HIGH YIELD PART 2

Question 1

Type of B cells formed after antigen stimulation

Answer 1

Plasma cells and Memory B-cells

Question 2

Markers found on mature, peripheral T cells

Answer 2

CD2 CD3 CD4

Question 3

How are cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells similar?

Answer 3

Effective Against Virally Infected Cells

Question 4

What is the name of the process by which phagocytic cells are attracted to a substance such as a bacterial peptide?

Answer 4

CHEMOTAXIS

Question 5

How is complement activity destroyed in vito?

Answer 5

Heating sera at 56C for 30 mins

Question 6

Which region of the immunoglobulin can bind antigen

Answer 6

FAB

Question 7

Which region determines whether an Ig can fix complement?

Answer 7

CH constant heavy region (FC region)

Question 8

Which immunoglobulin classes have a J chain?

Answer 8

IgM and sIgA (secretory) - both of then are pentamers

Question 9

Which IgG appears first in highest titer in the secondary response?

Answer 9

IgM

Remember M= maaga/mabilis

Question 10

Which Ig appears in highest titer in the secondary response?

Answer 10

IgG

Question 11

A superantigen, such as toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1), bypasses the normal antigen processing stage by binding to and cross linking?

Answer 11

A portion of a T-cell receptor and an MHC Class II molecule

Question 12

T regulator cells, responsible for controlling autoimmune antibody production, express which of the following phenotypes?

Answer 12

CD3, CD4, CD25

Question 13

The interaction between an INDIVIDUAL antigen and antibody molecule depends upon several types of bond such as ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic bonds, and van der Waals forces. How is teh strength of this attraction characterized

Answer 13

AFFINITY

Question 14

A laboratory is evaluating ELISA for detecting an antibody to cyclic citrullinated peptide, which is a marker for rheumatoid arthritis. The laboratory includes serum from healthy volunteers and patients with other connective tissue diseases in the evaluation. These specimens determine which factor of the assay?

Answer 14

SPECIFICITY

(TN/ TN+ FP) x 100

Question 15

The detection of precipitation depends on the presence of optimal proportions of antigen and antibody. A. patient’s sample contains a large amount of antibody, but the reaction in a test system containing antigen is negative. What has happened?

Answer 15

PROZONE phenomenon (excess antibody)

Question 16

What outcome results from improper washing of a tube or well after adding the enzyme-antibody conjugate in an ELISA system?

Answer 16

Falsely increased

Question 17

What is the M component in monoclonal gammopathies

Answer 17

u (mu) heavy chains produced in excess

Question 18

What screening test should be performed first in a young patient suspected of having an immune dysfunction disorder

Answer 18

CBC and WBC differential count

Question 19

YAWS

Answer 19

Treponema pertenue

Question 20

PINTA

Answer 20

Treponema carateum

Question 21

BEJEL or ENDEMIC SYPHILIS

Answer 21

T.pallidum endemicum

Question 22

RABBIT SYPHILIS

Answer 22

T.cuniculi (Wassermann nonreactive)

Question 23

What substance is detected by the RPR and VDRL tests for syphilis?

Answer 23

Anticardiolipin antibody

Question 24

5 cardinal signs of inflammation

Answer 24

Calor: heat
Rubor:redness
Tumor: swelling
Dolor: Pain
Function laesa: loss of function

Question 25

Macrophage in liver

Answer 25

Kupffer cells

Question 26

Macrophage in CNS

Answer 26

Microglia

Question 27

Macrophage in bone

Answer 27

Osteoclast

Question 28

Macrophage in lung

Answer 28

alveolar macrophage or dust cell

Question 29

Macrophage in connective tissue

Answer 29

Histiocyte

Question 30

Macrophage in Placenta

Answer 30

Hofbauer cell

Question 31

Macrophage in spleen

Answer 31

Littoral cell

Question 32

Macrophage in kidney

Answer 32

Mesangial cells

Question 33

Macrophage in synovium

Answer 33

Type A lining cell

Question 34

Negative Acute Reactants

Answer 34

Albumin Transferrin (NAR-AT)

Question 35

Removes cholesterol from cholesterol-filled macrophages at the sight of injury

Answer 35

Serum Amyloid A

Question 36

Interleukin that signals the liver to produce acute phase reactants

Answer 36

IL-6

Question 37

1000x increased in acute inflammation

Answer 37

CRP (non specific) Serum Amyloid A

Question 38

Functions of IL1 to IL 6

Answer 38

HoT T-bone stEAK IL 1: fever (hot) IL 2: stimulates T cells IL 3: stimulates bone marrows IL 4: stimulates IgE production IL 5: stimulates IgA production IL 6: stimulates aKute-phase protein production

Question 39

Efficiency of immunoglobulin G transfer across placenta

Answer 39

1342 IgG1 > IgG3 > IgG4 > IgG2 IgG3 complement fixation

Question 40

Classical pathway requires

Answer 40

Calcium C- calcium

Question 41

Alternative pathway requires

Answer 41

Magnesium

Question 42

Membrane Inhibitor of reactive lysis (MIRL) aka protectin

Answer 42

CD59

Question 43

ASSAY for classical pathway:

Answer 43

Hemolytic Titration (CH50) Assay Expressed in CH50 units

Question 44

HLA of Class 1

Answer 44

HLA- A HLA-B HLA-C (ABC)

Question 45

HLA of Class II

Answer 45

HLA-DP HLA-DQ HLA-DR

Question 46

MHC Class III genes code for:

Answer 46

C2 C4 Factor B TNF 21-hydroxylase

Question 47

Test of choice for HLA antigen testing

Answer 47

Molecular

Question 48

Why is flow cytometry based methods are the most sensitive for detecting HLA antibodies?

Answer 48

Because complement activation is not necessary

Question 49

Majority of HLA antibodies belong to what IG class

Answer 49

IgG

Question 50

Bence jones proteins coagulates at___ to____ C and dissolves at___ C

Answer 50

coagulates at 40-60C dissolves at 100C

Question 51

What blood group is Ca 19-9 related

Answer 51

Lewis “19 si lewis nagkaroon ng pancreatic cancer”

Question 52

Malignancy of plasma cell ; has BJP in urine

Answer 52

Multiple Myeloma

Question 53

4 Types of Hypersensitivity

Answer 53

ACID Anaphylactic: 1st fastest Cytotoxic: cy-2-toxic (type II hypersensitivity) Immune complex Delayed: 4th, last

Question 54

4Ts delayed hypersensitivity (Type IV)

Answer 54

T cells Transplant rejections TB skin test Touching (contact dermatitis)

Question 55

Bacte that causes rheumatic fever

Answer 55

S. pyogenes

Question 56

Bacte that causes Reiter syndrome

Answer 56

C. trachomatis

Question 57

Bacte that causes Ankylosing spondylitis

Answer 57

Enteric K. pneumoniae, Shigella spp

Question 58

Bacte that causes Guillain Barre Syndrome:

Answer 58

M. pneumoniae, C. jejuni (GUys may pneumonia C jeju)

Question 59

Gold standard test for contact dermatitis

Answer 59

PATCH TEST

Question 60

Why is serum complement DECREASED in persons with SLE

Answer 60

Bc complement is consumed

Question 61

CREST SYNDROME

Answer 61

Calcinosis Raynaud Phenomenon Esophageal dysmotility Sclerodactyly Telangiectasia

Question 62

What virus was used to fuse myeloma cells with spleen cells to create immortal cell lines of hybridoma?

Answer 62

SENDAI VIRUS

Question 63

Who discovered cross immunity?

Answer 63

Edward Jenner

Question 64

Discovered phagocytosis

Answer 64

Metchnikoff

Question 65

Discovered Penicillin

Answer 65

Alexander Fleming

Question 66

Tests for HBsAg detection: First generation: Second generation: Third generation:

Answer 66

First generation: Ouchterlony Double Diffusion (First love ouch) Second gen: Countelectrophoresis, Rheophoresis, Complement fixation (ph/E or CRC) Third gen: Radioimmunoassay (RIA), Sandwich/ Capture EIA, reverse passive agglutination, reverse passice latex agglutination — key note sounds fancy

Question 67

Complete HBV that causes infection

Answer 67

Dane particle

Question 68

Hepatitis that may be transmitted by clotting factor concentrates

Answer 68

Hepa A

Question 69

Acc to CDC - when ELISA yields a (+) HIV result — retested in duplicate by the same elisa test. How many specimens must be reactive to confirm the results and what is a more specific test for HIV

Answer 69

2/3 spx must be reactive Western Blot test

Question 70

Positive for western blot

Answer 70

2/3 major bands: p24 (used to identify window period) gp41 gp120/160

Question 71

What is the main difficulty associated with the development of an HIV vaccine?

Answer 71

Different strains of the virus are genetically DIVERSE

Question 72

Gold standard for EBV serology methods

Answer 72

Indirect Immunofluorescence assay (IFA)

Question 73

What disease does Epstein-barr virus cause

Answer 73

Infectious mononucleosis

Question 74

What specimen is the sample choice to evaluate latent or tertiary syphilis

Answer 74

CSF

Question 75

Also known as the “great imitator”

Answer 75

Syphilis Because it mimics the symptoms of many other diseases

Question 76

Gold standard for detecting rickettsial antibodies

Answer 76

Indirect immunofluorescence assay (IFA) and microimmunoflourescent assay (micro-IF)