Heme/Onc Flashcards

1
Q

Common types of soft tissue masses in children

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma
The botryoid variant (sarcoma botryoides), arising within the wall of the bladder or vagina, is seen almost exclusively in infants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

By what age do patients with sickle cell disease usually have functional asplenia

A

5yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who is at risk of acute splenic sequestration crisis and when does it go away

A

HbSS, HbS beta thal (S Beta-0), HbSC, HbSB+

Goes away when spleen atrophies in HbSS and HbSb0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how much blood to transfuse in Sickle cell crisis

A

3-5 ml/kg aliquots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

low platelet, high mean platelet volume indicates

A

presence of autoantibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

risk of administering anti-D immunoglobulin (in the setting of giving in ITP)

A

worsen anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Differential diagnosis in child with anemia and thrombocytopenia

A

leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when to consider steroids in ITP

A

when leukemia is not on ddx, in older kids not at high risk of bleeding (because it takes a while to start working)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Causes of isolated neutropenia in infants (before 1yo)

A

Severe congenital neutropenia
Cyclic neutropenia (every 21d)

both are autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Treatment for febrile neutropenia other than antibiotics

A

G-CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

most common childhood cancer

A

ALL/AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When should you consider working up a child for leukemia?

A

unexplained fever, pain, pallor, fatigue, petechiae, bruising, and pathologic fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Specific tests for leukemia aside from CBC/BMP

A

LP
Flow cytometry
Boys: testicular exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Factors for good prognosis in ALL (Age, WBC, CSF)

A

Children < 10 and >1 yo
WBC: <50,000
CSF not involved

No testicular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ALL treatment

A

Boys longer tx than girls (risk of testicular mass)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Syndromes associated with increased risk of ALL

A

trisomy 21
Klinefelter sd
Fanconi anemia
Bloom sd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When is prednisone urgently needed in ALL

A

mediastinal involvement causing respiratory compromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hemophilia A is a deficiency in factor ___

A

VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most common congenital coagulation factor deficieny

A

hemophilia A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Female carriers of hemophilia A have symptoms of ___

A

menorrhagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Level of factor VIII and risk classification

A

mild 6-30%
Mod 1-5%
Severe <1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Triad of thrombocytopenia, eczema, and infections dx

A

wiskott-aldrich syndrome
X-linked disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How to diagnose HLH

A

an identified genetic mutation OR 5 of the following 8 criteria

  1. fever
  2. splenomegaly
  3. Cytopenia 2/3 blood cell lines
  4. Hypertriglyceridemia +/- hypofibrinogenemia
  5. Hemophagocytosis in spleen/bone marrow or lymph node without evidence of malignancy
  6. low or absent NK cell activity
  7. Elevated ferritin level
  8. elevated soluble CD25 (IL-2 receptor) level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Next steps after diagnosing HLH

A
  1. genetic testing for primary HLH
  2. Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy r/o malignancy and look for classic hemophagocytsis macrophage
  3. LP (see if intrathecal therapy is indicated(
  4. brain imaging to assess central nervous system disease
  5. eval of infectious cause of secondary HLH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia dx
low Hb, nucleated RBC high retic IgG + DAT
26
Tx of AIHA
steroids
27
vitamin k is essential for factors ____
II, VII, IX, X
28
When does vitamin K deficiency bleeding occur
newborn to 6 mo of age
29
What's the risk of severe VKDH and when does it happen
<1 week of age (early) an can involve intestinal or head bleed
30
In TLS, what are the levels of potassium, phos, and uric acid?
all high
31
where are craniopharyngiomas derived from?
pituitary embryonic tissue
32
Sequelae of tx of craniopharyngiomas
pan hypopituitarism risk of hypothalamic hyperphagia
33
Tx of cranipharyngioma
Resection and radiation if not fully resected
34
Risk of untreated brainstem glioma
herniation and resp failure
35
Child with severe neutropenia comes to the ED, next steps
cultures and IV abx
36
Neutropenia, is it innate or adaptive? What are you at risk of developing?
Innate fungal and bacterial
37
When to evaluate for immunodeficiencies (7)
1. >2 SYSTEMIC bacterial infections (sepsis, meningitis, osteomyelitis) 2. >2 serious respiratory infections (PNA) 3. Multiple bacterial infections (cellulitis, draining otitis media, lynphadenitis) 4. Unusual infections involving the liver or a brain abscess 5. Infections by unusual pathogens (aspergillus, disseminated candidiasis, serratia, nocardia, bukholderia) 6. Infections of unusual severity 7. Chronic gingivitis or recurrent aphthous ulcers
38
Hb electrophoresis for B thalassemia major
HbA 0* HbA2 elevated HbF +/-
39
How to treat/cure beta thal major Hb B-0
blood transfusions HSCT
40
How to differentiate between iron deficiency and beta thal on mentzer index (MCV/RBC)
Iron deficiency >13 Beta thal <13
41
Macrocytic anemia ddx
nutritional (B12/Folate) Diamond Blackfan anemia
42
Anemia due to destruction ddx
Intrinsic to RBC: hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency, sickle cell anemia, pyruvate kinase deficiency Extrinsic to the RBC: antibody-mediated destruction (e.g. autoimmune hemolytic anemia), Hemolytic uremic syndrome (mechanical)
43
Transfusion reactions (acute) and how to minimize
Febrile transfusion reaction (cytokine in donor plasma react to antigen on donor leukocyte) -- leukoreduction Allergic Hemolytic Bacterial contamination -- should send blood product back to culture Transfusion-associated graft vs host disease (donor lymphocutes recognize host as foreign) -- irradiation
44
When to refer bone pain to Oncology
lytic lesion Periosteal reaction: Osteosarcoma, Ewing, Osteomyelitis NO Periosteal reaction: Histiocytic disorder, neuroblastoma
45
When to NOT refer patient to oncology for bone pain
solitary lesion eccentric lytic destructive lesion and metaphyseal expansion (non-neoplastic) DO get CT if it is a sharply marginated radiolucent lesion. May be osteochondroma, osteoid osteoma, osteoblastoma, fibroma
46
How to treat pain from osteoid osteoma
NSAID Worsens at end of day, not related to activity Resect lesion
47
Boils, recurrent pneumonia, recurrent bacterial infections/abscesses. What do you suspect is the issue? What if there are family members who have it?
Innate immune system - CHRONIC GRANULOMATOUS DISEASE (CGD) - issue with oxidative radicals Neutrophils, monocytes, NK cells X-linked (all males) Mutation CYBB
48
How do you test for CBD/ oxidative burst?
Flow cytometric assessment of oxidative burst - dihydroxy-rhodamine123 reduction
49
Mutations in ELANE causes ___
severe congenital neutropenia
50
What causes HbSS mutation
Replacement of glutamic acid with valine at position 6 of B-globulin
51
How to diagnose adrenal mass in neonates/prenatally identified adrenal mass
urine vanillymandelic acid (VMA) homovanillic acid (HVA) or positive metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) scan likely neuroblastoma
52
most common extracranial solid tumor in children
neuroblastoma
53
Factors that are favorable for neuroblastoma
< 18mo Lower stage NO MYCN amplification DNA index that is not diploid Heterozygosity at 1p and 11q
54
Management of neonatal neuroblastoma
reassurance and periodic US should self-resolve
55
Serum marker for hepatoblastoma
alpha fetoprotein
56
Serum marker for germ cell tumor
HCG
57
Where can neuroblastoma show up
Adrenals Paraspinal ganglia (near the spine)
58
Triad of botulinum Toxin
bulbar palsy Descending paralysis Clear sensorium
59
If you see pancytopenia, next step?
Bone marrow biopsy
60
Differential for pancytopenia -- hypoproliferation (6)
Leukemia Aplastic anemia Nutritional deficiency Metastatic cancer infiltrating bone marrow (neuroblastoma/rhabdomyosarcoma) Fulminant sepsis MDS
61
Differential for pancytopenia -- increased destruction (3)
Splenomegaly Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (complement mediated) Acquired hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis
62
Normal MVCs by age (roughly)
Higher than adult range as newborns - 3d >95 2wk >86 2mo >77 3-6 mo >74 NADIR 2-6 yo >70
63
Side effect of etoposide
AML MDS
64
Side effect of daunorubicin (anthracycline)
cardiomyopathy
65
Side effects of cytarabene and cyclophosphamide
gonadal failure, bladder cancer
66
Side effects of cytarabene and cyclophosphamide
gonadal failure, bladder cancer
67
At what serum lead level should a child be started on iron supplementation
>5
68
Anticholinergic toxidrome
mad as a hatter dry as a bone hot as a hare red as a beet blind as a bat (pupillary dilation)
69
Anticholinergic toxidrome
mad as a hatter dry as a bone hot as a hare red as a beet blind as a bat (pupillary dilation)
70
Tx for acute methanol toxicity
fomepizole