Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

From Flashcardlet > higher biology DNA and the genome > Flashcards

higher biology DNA and the genome Flashcards

0
Q

Deoxyribose sugar

A

pentose sugar, 1’ carbon joins to base, 5’ carbon joins to phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

DNA nucleotide labelled

A

Phosphate, deoxyribose sugar, base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

DNA bases

A

Adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name of DNA backbone

A

Sugar-phosphate backbone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bonds in a DNA molecule

A

Weak hydrogen bonds between base pairs and chemical covalent bonds between phosphate and 3’ carbon of deoxyribose sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Relationship between two strands of DNA

A

They are antiparallel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Leadimg strand and lagging strand carbons at end and beginning

A

Leading strand 5’ to 3’, lagging strand 3’ to 5’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Prokaryote and example

A

Cell without a nucleus, bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Eukaryote

A

Cell with a nucleus, plant, animal and fungal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Prokaryote organisation of DNA

A

Contain plasmids and a large circular DNA molecule associated with few or no proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Plasmid locations

A

Found in bacteria cells and some yeast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Eukaryotic cell chromosomal DNA organisation

A

DNA in the nucleus is found in linear form associated with proteins, they also contain small circles of DNA present in the chloroplasts and mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

DNA in linear chromosomes

A

Tightly coiled around proteins to help package it into the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is DNA replication important for

A

Mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Correct model for DNA replication

A

Semi-conservative model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Before DNA replication can begin

A

The molecule must unwind and then the hydrogen bonds must break to separate the two strands creating a y-shaped replication fork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

DNA polymerase and limitations

A

Enzyme that binds the sugar phosphate backbone together, can only add nucleotides to a pre-existing chain so primers must be present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Primer

A

A primer is a short sequence of nucleotides formed at the 3’ end of the leading strand and in several places on lagging strand, it allows bonding of sugar phosphate backbone to begin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DNA ligase

A

Joins fragments of DNA on the lagging strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Replication of leading strand

A

A primer is formed at the 3’ end of the leading strand and free nucleotides align with their complementary base pairings on the strand, they become bound to the 3’ end of the primer, DNA ligase forms the sugar-phosphate backbone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Replication of lagging strand

A

Primers must form at different points on the lagging strand so DNA must be replicated in fragments. DNA polymerase binds free nucleotides to the primers to form these fragments and then DNA ligase joins the fragments together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

There are many replication forks along the length of a

A

Chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

DNA can be replicated continuously from

A

5’ to 3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

PCR

A

The amplification of DNA, allows many copies to be created from one piece of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In vitro

A

Outside the body of an organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Roles of primers in PCR

A

Once DNA is separated the primers anneal to the 3’ ends of the DNA strands to allow Taq polymerase to start making a chain, the primer also acts a target section of DNA and Taq polymerase replicates it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Taq polymerase

A

Heat-tolerant DNA polymerase enzyme so that it does not become denatured at high temperatures as DNA needs to become denatured at this temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

PCR stages

A

DNA molecule is denatured breaking the hydrogen bonds, solution is cooled to allow primers to anneal to the DNA, solution is heated to allow extension from primers, this process is usually repeated at least 30 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

PCR temperatures

A

95 degrees Celsius, 60 degrees Celsius, 72 degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Applications of PCR

A

Can be used as a tool in genetic fingerprinting, can be used as a diagnostic tool for genetic diseases and can be used for paternal identification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is RNA different to DNA

A

It has uracil, ribose sugar and only one strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Role of mRNA in protein synthesis

A

Carries genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosome in the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

tRNA function in protein synthesis

A

Attached to amino acids and match up with mRNA codon to anticodon to form the correct sequence for a protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Role of ribosomal RNA in protein synthesis

A

Make up a a ribosome along with a complex protein structure, tRNA combines with protein to form the large and small subunits which make up a ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Transcription summary

A

The genetic code on DNA is used to determine the base sequence on mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Three bases on DNA and mRNA names

A

DNA triplet, mRNA codon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

RNA polymerase role in transcription

A

The enzyme responsible for transcription as it uncoils and unzips DNA so that mRNA can be made against a template strand, it also forms chemical bonds between nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Transcription stage 1

A

RNA polymerase uncoils and unzips DNA exposing the bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Transcription stage 2

A

Free RNA nucleotides are attracted to the exposed bases and complementary base pairing takes place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Transcription stage 3

A

RNA polymerase forms covalent bonds between adjacent nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Transcription stage 4

A

When the mRNA is compete it breaks off and travels into the cytoplasm, this strand is known as the primary RNA transcript

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Introns

A

Non-coding areas of a gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Exons

A

Coding areas of a gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Splicing

A

In transcription introns are cut out of the mRNA and the exons are spliced together to form an mRNA strand that can code for a protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Two differences between tRNA and mRNA

A

tRNA molecules are 3D as they are folded back on themselves and hydrogen bonds form between bases. tRNA molecules have anticodons and mRNA molecules have codons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Two sites found on tRNA

A

Amino acid attachment site and anticodon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How many anticodons does a tRNA molecule have

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Start and stop codons

A

Start codons code for the first amino acid on a polypeptide chain and stop codons do not code for an amino acid do stop the chain allowing it to peel off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

tRNA role in translation

A

Pick up specific amino acids from the cytoplasm and carry them to the ribosome where they match up with mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Translation stage 1

A

mRNA attaches to a ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Translation stage 2

A

tRNA molecules carrying amino acids match up with mRNA at the ribosome anticodon to codon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Translation stage 3

A

Peptide bonds form between adjacent amino acids to form a polypeptide chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Translation stage 4

A

This process is repeated until a stop codon is reached and the polypeptide chain is released from the ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

One gene, many proteins (methods)

A

Alternative splicing and post-translational modification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Alternative splicing explanation

A

alternative segments of DNA can be treated as exons and introns, this means a primary transcript can produce several different mRNA molecules from the same DNA strand as the base triplets are different

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Importance of alternative splicing (antibodies)

A

It allows antibodies (for example) to have slightly different functions, some move freely and others are bound to the membrane of white blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Post-translational modification

A

Once translation has been completed modification may be required to allow the protein to function correctly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Post-translational modification

Cleavage (insulin)

A

A polypeptide chain may be needed to be cut in order for it to become active, insulin cannot function as a single polypeptide so the central section is cut out so insulin can function as two polypeptides held together by sulphur bridges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Post-translational modification

Molecular addition

(mucus)

A

This means adding a carbohydrate component or phosphate group to a protein, mucus is a glycoprotein which carbohydrate has been added to

59
Q

Differentiation

A

The process by which unspecialised cells become specialised cells

60
Q

Division of labour

A

Means that each cell has its own specific function in the body

61
Q

Why does every cell have every copy of every genome

A

As all the cells in a multicellular organism can be traced back to the zygote and they have all formed by mitosis from then on

62
Q

Differentiation process

A

During differentiation genes some remain switched on. Genes that code for characteristic features of this specific differentiated cell become switched on. Unnecessary genes remain switched off so that unnecessary proteins are not coded for.

63
Q

Example of differentiated cell (red blood cell)

A

Large surface area to allow more oxygen to pass through, no nucleus so can carry more oxygen, it contains haemoglobin that attaches to oxygen to form oxyhaemoglobin

64
Q

Where can meristems be found in a plant

A

Apical meristems shoot tip and root tip, lateral meristems cause plant to increase in width

65
Q

Meristems are

A

Regions of unspecialised cells in plants that are capable of cell division

66
Q

Types of plant cells

A

Root cell, epidermal cell, guard cell, palisade mesophyll cell, spongy mesophyll cell

67
Q

The activity of meristems allows plants to

A

Grow

68
Q

Stem cells are

A

Unspecialised cells that can reproduce themselves through mitosis whil still remaining unspecialised

69
Q

Stem cells can differentiate into specialised cells when required for

A

Growth or repair

70
Q

Stem cells can replicate themselves or

A

SELF RENEW

71
Q

Embryonic stem cells

A

Can be obtained from a human blastocyst and all of these genes can be switched on so it can become any type of cell

72
Q

Tissue (adult) stem cells

A

Can be found in skin and red bone marrow, can only become a limited number of specialised cells

73
Q

Role of embryonic stem cells

A

Can be used to grow new body parts

74
Q

Role of tissue stem cells

A

Can be used for bone marrow transplants

75
Q

Use of stem cells in medicine

A

Skin grafts after burns

76
Q

Importance of stem cell research

A

Could help us to understand the biology of cancer

77
Q

Stem cell future use

A

Could be used to provide treatments for diabetes or Parkinson’s disease

78
Q

Stem cell ethical issues

A

Human embryo has to be destroyed

79
Q

Stem cell embryo rule

A

Embryo must be destroyed before it is 13 days old

80
Q

The genome of an organism

A

It’s hereditary information encoded in DNA

81
Q

Non-coding sequences

A

Regions of the genome that do not code for a protein

82
Q

Most of the eukaryotic genome consists of which regions

A

Non-coding regions

83
Q

Function of non-coding regions

A

Unknown

84
Q

Non-coding sequences at end of chromosome

A

Telomeres which prevent chromosomes from fraying at the ends and becoming damaged

85
Q

Single-gene mutations

A

A change to the DNA nucleotide sequence due to the substitution, insertion or deletion of nucleotides

86
Q

A mutation is

A

A change in the structure or amount of an organism’s genome

87
Q

Substitution mutation

A

Brings about a minor change as only one nucleotide in a sequence is changed as another is added in its place

88
Q

Insertion mutation

A

When an extra nucleotide is added causing a large portion of the DNA to be misread making the protein non-functional

89
Q

Deletion mutation

A

Similar to an insertion however a nucleotide is removed

90
Q

Gene mutations

A

Regulatory sequence mutations that alter gene expression

91
Q

Missense mutation

A

Comes after a substitution where the altered codon codes for an amino acid which still makes sense but not the original sense

92
Q

a nonsense mutation

A

also happens after a mutation however the mutation has now become a stop codon so protein synthesis is stopped and the polypeptide is too short

93
Q

splice-site mutations

A

can alter post-translational processing

94
Q

frame-shift mutation

A

occurs when insertion or deletion mutations occur altering the coding sequence all the way along the rest of the gene changing every codon

95
Q

expansion of a nucleotide repeat

A

slippage during dna replication cause nucleotides to repeatedly expand

96
Q

evolutionary importance of mutations

A

they are the only source of new variation, they change dna sequences so that new alleles can be made

97
Q

chromosome structure mutations

A

changes in chromosome structure involve the number or sequence of genes being changed

98
Q

three types of chromosome changes

A

deletion, duplication and transolcation

99
Q

deletion (chrosome changes)

A

a gene is deleted from a chromosome causing learning difficulties

100
Q

duplication

A

a gene in a chromosome is duplicated and this could cause cancer

101
Q

translocation

A

a gene is removed from one chromosome and placed into another, this could cause non-viable gametes

102
Q

duplication importance in evolution

A

this means a second copy can of a gene can be created without affecting original so organism can change while still being able to survive

103
Q

point mutation

A

affects only one nucleotide in a gene sequence

104
Q

polyploidy

A

when an error occurs during gamete formation or mitosis so cells receive one or more extra sets of chromosomes

105
Q

when would polyploidy occur

A

if all the matching chromosomes fail to separate during mitosis or gamete formation

106
Q

polyploidy is more common in

A

plants

107
Q

polyploidy evolution

A

polyploid plants are more likely to develop advantageous mutations with more chromosomes, recessive traits can be masked by extra chromosomes

108
Q

polyploid plants as crops

A

humans can cross closely related plant species to create polyploids that are hybrids that produce higher yields and are more resistant to disease

109
Q

polyploid food crops

A

strawberries, apples and wheat

110
Q

vertical gene transfer

A

genetic sequences of DNA are passed down vertically from parent to offspring as a result of sexual or asexual reproduction

111
Q

horizontal gene transfer

A

genetic sequences exchanged between members of a population (do not need to be same species

112
Q

organisms which carry out vertical gene transfer

A

eukaryote to eukaryote

prokaryote to prokaryote

113
Q

organisms which carry out HGT

A

prokaryote to prokaryote

prokaryote to eukaryote

114
Q

HGT and evolutionary change

A

leads to rapid transfer of gene which leads to rapid evolutionary change rather than allowing evolution to happen by VGT

115
Q

natural selection

A

the non-random increase in frequency of DNA sequences that increase survival

116
Q

sexual selection

A

an increase in successful reproduction

117
Q

process of natural selection

A

organisms produce more offspring than environment can support
struggle for existence due to increased competition
all members of species who variation and those best adapted survive to pass on there genes
this is repeated generation after generation resulting in an increase of frequency of advantageous genes

118
Q

sexual selection

A

females invest a large proportion of resources into producing few eggs
this is why they choose their partners carefully to save energy so therefore making them selective
this results in an increase in the frequency of the genes that make reproduction successful

119
Q

stabilising selection

A

selects against extreme variations of a trait favouring intermediate traits e.g. human birth weight

120
Q

directional selection

A

common during a period of environmental change where an inferior version of the trait is now favoured resulting in a progressive shift in the populations means for a trait e.g. light and dark moths

121
Q

disruptive selection

A

extreme variations of traits are favoured as two different habitats or types of resource become available, this divides population into two distinct groups e.g. beak size of finches

122
Q

genetic drift

A

the random increase and decrease in frequency of sequences particularly in small populations as a result of neutral mutations and founder effects

123
Q

gene pool

A

the total of all the different genetic sequences (alleles) present in a population

124
Q

effects of genetic drift

A

evolutionary change that sees some alleles disappearing, not always favouring the best adapted alleles, this results in a more uniform population

125
Q

the founder effect

A

when a splinter group becomes isolated from the rest of the population and founds a new population

126
Q

effects of founder effect

A

the new population contain random alleles that are not representative of the original groups’ gene pool

127
Q

speciation

A

speciation is the generation of new biological species by evolution

128
Q

species are organisms that are able to

A

interbreed and produce fertile offspring

129
Q

stages of speciation

A

isolation
mutation
natural selection
formation of new species

130
Q

allopatric speciation

A

geographical barrier

131
Q

sympatric speciation

A

ecological or behavioural barrier or polyploidy plants

132
Q

hybrid zones

A

when a region is occupied by several populations of an organism which may vary in their ability to interbreed hybrid zones are formed between populations which can interbreed

133
Q

genomics

A

the study of genomes

134
Q

genomic sequencing

A

involves determining the sequence of individual nucleotide bases for individual genes or whole organism’s genomes

135
Q

bioinformatics

A

genetic sequencing with computers and statistical analysis speeding up the process rapidly

136
Q

bioinformatics steps

A

genome is cut using an endonuclease
further copy cut the same way
each fragment sequenced to establish base order
information entered into a computer and put together like a jigsaw

137
Q

single nucleotide polymorphism

A

a variation in the DNA sequence that affects a single base pair in the DNA chain, this how each individual is different to each other

138
Q

phylogenetics

A

the study of evolutionary relatedness among different groups of organisms

139
Q

sequence diversion

A

over time mutations occur in groups of organisms’ genomes, resulting in the genome of organisms differing to the extent that the organisms diverge, the more different they are the more distantly related the organisms are

140
Q

when DNA base sequences of organisms only differ by a few bases this suggests

A

they share a common ancestor, the greater the difference the longer the time since they diverged

141
Q

molecular clocks

A

the number of nucleotide substitutions by which two related groups of organisms differ is regarded as being proportional to the time since the group diverged

142
Q

three main domains

A

bacteria, archaea, eukaryotes

143
Q

harmful and neutral mutations

A

scientists need to create a link between a variation in the genome sequence and a specific genetic disease to molecularly characterise a disorder

144
Q

main goal of personal genomics

A

to increase drug efficiency and to decrease side effects

145
Q

pharmacogenetics

A

the study of inherited genetic differences which determine reactions to a specific drug

146
Q

Archaea are

A

Prokaryotes that inhabit extreme climates

From Flashcardlet (64 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions