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immunology and serology high yield facts > HIGH YIELD PART 2 > Flashcards

HIGH YIELD PART 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Type of B cells formed after antigen stimulation

A

Plasma cells and Memory B-cells

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2
Q

Markers found on mature, peripheral T cells

A

CD2 CD3 CD4

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3
Q

How are cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells similar?

A

Effective Against Virally Infected Cells

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4
Q

What is the name of the process by which phagocytic cells are attracted to a substance such as a bacterial peptide?

A

CHEMOTAXIS

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5
Q

How is complement activity destroyed in vito?

A

Heating sera at 56C for 30 mins

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6
Q

Which region of the immunoglobulin can bind antigen

A

FAB

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7
Q

Which region determines whether an Ig can fix complement?

A

CH constant heavy region (FC region)

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8
Q

Which immunoglobulin classes have a J chain?

A

IgM and sIgA (secretory) - both of then are pentamers

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9
Q

Which IgG appears first in highest titer in the secondary response?

A

IgM

Remember M= maaga/mabilis

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10
Q

Which Ig appears in highest titer in the secondary response?

A

IgG

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11
Q

A superantigen, such as toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1), bypasses the normal antigen processing stage by binding to and cross linking?

A

A portion of a T-cell receptor and an MHC Class II molecule

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12
Q

T regulator cells, responsible for controlling autoimmune antibody production, express which of the following phenotypes?

A

CD3, CD4, CD25

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13
Q

The interaction between an INDIVIDUAL antigen and antibody molecule depends upon several types of bond such as ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic bonds, and van der Waals forces. How is teh strength of this attraction characterized

A

AFFINITY

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14
Q

A laboratory is evaluating ELISA for detecting an antibody to cyclic citrullinated peptide, which is a marker for rheumatoid arthritis. The laboratory includes serum from healthy volunteers and patients with other connective tissue diseases in the evaluation. These specimens determine which factor of the assay?

A

SPECIFICITY

(TN/ TN+ FP) x 100

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15
Q

The detection of precipitation depends on the presence of optimal proportions of antigen and antibody. A. patient’s sample contains a large amount of antibody, but the reaction in a test system containing antigen is negative. What has happened?

A

PROZONE phenomenon (excess antibody)

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16
Q

What outcome results from improper washing of a tube or well after adding the enzyme-antibody conjugate in an ELISA system?

A

Falsely increased

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17
Q

What is the M component in monoclonal gammopathies

A

u (mu) heavy chains produced in excess

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18
Q

What screening test should be performed first in a young patient suspected of having an immune dysfunction disorder

A

CBC and WBC differential count

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19
Q

YAWS

A

Treponema pertenue

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20
Q

PINTA

A

Treponema carateum

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21
Q

BEJEL or ENDEMIC SYPHILIS

A

T.pallidum endemicum

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22
Q

RABBIT SYPHILIS

A

T.cuniculi (Wassermann nonreactive)

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23
Q

What substance is detected by the RPR and VDRL tests for syphilis?

A

Anticardiolipin antibody

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24
Q

5 cardinal signs of inflammation

A

Calor: heat
Rubor:redness
Tumor: swelling
Dolor: Pain
Function laesa: loss of function

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25
Q

Macrophage in liver

A

Kupffer cells

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26
Q

Macrophage in CNS

A

Microglia

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27
Q

Macrophage in bone

A

Osteoclast

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28
Q

Macrophage in lung

A

alveolar macrophage or dust cell

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29
Q

Macrophage in connective tissue

A

Histiocyte

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30
Q

Macrophage in Placenta

A

Hofbauer cell

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31
Q

Macrophage in spleen

A

Littoral cell

32
Q

Macrophage in kidney

A

Mesangial cells

33
Q

Macrophage in synovium

A

Type A lining cell

34
Q

Negative Acute Reactants

A

Albumin
Transferrin

(NAR-AT)

35
Q

Removes cholesterol from cholesterol-filled macrophages at the sight of injury

A

Serum Amyloid A

36
Q

Interleukin that signals the liver to produce acute phase reactants

A

IL-6

37
Q

1000x increased in acute inflammation

A

CRP (non specific)
Serum Amyloid A

38
Q

Functions of IL1 to IL 6

A

HoT T-bone stEAK

IL 1: fever (hot)
IL 2: stimulates T cells
IL 3: stimulates bone marrows
IL 4: stimulates IgE production
IL 5: stimulates IgA production
IL 6: stimulates aKute-phase protein production

39
Q

Efficiency of immunoglobulin G transfer across placenta

A

1342

IgG1 > IgG3 > IgG4 > IgG2

IgG3 complement fixation

40
Q

Classical pathway requires

A

Calcium

C- calcium

41
Q

Alternative pathway requires

A

Magnesium

42
Q

Membrane Inhibitor of reactive lysis (MIRL) aka protectin

A

CD59

43
Q

ASSAY for classical pathway:

A

Hemolytic Titration (CH50) Assay

Expressed in CH50 units

44
Q

HLA of Class 1

A

HLA- A HLA-B HLA-C (ABC)

45
Q

HLA of Class II

A

HLA-DP HLA-DQ HLA-DR

46
Q

MHC Class III genes code for:

A

C2
C4
Factor B
TNF
21-hydroxylase

47
Q

Test of choice for HLA antigen testing

A

Molecular

48
Q

Why is flow cytometry based methods are the most sensitive for detecting HLA antibodies?

A

Because complement activation is not necessary

49
Q

Majority of HLA antibodies belong to what IG class

A

IgG

50
Q

Bence jones proteins coagulates at___ to____ C
and dissolves at___ C

A

coagulates at 40-60C
dissolves at 100C

51
Q

What blood group is Ca 19-9 related

A

Lewis

“19 si lewis nagkaroon ng pancreatic cancer”

52
Q

Malignancy of plasma cell ; has BJP in urine

A

Multiple Myeloma

53
Q

4 Types of Hypersensitivity

A

ACID

Anaphylactic: 1st fastest
Cytotoxic: cy-2-toxic (type II hypersensitivity)
Immune complex
Delayed: 4th, last

54
Q

4Ts delayed hypersensitivity (Type IV)

A

T cells
Transplant rejections
TB skin test
Touching (contact dermatitis)

55
Q

Bacte that causes rheumatic fever

A

S. pyogenes

56
Q

Bacte that causes Reiter syndrome

A

C. trachomatis

57
Q

Bacte that causes Ankylosing spondylitis

A

Enteric K. pneumoniae, Shigella spp

58
Q

Bacte that causes Guillain Barre Syndrome:

A

M. pneumoniae, C. jejuni

(GUys may pneumonia C jeju)

59
Q

Gold standard test for contact dermatitis

A

PATCH TEST

60
Q

Why is serum complement DECREASED in persons with SLE

A

Bc complement is consumed

61
Q

CREST SYNDROME

A

Calcinosis
Raynaud Phenomenon
Esophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia

62
Q

What virus was used to fuse myeloma cells with spleen cells to create immortal cell lines of hybridoma?

A

SENDAI VIRUS

63
Q

Who discovered cross immunity?

A

Edward Jenner

64
Q

Discovered phagocytosis

A

Metchnikoff

65
Q

Discovered Penicillin

A

Alexander Fleming

66
Q

Tests for HBsAg detection:

First generation:
Second generation:
Third generation:

A

First generation: Ouchterlony Double Diffusion (First love ouch)
Second gen: Countelectrophoresis, Rheophoresis, Complement fixation (ph/E or CRC)
Third gen: Radioimmunoassay (RIA), Sandwich/ Capture EIA, reverse passive agglutination, reverse passice latex agglutination — key note sounds fancy

67
Q

Complete HBV that causes infection

A

Dane particle

68
Q

Hepatitis that may be transmitted by clotting factor concentrates

A

Hepa A

69
Q

Acc to CDC - when ELISA yields a (+) HIV result — retested in duplicate by the same elisa test. How many specimens must be reactive to confirm the results and what is a more specific test for HIV

A

2/3 spx must be reactive

Western Blot test

70
Q

Positive for western blot

A

2/3 major bands:

p24 (used to identify window period)
gp41
gp120/160

71
Q

What is the main difficulty associated with the development of an HIV vaccine?

A

Different strains of the virus are genetically DIVERSE

72
Q

Gold standard for EBV serology methods

A

Indirect Immunofluorescence assay (IFA)

73
Q

What disease does Epstein-barr virus cause

A

Infectious mononucleosis

74
Q

What specimen is the sample choice to evaluate latent or tertiary syphilis

A

CSF

75
Q

Also known as the “great imitator”

A

Syphilis

Because it mimics the symptoms of many other diseases

76
Q

Gold standard for detecting rickettsial antibodies

A

Indirect immunofluorescence assay (IFA) and microimmunoflourescent assay (micro-IF)

immunology and serology high yield facts (2 decks)

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