Histology + Microbiology Flashcards

(65 cards)

1
Q

what microorganism is the most common pathogen of osteomyelitis

A

s. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what tend to inflect implanted devices

A

biofilm

  • slow growing
  • bacteria coated in protein and polysacharide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the 3 types of implant infections

A

early post-op - 0-3months
Delayed - 3-24months
Late - >24months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the features of early post-op infection

A

perioperative route

fever, effusion, warmth, drinage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the common agents of early post-op infections

A

s. aureus
strep
enterococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the features of delayed infection

A

perioperative route

persistent pain, device loosening, fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the common agents of delayed infections

A

coagulase-negative
staph
p.acnes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the features of late infection

A

haematogenous spread

acute or subacute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the common agents of late infections

A

s. aureus

e. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the criteria for SIRS

A

two or more of:
Temperature >38 or 90 beats/min
Respiratory rate >20 breaths/min or PaCO2 12,000 cells/mm3 or

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the Tx if no SIRS

A

no immediate need for antibiotic treatment

wait until culture results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

treatment of prosthetic joint infections

A

Debridement
- Retention of prosthesis (DAIR)
- Removal of prosthesis
Antiobiotcs - IV high dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the bacteria of acute primary infections

A

S. aureus

Streptococcus spp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the bacteria of chronic infections

A

CoNS

Propionibacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Bacteria in abscesses or biofilms are easily treated - true or false

A

false

are resistant to antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the tayside protocol for PJI

A

No antibiotic pre-operatively
Minimum three bone/ tissue/ pus samples for culture
Minimum 6 weeks antibiotics before clean surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what antibiotic is used from gram positive and what is used if they are allergic

A

flucloxacillin

- if allergic vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what antibiotic is used in gram positive but Meticillin resistant organism

A

tecioplanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what antibiotic is used from gram negative and what is used if they are allergic

A

Cotrimoxazole

- if allergic Axoicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the duration of treatment

A

hips - 3months

knee - 6months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how is responded assessed in PJI

A

Continue treatment for 2 weeks after resolution of clinical signs of infection
Repeat MRI or CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is used as prophylaxis in orthopaedics

A

Co amoxiclav 1.2 g peri-op & 2 post-op doses
if allergic
Co-trimoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

where are the nuclei situated in skeletal muscle cells

A

at the periphery of the fibre just under the cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the cell membrane called in muscle cells

A

sarcolemma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what are fascicles
muscle fibres grouped into bundles
26
what are the different connective tissues of muscle cells
epimysium - connective tissue of muscle as a whole perimysium - around a single fascicle endomysium - single muscle fibre
27
what are the units of contraction
sarcomeres
28
what do thousands of sarcomeres form
myofibrils
29
what is a type I skeletal muscle fibre
- relatively slowly contracting fibres that depend on oxidative metabolism. - have abundant mitochondria - resistant to fatigue - produce relatively less force. - Often called ‘red’ fibres.
30
what is a type IIA skeletal muscle fibre
- this is intermediate between the other two. - relatively fast contracting, - reasonably resistant to fatigue. - uncommon
31
what is a type IIB skeletal muscle fibre
- fast contracting fibres that depend on anaerobic metabolism. - few mitochondria, - fatigue relatively easily - produce relatively greater force. - Often called ‘white’ fibres.
32
how is cartilage, which is avascular, nourished
by diffusion through the extracellular matrix
33
how is bone nourished
blood vessels that pervade the tissue
34
what cells are found in cartilage and where do they live
chondrocytes | - lacuna
35
what are the different types of cartilage
hyaline elastic fibrocartilage
36
what is the morphology of bone
outer shell of dense cortical bone makes up the shaft (diaphysis) Cancellous or trabecular bone occupies the ends of the bone (the epiphyses)
37
what are osteocytes
bone cell trapped within the bone matrix
38
what are osteons
fundamental functional unit of much compact bone
39
what is the boundary of an osteons called
cement lines
40
what are osteoprogenitor cells
located on bone surfaces, for example under the periosteum, these cells serve as a pool of reserve osteoblasts
41
what are osteoblasts
bone forming cells | found on surface of developing bone
42
what are osteoclasts
responsible for bone reabsorption | found on surface of bone
43
pathway for bone remodelling
- osteoclasts drill into bone forming a tunnel - blood vessel grows into tunnel - osteoblasts follow - they lay new lamellar bone - continues until only the space of a Haversian canal remains.
44
what is the basic multicellular unit
The collection of osteoclasts and osteoblasts that participate in bone remodelling
45
what do osteoblasts secrete
collagen, glyocsaminoglycans, proteoglycans | collectively termed osteoid
46
what is woven bone
during development or following a break rather than having collagen fibres orientated all in one direction, as occurs in lamellar bone, the collagen fibres are laid down in a haphazard fashion
47
which is stronger - woven or lamellar bone
lamellar
48
what is brodie’s abscess
seen on x-ray | sign of subacute osteomyelitis
49
what is osteomyelitis
inflammation of bone or bone marrow | can be acute or chronic
50
how can acute osteomyelitis be acquired
inoculation - mostly post-trauma/open # haematogenous - children or immunosuppressed
51
common bugs of osteomyelitis
staph aureus - fluxocillin | haemophilus - in children
52
Tx for osteomyelitis
aspirate pus | then give antibiotics
53
hows does chronic osteomyelitis occur
bone abscess, pus seeks its way out, either goes under periosteum or under joint. when is goes under periosteum - becomes devascularise area will try and compensate for dying central bone and will form bone on the outside i.e. involucrum
54
Ix for chronic osteomyelitis
plain X-rays - 1st line | MRI
55
what is ivolucrum
layer of new bone growth outside existing bone
56
how can septic arthritis be contracted
metaphyseal spread inoculation direct haematogenous
57
Tx for cellulitis
Flucoxacillin | Benzylpenicillin
58
common organisms of cellulitis
staph | strep
59
what is Necrotising fasciitis
life-threatening subcutaneous soft-tissue infection
60
symptoms/signs of NF
``` severe pain cellulitis fever systemic symptoms nausea and vomiting crepitations ```
61
Tx of NF
surgical debridement - get rid of dead tissues | target antibiotics or empirical if unknown organism
62
what is infectious arthroplasty
infection of prosthetic joint | deep infection
63
Ix for infected arthroplasty
CRP joint aspiration Bone scan - Tech 99 X-ray
64
what prophylaxis is done is surgery to prevent infection
``` Clean air theatres Local antibiotics Systemic antibiotics Duration of surgery Laminar flow ```
65
which bugs commonly cause infected arthroplasty
``` staphylococcus aureus (SA) staphylococcus epidermidis (SE) ```