Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Y5 Pathology > HistoPath - General > Flashcards

HistoPath - General Flashcards

1
Q

On slide: cell that is 4x RBC size, multi-lobular with lots of granules

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

On slide: large cell with lots of cytoplasm

A

Macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

On slide: large cell, purple colour

A

Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

On slide: 4x RBC size, bi-lobed nucleus (blue), red/pink granules

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

On slide: 4X RBC size, granules of histamine and heparin

A

Mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tumour that produces keratin, has intracellular bridges (prickles), no glands

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tumour that has glandular epithelium and produces mucin

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Tumour found in the bladder, kidney, ureters

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Stains Iron in haemochromatosis

A

Prussian Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Stain for amyloid

A

Congo red → apple green birefringence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Stains melanin

A

Fontana

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Stain used for most histo samples

A

Haematoxylin (blue nucleus) and eosin (pink/red cytoplasm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Immunohistochemical marker of the epithelium

A

Cytokeratin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Immunohistochemical marker of lymphoid tissue

A

CD45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Immunohistochemical marker of primary bowel cancer

A

CK20 and CK7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Immunohistochemical marker of neuroendocrine tumours

A

Chromogranin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

70% occlusion of the coronary vessels

A

Stable angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

> 90% occlusion of the coronary vessels

A

Unstable angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Type of flow that predisposes to atheroma

A

Turbulent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Prinzmetal angina

A

Coronary artery spasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Time taken for there to be irreversible damage and myocyte death on MIs

A

> 20-40mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Histology for heart tissue <6 hours after MI

A

No change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Histology for heart tissue 6-24 hours after MI

A

Myocyte necrotic death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Histology for heart tissue 1-4 days after MI

A

Inflammatory cell infiltration → macrophages seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Histology for heart tissues 5-10 days after MI

A

Removal of debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Histology for heart tissue 1-2 weeks after MI

A

Myofibroblasts, new vessels, collagen synthesis, granulation tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Histology for heart tissue >2 weeks after MI

A

Decellularising scarring, strengthening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Heart is pale and oedematous

A

24h post MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Heart has haemorrhage, signs of necrosis

A

3-4 days post MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Heart is thin an yellow

A

1-2 weeks post MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Heart is tough and white

A

> 3 weeks post MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

complications within 24h of MI

A

Arrhythmia → VF
Sudden death
cardiogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Complications of MI 1-3 days after

A

Fibrinous pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Complications of MI 3-14 days after

A

Papillary muscle rupture → mitral regurgitation
LV free wall rupture
Ventricular septal rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Complications of MI weeks to months after

A

Dressler’s syndrome
Heart failure
Reinfarction/recurrence
Aneurysm (atria or ventricles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Dilated heart, scarring and thinning of the walls with fibrotic replacement of the ventricular myocardium

A

Heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Boggy and thin heart with systolic dysfunction

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Heart is stiff with a loss of contractility

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

HOCM inheritance

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Thickening of valve leaflet, especially along lines of closure and fusion of commissures
Thickening, shortening and fusion of chordae tendineae.

A

Chronic rheumatic valve disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

mid-systolic click + late systolic murmur in middle aged woman with SOB and chest pain

A

Mitral valve prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Ejection systolic murmur (+ cause)

A

Aortic stenosis - calcification, bicuspid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Pansystolic murmur (+ cause)

A

Mitral regurgitation - post MI, RhF, infective endocarditis, connective tissue disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Mid-diastolic murmur (+ cause)

A

Mitral stenosis - RhF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Ejection diastolic murmur (+ cause)

A

Aortic regurgitation - connective tissue disease. aneurysm, IE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Ejection diastolic murmur (+ cause)

A

Aortic regurgitation - connective tissue disease. aneurysm, IE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Histo: aschoff bodies (Small giant cell granulomas) and Anitschkov mycoytes (Regenerating)

A

Rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Warty vegetations on valve leaflet

A

Rheumatic endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Large irregular masses on valve cusps that extend to the chordae tendinae

A

Infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Small, bland vegetation on the valves

A

Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

small, sterile, platelet-rich plaques

A

Libman Sacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Cortex forced under the falx cerebri

A

Subfalcine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Median temporal lobe forced under the tentorial notch

A

Uncal (transtentorial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Cerebellum forced through the foramen magnum

A

Tonsilar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Most likely area for infarction stroke

A

Basilar artery
Carotid bifurcation
Middle cerebral artery (Emboli from the heart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Most likely area for haemorrhagic stroke

A

Basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Closely packed vessels with no parenchyma interposed between vascular spaces under low pressure

A

Cavernous angioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Target sign on MRI brain

A

Cavernous angioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Most common site of sub arachnoid haemorrhage

A

Internal carotid bifurcation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Bruising behind the mastoid process and around the eyes

A

Basilar skull fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Coup vs Contrecoup

A

Coup = damage to area of collision
Contrecoup = damage to opposite side of the brain due to rebound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Pick’s bodies

A

Fronto temporal dementia with tau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

unilateral cerebral atrophy and progranulin mutation

A

Frontotemporal dementia (Tau negative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

alpha synuclein and ubiquitin

A

Dementia with lewy bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Histology of brain: PAPP-LANTOS bodies, glial cells, tufted astrocytes

A

Progressive supranuclear palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Histology of brain: oligodendrocytes containing alpha-synuclein

A

multiple system atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Presents with aphasia and “alien limb”

A

Corticobulbar degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Fronto-temporal atrophy, marked gliosis and neuronal loss, balloon neurons, pick bodies

A

Pick’s disease - Fronto-temporal dementia with Tau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Western blot: 3 dense bands → dephosphorylated to show 3R and 4R tau

A

Alzheimer’s dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Western blot: 2 dense bands → dephosphorylated to show 4R tau

A

CBD or PSP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Western blot: 2 dense bands → dephosphorylated to show 3R tau

A

Pick’s (Tau positive fronto-temporal dementia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

protein deposits with spongiform change (lots of vacuoles in the brain)

A

Prion disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Mutation 17q11 (NF1)

A

Pilocytic astrocytoma
Neurofibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Mutation 22q12 (NF2)

A

Schwanomma
Meningioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

MRI: cerebellar lesion, well-circumscribed
Histo: hairy cells, rosenthal fibres, granular bodies

A

Pilocytic astrocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

MRI: hemispheric lesion, non-enhancing
Genetics: IDH1/2 mutation
negligible/absent mitotic activity, vascular proliferation and necrosis absent

A

Diffuse astrocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

MRI: enhancing lesion, heterogenous
Cytology: microvascular proliferation
Histology: high mitotic activity, high cellularity, blood vessel growth

A

Glioblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

MRI: non-enhancing lesion
Cytology: fried egg cells (lots of cytoplasm)
Histology: IDH1/2 codeletion

A

Oligodendroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

MRI: enhancing lesion
Histology: attaches to the meninges, does not invade it. Globule seen

A

Meningioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Histo: small blue round cells and homer-wright rosettes

A

medulloblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

intrepithelial, intracellular oedema

A

Spongiotic inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

epidermal hyperplasia

A

psoriasiform inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

basal cell damage, interface dermatitis

A

Lichenoid inflammation

84
Q

purple/red plaques on the wrists and arms with white lines in the mouth (Wickham striae)

A

Lichen planus

85
Q

Lichen planus pathophysiology

A

T cell mediated → basal keratinocytes → loss of difference between epidermis/dermis

86
Q

Thickened epidermis, disappearance of the stratum granulosum, blood vessel dilation, munro’s abscesses seen

A

Psoriasis

87
Q

Sub-epidermal fluid with eosinophils, Anti-hemidesmosome IgG and C3

A

Bullous pemphigoid

88
Q

IgG anti-desmosomes → loss of intracellular connections
Chicken-wire pattern

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

89
Q

IgG against desmoglein-1 of the stratum corneum

A

Pemphigus foliaceus

90
Q

acanthosis, hyperparakeratosis, lichenification, crusting, scaling, T cells, eosinophil

A

Chronic eczema

91
Q

Auspitz’ sign and Koebner phenomenon

A

Auspitz’ sign: rubbing the skin causes pin-point bleeding
Koebner phenomenon: lesions form at the site of trauma
Psoriasis

92
Q

Dysplastic change affecting the bottom keratinocytes with no BM mutation, PCTH mutation

A

Basal cell carcinoma

93
Q

Pearly lesion, rolled edges, central ulceration, telengiectasia

A

Basal cell carcinoma

94
Q

Pleomorphic squamous epithelial cells arising from the epidermis and extending into the dermis

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

95
Q

Junctional melanocytes move up through the dermis (vertical growth) instead of maturing and dropping out the dermis (pagetoid spread)
Atypical Melanocytes with mitotic figures

A

Melanoma

96
Q

Lots of growth and ordered proliferation
Ordered and benign growth
“Horn cysts” – epidermis entrapping keratin

A

Seborrheic keratosis

97
Q

Cyst surrounded by squamous epithelium

A

Sebaceous cyst

98
Q

Cytology of breast shows increased neutrophils

A

Mastitis

99
Q

Cytology of breast shows empty fat spaces, neutrophilia and giant cells

A

Fat necrosis

100
Q

Cytology of the breast shows macrophages and proteinaceous material, histology shows duct dilatation and inflammation

A

Duct ectasia

101
Q

Peri-menopausal woman presents with thick yellow discharge from the nipples

A

Duct ectasia

102
Q

Multiple layers of cells with a regular lumen in the breast

A

Multiple layers of epithelial cells

103
Q

Cytology: Spindle stromal and glandular cells, naked nuclei, epithelium in antler horn clusters or honeycomb sheets
Histology: branching sheaths of epithelial cells

A

Fibroadenoma

104
Q

Lumpiness of the breast that correlates with the menstrual cycle, histology shows dilated cystic ducts

A

Fibrocystic disease

105
Q

Blood discharge from nipple

A

Intraductal papilloma

106
Q

Cytology: branching papillary group of epithelium
Histology: papillary mass in a dilated duct

A

Intraductal papilloma

107
Q

Mammogram shows stellate pattern

A

Radial scar

108
Q

Histology: peripheral proliferation of ducts and acini, central stellate pattern

A

Radial scar

109
Q

Histology: leaf like epithelial pattern

A

Phyllodes tumour

110
Q

breast cancer screening

A

47-73 years of age every 3 years

111
Q

Histology of breast: uniform cells with calcification

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ (Low grade)

112
Q

Histology of breast: microcalcifications, larger cells with fewer lumens

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ (high grade)

113
Q

Proliferation of malignant glandular epithelial cells in the nipple areolar epidermis

A

Paget’s disease of the breast

114
Q

Sheets of atypical cells, triple receptor negative

A

Basal-like cancer carcinoma

115
Q

Extracellular mucin

A

Mucinous carcinoma

116
Q

Elongated tubules invading stroma in the breast

A

Tubular carcinoma

117
Q

Linear arrangement, in single files
Monomorphic

A

lobular carcinoma

118
Q

Big pleomorphic cells, E cadherin -ve

A

Ductal carcinoma

119
Q

Most important prognostic factor for breast cancer

A

Status of axillary lymph node

120
Q

Treatment for breast cancer according to receptor presence

A

Oestrogen → tamoxifen, SERMs
HER2 → herceptin

121
Q

Staghorn calculi

A

Magnesium ammonium phosphate stones

122
Q

Common areas of stones

A

Pelvo-ureteric junction
Pelvic brim
Vesico-ureteric junction

123
Q

Histology: nodules, prostatic epithelial ducts with duct spaces

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia

124
Q

Most common prostate cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

125
Q

Most common testicular tumours

A

Germ cell tumours

126
Q

Histology of the kidney: bland epithelial cells growing in a papillary/tubopapillary pattern. well-circumscribed cortical nodules

A

Papillary adenoma

127
Q

Histology of the kidney: sheets of oncolytic cells, pink cytoplasm and nests of cells

(macroscopically = mahogany brown)

A

Oncocytoma

128
Q

Histology of the kidney: fat spaces, blood vessels, spindle cell components

A

Angiomyolipoma

129
Q

Golden yellow kidney with haemorrhages
Micro: nests of epithelium with clear cytoplasm

A

Clear cell carcinoma (RCC)

130
Q

Fragile, friable brown kidney
Papillary/tubopapillary pattern >15mm

A

Papillary renal cell carcinoma

131
Q

Solid brown kidney, well-circumscribed
Sheets of large cells with distinct borders

A

Chromophobe

132
Q

Small round blue cells
Epithelium trying to differentiate → primitive renal tubules

A

Wilm’s tumour

133
Q

Frond like growths projecting from the bladder wall, often multifocal

A

Non-invasive transitional cell carcinoma

134
Q

Bladder cancer in a pt from an endemic country for schistosomiasis

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

135
Q

Most common bladder tumour

A

Transitional cell tumour

136
Q

Loss of cancellous bone

A

Osteoporosis

137
Q

Excess unmineralised bone (osteoid)

A

Osteomalacia

138
Q

Multinucleate giant cell tumours (brown tumours) and fibrosis of bone

A

hyperparathyroidism

139
Q

Huge osteoclasts with >100 nuclei, mosaic pattern (lamellar)

A

Paget’s disease

140
Q

Cotton wool skull appearance, picture frame vertebrae, ivory vertebrae, sclerosis and lucency of pelvis

A

Paget’s disease of the bone

141
Q

Rat bite erosions on x ray

A

Gout

142
Q

chondrocalcinosis (white lines) on x ray

A

pseudogout

143
Q

Subperiosteal new bone in early disease → lytic bone destruction 10 days after

A

Osteomyelitis

144
Q

X-ray: loss of joint space, osteophytes, subchondral scerlosis, subchondral cysts

A

Osteoarthritis

145
Q

O/E: nodules at the PIPJ and DIPJ

A

PIPJ = bouchard’s nodes
DIPJ = heberden’s nodes
Osteoarthritis

146
Q

Joint swelling and pain (wrists, elbows, ankles, knees) with synovial swelling, pulmonary fibrosis, vasculitis, amyloidosis, pericarditis, SC nodules and DVT Hx

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

147
Q

O/E either: extension of the PIPJ and flexion of the DIPJ OR flexion of the PIPJ and extension of the DIPJ

A

extension of the PIPJ and flexion of the DIPJ = swan neck deformity
flexion of the PIPJ and extension of the DIPJ = boutonnieres deformity
rheumatoid arthritis

148
Q

X ray: lengthening of synovial membranes, surface synoviocyte hyperplasia, inflammatory cell infiltration, fibrin deposition, necrosis

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

149
Q

No periosteal reaction with thick endosteal reaction
Regular bone and calcification
Intraosseous

A

Benign bone neoplasm

150
Q

Acute periosteal reaction with varied bone formation
Extraosseous
Irregular calcification

A

Malignant bone neoplasm

151
Q

Cartilage tumour of the hands with either multiple enchondromas or with haemangiomas

A

Enchondroma

152
Q

X-ray: lytic lesions with cotton wool calcification, expansile, O ring sign
Histology: NORMAL cartilage, calcified matrix

A

Enchondroma

153
Q

Fibrous dysplasia, cafe au lait spots, precocious puberty, hyperthyroidism, cushing’s. acromegaly

A

McCune Albright syndrome

154
Q

Histology: Chinese letters
X ray: soap bubble osteolysis, sheperd’s crook deformity

A

Fibrous dysplasia

155
Q

Histo: normal bone
X-ray: speckled mineralisation

A

Osteoblastoma

156
Q

X-ray: normal bone
Histo: central nidus (luscent) with sclerotic rim (opaque) = bulls eye appearance

A

osteoid osteoma

157
Q

X-ray: normal bone
Multiple polyps

A

Osteoma

158
Q

X-ray: well-define bony protuberance from the bone, cartilage capped bone spur on the surface of bone (mushroom)
Histo: cartilage capped mushroom bony outgrowth

A

osteochondroma

159
Q

X-ray: lytic well defined bone

A

Simply cyst

160
Q

X-ray: Codman’s triangle, sunburst appearance
ALP raised
Histo: trabecular bone

A

Osteosarcoma

161
Q

X-ray: lytic lesion with fluffy calcification

A

Chondrosarcoma

162
Q

X-ray: onion skin appearance
Histo: small blue round cells
C99 +ve
t (11;22)

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

163
Q

X-ray: lytic/luscent lesions
Histo: soap bubble appearance, giant multinuclear osteoclasts

A

Giant cell bone malignancy

164
Q

Light microscopy: no change
Electron microscopy: loss of podocyte foot processes

A

Minimal change disease

165
Q

Light microscopy: diffuse thickening of the glomerular basement membrane
Electron microscopy: spiky subepithelial deposits and loss of podocyte foot processes

A

Membranous glomerular disease

166
Q

Light microscopy: focal and segmental scarring and consolidation, hyalinolysis
Electron microscopy: loss of podocyte foot processes

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

167
Q

Diffuse glomerular basement membrane thickening
Mesangial matrix nodules (Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules)

A

Diabetic nephropathy

168
Q

Urine dip: proteinuria
Urine Protein: creatinine ratio >300
serum albumin: low
total cholesterol: high
Immunoglobulins: low

A

Nephrotic syndrome

169
Q

Light microscopy: hypercellularity of the glomeruli
Fluorescence microscopy: granular deposits of IgG and C3
Electron microscopy: subepithelial humps

A

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

170
Q

Immunofluorescence: granular deposition of IfA and C3 in mesangium

A

IgA nephropathy (berger)

171
Q

Light microscopy: crescents in the glomeruli
Electron microscopy: Linear deposition of IgG in the GBM

A

Goodpasture’s disease (Crescenteric) glomerulonephritis

172
Q

Light microscopy: crescents in the glomeruli
Electron microscopy: IgG immune complex deposition in the GBM/mesangium, granular (lumpy /bumpy) appearance

A

Immune complex mediated (crescenteric) glomerulonephritis

173
Q

Light microscopy: crescents in the glomeruli
Electron microscopy: scanty/lack of immune complex deposition

A

Pauci-immune (GwP or microscopic polyangiitis)

174
Q

Nephritic syndrome, sensorineural deafness, cataracts

A

Alport’s (XLR, Type IV collagen alpha-5)

175
Q

asymptomatic haematuria that runs in the family

A

Thin basement membrane / benign familial haematuria (AutDom, type IV collagen alpha-4)

176
Q

Differentials for asymptomatic haematuria

A

Thin basement membrane/benign familial haematuria
IgA nephropathy (more common in asians, more likely to have a change in renal function e.g. Cr)
Alport syndrome

177
Q

Most common cause of renal AKI

A

acute tubular necrosis/acute tubular injury

178
Q

Pt with AKI and hypovolaemia, hypovolaemia is corrected but the AKI still persists

A

Acute tubular injury/necrosis

179
Q

Histo: necrosis of short segments of tubules

A

acute tubular injury/necrosis

180
Q

Histo: inflammatory infiltrate with tubular injury, eosinophils and granulomas

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

181
Q

Pt has taken NSAIDs or diuretics → day after they have fever, skin rash, haematuria, proteinuria and eosinophilia

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

182
Q

↓Hb ↓plt
↑bilirubin, ↑reticulocytes, ↑LDH
Fragmented RBCs (schistocytes) on blood smear
Coomb’s test negative

A

HUS or TTP (TTP = more CNS involvement, no renal failure)

183
Q

Most common cause of chronic renal failure

A

Diabetes

(2 = glomerulonephritis, 3 = HTN, vascular disease)

184
Q

US ovaries: ring of fire

A

Corpus luteal cysts

185
Q

HISTO: Psammoma bodies
BRCA +ve

A

Serous epithelial cystadenoma

186
Q

Histo: mucin secretion
Pseudomyxoma peritonei

A

Mucinous cystadenoma

187
Q

Histo: hobnail appearance, clear cells
PMHx: DES exposure in pregnancy, endometriosis

A

Clear cell epithelial adenoma

188
Q

testicular seminoma in women

A

Dysgerminoma

189
Q

Sex cord ovarian tumour not producing hormones

A

Fibroma

190
Q

Fibroma, pleural effusion, ascites

A

Meig’s syndrome

191
Q

Raised oestrogen, precocious puberty
Histo: call exner bodies

A

Granulosa cell tumour

192
Q

Mucin producing signet cells that affect both ovaries

A

Mets from GI → krunkenberg tumour

193
Q

Anti-dsDNA, anti-Sm, anti-smith (most specific)
If drug induced: anti-histone

A

SLE

194
Q

Histology: LE bodies, wire loop appearance of the glomeruli, onion skin lesions in the spleen, Libman-Sack endocarditis, small vessel angiopathy

A

SLE

195
Q

Histology: raised collagen in the skin and organs, onion skin thickening of arterioles

A

Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis

196
Q

Histo: inflammation within or around muscle fibres with anti-topoisomerase II (Scl-70)

A

Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis

197
Q

Histology: endomysial inflammatory infiltrate
Anti-Jo-1 positive
Raised CK
Increased risk of NHL, ovarian, pancreatic malignancy

A

Dermatomyositis

198
Q

Histology: “drop out” of capillaries and myofibre damage
Anti-Jo1 positive
Raised CK
Increased risk of NHL, lung and bladder malignancy

A

Polymyositis

199
Q

Angiogram: corkscrew appearance from segmental occlusive lesions

A

Buerger’s disease

200
Q

Angiography: microaneurysms (string of pearls/rosary bead)
Histology: fibrinoid necrosis and neutrophil infiltration
Hep B +ve

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

201
Q

(1) Upper resp tract: sinusitis, epistaxis, saddle nose
(2) Lower resp tract: cavitation, pulmonary haemorrhage
(3) Kidneys: crescentic glomerulonephritis → haematuria & proteinuria

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

202
Q

Asthma, allergic rhinitis
Eosinophilia
Later systemic involvement

A

Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

203
Q

Pulmonary renal syndrome:
(a) Pulmonary haemorrhage
(b) Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
pANCA positive

A

Microscopic polyangiitis

204
Q

Histology: non-caseating granulomas, schaumann and asteroid bodies

A

Sarcoidosis

205
Q

Raised calcium, raised ECR, raised ACE, restrictive picture on spirometry

A

Sarcoidosis

Y5 Pathology (71 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions