High-yield microbio

Question 1

toxin that inhibits protein synthesis

Answer 1

shiga

Question 2

the worst malaria

Answer 2

plasmodium falciparum which forms sticky knobs that cause clots–>organ failure, dic

Question 3

clindamycin class, mechanism, allergies, general coverage

Answer 3

lincosamide
50s protein synthesis inhibitor
no major allergies (QTc, GI side fx)
pretty broad

Question 4

ceftaroline mechanism, allergies, general coverage

Answer 4

4th gen ceph
less likely to cause allergy than penicillins
many gram negatives, MRSA!

Question 5

abx vs mrsa

Answer 5

severe/iv: vancomycin +/- pipercillin-tazobactam, daptomycin

oral: ceftaroline, doxycycline, linezolid, clindamycin, Septra (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxozole)

Question 6

effects of ehec

Answer 6

hemolytic uremic syndrome: too much hemolysis overwhelms kidneys, can’t keep up. less severe inhibits protein synthesis in rbcs (b/c of shiga toxin) resulting in capillary leakage, bloody diarrhea

Question 7

yeast vs mold repro

Answer 7

yeast = budding
mold = conidiation (spore production)
both asexual

Question 8

examples of yeasts

Answer 8

candida (by far most common), cryptococcus, pneumocystic

Question 9

bacteria causing guillan barre

Answer 9

campylobacter

Question 10

what is hiv care cascade

Answer 10

describes how many patients are dx’ed vs in care vs retained vs virally suppressed. 88% dx, 81% of those linked to care in 1st month. 50% retained in care, slightly more than that suppressed. need care w/in 1 mo of dx.

Question 11

rheumatic fever bacterium

Answer 11

salmonella typhii

Question 12

toxin that opens chloride channels

Answer 12

cholera

Question 13

transmitted by fecal-oral

Answer 13

shigella, cholera, salmonella typhii

Question 14

Vancomycin mechanism, allergies, general coverage

Answer 14

glycopeptide cell wall inhibitor
infusion reaction
MRSA, c. diff when po

Question 15

examples of dimorphic fungi

Answer 15

histoplasmosis, blastomyces, coccioides; hyphae at rt unicellular at 37c

Question 16

food-borne

Answer 16

campylobacter, EHEC, non-typhoid salmonella

Question 17

yeasts vs molds structure

Answer 17

yeast = unicellular, round, may form pseudohyphae (daughter buds remain attached and form chains)
molds = multicellular, hyphae

Question 18

linezolid class, mechanism, allergies, general coverage

Answer 18

oxazolidinone
70s formation protein synthesis inhibitor
no major allergies (serotonin syndrome, optic neuritis, bone marrow, among other side fx)
broad, MRSA

Question 19

abx vs gram negatives

Answer 19

cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, Septra

Question 20

tx hiv

Answer 20

an anchor drug (usually INSTI = integrase inhibitor) and 2 NRTIs (nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors)

Question 21

types of enteroinvasive bacteria

Answer 21

campylobacter, shigella, salmonella typhii, non-typhoid salmonella

Question 22

viral diarrhea causes

Answer 22

norovirus, rotavirus

Question 23

daptomycin mechanism, allergies, general coverage

Answer 23

puts holes in cell membrane
no allergies (skeletal myopathy among other adverse fx)
MRSA, many gram negatives but not pneumonia (inactivated by surfactant)

Question 24

fluoroquinolones suffix, mechanism, allergies, general coverage

Answer 24

-floxacin
dna gyrase inhibitor
no major allergies
broad, includes gram negatives

Question 25

hiv complications

Answer 25

aids: opportunistic infections, opportunistic cancers, chronic inflammation (but not clearance) = accelerated aging process, cardiovascular disease, clotting, immune senescence

Question 26

oxacillin mechanism, allergies, general coverage

Answer 26

beta lactam anaphylaxis antistaph

Question 27

what has t3ss and what does it do

Answer 27

salmonella typhii, non-typhoid salmonella, cholera, injects virulence factors

Question 28

dx hiv

Answer 28

earliest possible to latest: | viral pcr, viral antigen, antibody (3rd, 2nd, 1st gen)

Question 29

abx vs mssa

Answer 29

antistaph penicillins = naficillin, oxacillin, amox+clav | 1st thru 4th gen cephs

Question 30

gram negative bacteria of gut

Answer 30

"entero-", e. coli, kleibsella, proteus

Question 31

malaria with hypnozoite

Answer 31

vivax, ovale; "hypnozoite" means a months to years long dormant phase

Question 32

penicillins mechanism, allergies, general coverage

Answer 32

beta lactam (tpa inhibitor) anaphylaxis narrow (penicillin), antistaph (naf, oxa), broad (amox/clav) gram positives mostly, mssa, mrsa when in combo with other drugs

Question 33

honey crusted epidermal infection

Answer 33

impetigo

Question 34

steps of hiv infection

Answer 34

gp41+120 binding to cd4+ccr5/cxcr4 --> fusion with cd4 cell --> rt --> integrase incorporates into host genome --> production of viral proteins --> protease cleaves these to make viral capsid

Question 35

cephazolin mechanism, allergies, general coverage

Answer 35

1st gen ceph less likely to cause allergy than penicillins a few gram negatives, mssa

Question 36

fungi therapeutic targets

Answer 36

ergosterol synthesis (cell membrane); beta-1,3-glucan synthetase (cell wall); dna/rna synthesis

Question 37

don't start hiv tx asap if....

Answer 37

cerebral involvement or other closed spaces, rebound inflammation can result in high icp, possible death. almost always start asap tho

Question 38

commensal anaerobic bacteria of gut

Answer 38

bacteroides fragilis

Question 39

preferred hiv anchor drug

Answer 39

INSTI (integrase inhibitors) (fewest side effects)

Question 40

yeast vs mold commensal?

Answer 40

yeast commensal, mold no but ubiquitous in environment

Question 41

abcess bacterium

Answer 41

strep or staph

Question 42

drug targets hiv

Answer 42

surface proteins, rt, integrase, protease

Question 43

metronidazole mechanism, allergies, general coverage

Answer 43

dna breakage no major allergies but several unpleasant side fx broad, includes anaerobes, yeasts, gram negatives, c. diff

Question 44

doxycycline class, mechanism, allergies, general coverage

Answer 44

tetracycline 30s protein synthesis inhibitor no major allergies (photosensitivity, pill esophagitis) pretty broad, includes MRSA, some + and -, some parasites, strep pneumonia

Question 45

beta lactam vs mrsa

Answer 45

5th gen ceph, ceftaroline

Question 46

nafcillin mechanism, allergies, general coverage

Answer 46

beta lactam anaphylaxis antistaph

Question 47

impetigo bacterium

Answer 47

strep

Question 48

examples of molds

Answer 48

aspergillus, mucorales (highly invasive, e.g. bread molds) e.g rhizopus

Question 49

cefoxitin mechanism, allergies, general coverage

Answer 49

2nd gen cef less likely to cause allergy than penicillins a few more gram negatives, mssa

Question 50

persistent (14-30 days) diarrhea causes

Answer 50

parasites

Question 51

necrotizing fasciitis bacterium

Answer 51

strep

Question 52

cellulitis bacterium

Answer 52

strep or staph

Question 53

what are surface proteins of hiv and what do they bind

Answer 53

gp41, gp120 --> cd4, ccr5, cxcr4

Question 54

malaria that causes hemolytic anemia

Answer 54

falciparum, vivax

Question 55

target protein of beta-lactams

Answer 55

transpeptidase (tpa)

Question 56

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole mechanism, allergies, general coverage

Answer 56

folate synthesis inhibitor many adverse events including sjs/ten, aplastic anemia very broad, includes gram negatives, MRSA

Question 57

types of malaria

Answer 57

falciparum, vivax, ovale, malariae, knowlesi

Question 58

types of noninvasive bacteria

Answer 58

ehec, cholera, c diff

Question 59

dicloxacillin mechanism, allergies, general coverage

Answer 59

beta lactam anaphylaxis antistaph

Question 60

good for anaerobes

Answer 60

metronidazole, moxifloxacin, amox/clav, pip/tazo, carbanepams

Question 61

primary virulence factor of gram negatives

Answer 61

lps

Question 62

ceftriaxone mechanism, allergies, general coverage

Answer 62

3rd gen ceph less likely to cause allergy than penicillins even more gram negatives, mssa

Question 63

acid stable bacterium, can cause infection with <10 cells

Answer 63

shigella

Question 64

abx vs gram positives

Answer 64

beta lactams,