglobin
221
Primary or nonspecific granules truly appear on this stage:
Promyelocyte
222
vasoconstriction is under:
Primary hemostasis
223
Length of slide covered in PBS
2/3; 3/4
224
Shift to the left includes:
Immature cells
225
It shows a problem in platelet adhesion due to mutations to platelet GP IB or GP IX
BSS
226
PPE required in strict isolation
Gown, mask, gloves
227
Smudge cells, soccer-ball, clover leaf (reider cells)
CLL
228
Smudge cells in ISBB could be due to
too much force when spreading
- add albumin
229
Rule of 3
Only applicable for normocytic normochromic results
230
Rule of 3 formula
RBC x 3 = HGB +/- 0.5
HGB x 3 = HCT +/- 3
231
WBC with bilobed nucleus and large granules that does not obstruct the nucleus.
Pelger-Huet
232
Target INR/recommended INR range for treatment of deep venous thrombosis.
2-3, warfarin therapy
233
INR of people with mechanical heart valve
2.5-3.5
234
A cutaneous T cell lymphoma characterized by peripheral lymphadenopathy, exfoliative erythroderma.
Sezary syndrome
235
First RBC stage that becomes vividly pink (cytoplasm)
Polychromatophilic or Rubricyte
236
_____ is characterized by macrophages with starry sky pattern under low power seen with numerous apoptotic debris
Burkitt's lymphoma
237
Condition with thin flattened and concave fingernails; seen in IDA
Koilonychial
symptom: Pica
238
Factor deficiency in Ashkenazi jews
Rosenthal syndrome, factor XI deficiency
239
Pattern in Rosenthal:
Type of bleeding:
Factor deficiencies that may show such pattern:
Pattern in Rosenthal: Increased APTT, Normal PT and TT
Type of bleeding: mild bleeding
Factor deficiencies that may show such pattern: 7 & 9
240
Hemoglobinopathy versus thalassemia:
Hemo: qualitative problem
Thal: quantitative problem
241
Platelet phospholipids (APAS) are inhibited by:
Lupus AC
242
Megaloblastic anemia description
Macrocytic chromic
243
CALLA marker
CD10
244
Tube for microhematocrit
7 cm, 1 mm/ 1-2 mm
245
Found in infections, poisoning, burns, and chemotherapy and are decribed as RER with RNA with localized cytoplasmic maturation.
Dohle bodies
246
Aka stress platelets
Reticulated platelets
> 12-14 platelets
247
what parameter can't differentiate IDa from ACD?
TSAT decreased
248
Provides a cytoskeleton to maintain platelet shape and a contractile system
Sol-gel zone
249
Sol-gel zone maintains platelet shape through____
microtubules, actomyosin
250
Flow cytometry includes:
a. electronics
b. fluidics
c. optics
d. computer
a, b, c, & d
251
Not a normal embryonic hemoglobin
Portland 2
252
WBC correction is necessary because
False increase
253
A thin, flat cell with hemoglobin at periphery and increased central pallor showing a characteristic hypochromic cell
Ellipytocyte, pencil, cigar-shaped
254
Patient's battery of Test
Lipid Profile
Liver Profile
CBC
PT & APTT
What is the correct order of draw?
Light blue
Red
Lavender
255
Nodular lymphocyte-predominant hodgkin cell
Popcorn cell
256
Adult population neutrophil differential count range.
40-70%
257
A second x chromosome seen in females
Barr bodies/ drumstick bodies
258
Lab findings in Anemia of chronic disease
Decreased TIBC, serum iron, and TSAT
259
If RBCs are excessively lysed, a ___ is possible.
Negative instrumental error
260
Needle length in routine phlebotomy
1-1.5 inches
261
Coarse azurophilic MPS granules are seen in all leukocytes and more commonly in myelocytic series.
Alder-Rey anomaly
262
A cell that is enucleated 1/ central pallor
discocytes
263
This method is a key way of initial classification and a reliable assessment or measure of effective RBC production.
RPI
264
What is the usual marker for hematopoietic stem cells?
CD34
265
Normal variants of hemoglobin
A1, A2, F
266
A patient with PCV will have a ____ RP and APTT
Falsely increased
267
Macrohematocrit: Centrifuge at 2000 to 2300 g for ___ minutes
Microhematocrit: centrifuge at 10,000 to 15,000 g for __ minutes
Macrohematocrit: Centrifuge at 2000 to 2300 g for 30 minutes
Microhematocrit: centrifuge at 10,000 to 15,000 g for 5 minutes
268
NK cell CD markers
CD16/CD56
269
A normal (wedge) blood smear should demonstrate approximately _____ cells (platelets) per 100x field.
7 to 21
270
Platelet estimate formula:
(Ave. no of platelets X total RBC count)/200 RBCs per field
271
Platelet estimate reporting:
0 to 49,000/uL:
50,000 to 99,000/uL:
100,000 to 149,000/uL:
150,000 to 199,000/uL:
200,000 to 400,000/uL:
401,000 to 599,000/uL:
600,000 to 800,000/uL:
Above 800,000/uL:
0 to 49,000/uL: Marked decrease
50,000 to 99,000/uL: Moderate decrease
100,000 to 149,000/uL: slight decrease
150,000 to 199,000/uL: Low normal
200,000 to 400,000/uL: Normal
401,000 to 599,000/uL: slight increase
600,000 to 800,000/uL: Moderate Increase
Above 800,000/uL: Marked increase
272
Sezary cells are present in ____, _____, & ____.
Skin, lymphnodes, Peripheral blood
273
ALP is part o the neutrophil's _____
Secretory granules
274
Next test for normocytic anemia:
a. Indices
b. Hemoglobin
c. absolute reticulocyte count
a, b, c
275
60% leukocytes is normal in ______.
Children (6M - 2 yrs old)
276
A surgical connection between two structures, it usually means a connection that is created between tubular structures, such as blood vessels or loops of intestines.
Anastomosis
277
Fibrinolysis screening test
Euglobin clot lysis
278
Duration of myelocyte to metamyelocyte
4.3 days
279
Disease of connective tissue and coagulation factor deficiency
vWF disease
280
Source of energy for platelets
Glucose
281
This reagent converts methemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin
Potassium cyanide
282
Normal template bleeding time range
6-10 minutes
283
Expected ESR in Poikilocytosis
decreased
284
Most common complication of venipuncture; leakage of small amount of blood.
bruising
285
Histologic presence is definitive of hodgkin's
Reed-Sterberg
286
Hematocrit layers
First:
Second:
Third:
Bottom:
First: Fatty Layer
Second: Plasma
Third: Buffy coat
Bottom: Packed cells
Sealing clay
287
Nucleated RBCs and schistocytes are seen in:
Microangiopathic Hemolytic Leukemia
288
Parameters for MCV computation
HCT and RBC count
289
what factor is transglutaminase
factor XIII
290
MCV and RDW are from:
MPV and PDW are from:
MCV and RDW are from: RBC histogram
MPV and PDW are from: platelet histogram
291
Increased EDTA will lead to __ ESR and __ HCT.
Increased EDTA will lead to DECREASED ESR and DECREASED HCT.
292
Fibrinogen level in hemophilia A, B, & C
Normal
293
why use only 1 inch needle?
Better control, Less frightening, Less intimidating
294
A patient with BJ proteins and multiple myeloma show this characteristic in a peripheral smear:
Myelocyte
295
Specific or secondary granules appear on this stage:
Myelocyte
296
Erythropoietin actions:
1. stop apoptosis
2. Early cell release
3. Reduce maturation
297
COAG-A-MATE, electra and Ortho-Koagulab are
Photo optical mid
298
The platelet glycocalyx is known as ____.
outer surface of platelets
298
Factor XI deficiency
Rosenthal syndrome
299
False elevation in ESR could be due to
Increased in temperature
300
In Sulfhemoglobinemia, blood is colored
Mauve lavender
301
The very first cell produced he developing embryo
RBC on the1th day of gestation
302
Corrections for WBC
A: >5, Neonates: >10
303
What is extramedullary hematopoiesis?
Blood production outside the BM
304
These are needle-shaped or round inclusions in the cytoplasm of myoblasts and promyelocyte; described to be composed of condensed primary granules.
Auer rods
305
5th month gestation major hematopoietic site
liver
306
This is a neutrophilic protein seen in secondary granules with a function of binding iron.
Lactoferrin
307
Also known as the labile factor
Factor 5, Proacelerin
308
Recommendation for counting band cells
Segmenters
309
Factor VII and XI are activated by _____.
Cold temeprature
310
Flower cells are seen in _____.
Adult T Cell Leukemia
311
In smear preparation, a drop of blood must be __cm from the edge of the slide.
1 cm
312
IDA anemia
Microcytic, hypochromic
313
Clot retraction is possible due to_____.
thrombasthenin
314
What age group has the predominance of red bone marrow in the bones?
early childhood
315
This is characterized by mutations to platelet GP IIB or IIIA resulting into a defect of fibrinogen-dependent platelet aggregation.
Glanzmann thrombasthenia
316
RPI formula:
((retics % X (HCT/0.45))/maturation time)
317
In adults, these 2 sites are the best sites for bone marrow collection.
Sternum or Posterior Iliac crest
318
Initial sickle cell hemolysis in OFT begins at __NaCl concentration
0.30%
319
Factor for platelet estimate in patients with normal RBC count
20,000
320
When blood escapes on the small skin and MM areas, It is referred to as ____.
Purpura
321
Hemolytic anemia, Acute blood loss, aplastic anemia
Normocytic, normochromic
322
Factor III
Tissue factor, Thrombokinase, Tissue thromboplastin
323
Factor IV
Calcium, Mineral factor
324
Factor VIII
AHF-A, AHG, Platelet cofactor I
325
Factor IX
Christmas factor, AHF-B, Plasma thromboplastin component, platelet cofactor II
326
Factor XI
AHF-C, Plasma thromboplastin antecedent
327
Factor XII
Hageman factor, Glass factor, Contact factor
328
Factor XIII
Fibrin stabilizing factor
Fibrinoligase
Fibrinase
Laki-Lorand factor
Plasma transglutaminase/Transamidase
329
Pre-Kalikrein
Fletcher factor
330
High Molecular Weight Kininogen
Contact Activation factor
Reid factor
Williams factor
Flajeauc factor
Fitzgerald factor
331
Preferred adult site for BM collection?
Illiac crest
332
Flame cells
IgA myeloma
333
The mechanism about oxygenation status that communicates or relays information to erythropietin producing sites is found in the _______.
Kidneys
334
Grease or dirt in the slide may lead to _____ in smears.
Holes
335
Complete hemolysis in SCA is seen in _____% NaCl.
0.20%
Normal: 0.3%
HS: 0.45%
336
Cause of menorrhagia (excessive menstrual bleeding)
vWF
337
Side light scatter
cell granularity
338
Forward light scatter
cell size
339
The bleeding time measures:
a. Ability of platelets to stick together
b. Antibodies against platelets
C. Platelet adhesion and aggregation
d. Quality and quantity of platelets
C
340
If globin synthesis is insufficient in a patient, iron acummulates in the cell at _____ aggregates.
Ferritin
341
Proper way if mixing anticoagulant
gentle inversion
342
Used in measuring platelet aggregation
ADP
collagen
thrombin
ristocitin
343
All are correct about SOP except
It should follow the CMP
344
Which of the ff flow cytometry methods is the most appropriate in diagnosing and classifying chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
Immunophenotyping
345
Flow cytometry principle that diagnose and... CLL15-20
Immunophenotyping
346
Which describes a combined scatter, it measures
cell size and granularity
347
A typical therapeutic range of APTT in seconds
15-20
348
The rbc stains more red than its usual color, neutrophil is barely visible, eosinophil is bright orange
the stain is too acidic
349
What is the meaning of calibration
Value is compared to a known physical value
350
Which of the ff cells can further differentiate in the tissues?
Monocytes
351
Which is abnormal in Von Willebrand's disease type 1
Bleeding time
352
Specific fragment release upon degradation of cross-linking fibrin
D-dimer
353
What is thrombin
Factor IIa
354
Which is deficient if the liver failed to produce the factors 2, 7, 9, 10
Vitamin K
355
What is the average size of an RBC?
7.2 um
356
TPO will induce megakaryocytes to
Differentiate and mature
357
What coagulation factors are affected in coumarin therapy?
2, 7, 9, 10
358
Which condition causes increased total leukocyte count?
a. TB
b. asthma
c. urticaria
d. Inflammation
D
359
Which of the ff is used to stain glycogen, polysaccharides, and glycoproteins
PAS
360
Lazy leukocyte syndrome
Neutrophil
361
Neimann pick disease
Monocytic-macrophage series
362
stain for reticulocytes
New Methylene blue
363
Hypochromic, macrocytes in blood film
IDA
364
Acceptable limits of a control value must fall
within +2 SD of the mean
365
Which characteristic is inaccurate with respect to the anticoagulant K3 EDTA?
a. Removes ionized Ca2+ from fresh whole blood by the process of chelation
b. Is used for most routine coagulation studies
c. Is the most commonly used anticoagulant in hematology
d. Is conventionally placed in lavender-stoppered evacuated tubes
B
366
What is the immature erythrocyte found in the bone marrow with the ff characteristics: 12 to 17 mm in diameter, N:C of 4:1, nucleoli not usually apparent, and basophilic cytoplasm?
Prorubricyte (Basophilic normoblast)
367
If an alkaline (pH 8.6) electrophoresis is performed, hemoglobin E has the same mobility as hemoglobin.
C
368
If you are grading changes in erythrocytic size or shape using a scale of 0 to 4+ and many erythrocytes deviate from the normal per microscopic field, the typical score would be
3+
369
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria exhibits sensitivity of one population of red blood cells to
complement
370
Which antibody test has replaced the LE cell preparation of red blood cells to
ANA test
371
An acute leukemia can be described as being
of short duration with many immature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood
372
The abbreviation LASER stands for
Light Amplified by Stimulated Emission Radiation
373
The delta check method of quality control
compares the patient's leukocyte and platelet counts with his or her previous results.
374
In the photo-optical method, the change in light transmission versus the___ is used to determine the activity of coagulation factors or stages.
time
375
If you are grading changes in erythrocytic size or shape using scale of 0 to 4+ and many erythrocytes deviate from normal per microscopic field, the typical score would be
3+
376
The final common pathway of the intrinsic-extrinsic pathway is
Factor X actiavtion
377
What is the appropriate procedure and characteristic for Westergren method?
The procedure measures the rate of erythrocyte settling
378
Two SDs from the mean in normal distribution curve would include
95% of all values
379
The bevel of the needle should be held ___ in the performance of a venipuncture.
Upward
380
A blue top tube is drawn for coagulation studies, the sample is a short draw result may be:
Falsely prolonged
381
Pappenheimer bodies
Iron deposits
382
Hereditary pyropikilocytosis (HP) is a red cwll membrane defect characterized by
Increased oval macrocytes
383
Absolute leukocyte count
(Total leukocytebcount x % lymphocyte count)/100
384
What clotting factors are inhibited by protein S
Va, VIIIa
385
Platelet aggregation will occur with the end production of
Thromboxane A2
386
Mouth like cells
stomatocytes
387
Hematopiloietic stem cells produce all lineages of blood cells in sufficient quantities over the lifetime of an individual because they
Have the ability of self renewal by asymmetric division
388
Automated analyzers can detect all of the ff except:
A. RBC fragments
B. Large platelets
C. Cold agglutinins
D. Platelet clumps
C
389
EDTA induced pseudothrombocytopenia
platelets adhere to WBCs
390
Thrombin time 18seconds, APTT 60 secs, PT 38 secs
Factor X deficiency
391
First automated hematology analyzer
Coulter
392
Where does TCA cycle occur
mitochondria
393
Hyperemia
blushing
394
True about semi-quantitative WBC analyzers
Can replace/substitue WBC count
395
Philadelphia chromosomes
Trans 9,22
396
How do platelets shed
Proplatelet process
397
Cause of stomatocytes
RH deficiency
398
Most predominant population of WBCs
Neutrophil
399
Endpoint of mechanical clot detection system
Fibrin attachment
400
Acanthocyte, stomatocyte, and codocyte pictures and clinical manifestations
abetalipoproteinemiaa
401
Schistocytes
fragmented cell
402
What is the first step to antithrombin assay
neutralize plasma ATIII
403
Substance release after platelet aggregation
thromboxane A2
404
40 year old woman.
PT 20 secs
APTT 50 secs
TT 18 secs
Factor 10 deficiency
