Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Reproduction and sexual health > HIV > Flashcards

HIV Flashcards

1
Q

What types of virus is HIV

A

retrovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What disease can HIV cause

A

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the 2 types of HIV

A

HIV 1 - responsible for global pandemic

HIV 2 - less virulent, West Africa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does HIV target molecularly

A

CD4+ receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which cells contain CD4+ receptors

A

T helper lymphocytes (CD4+ cells)
microglia
dendritic cells
macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the functions of CD4+ cells

A

activate CD8+ cells
activate B cells
recognise MHC II APCs
cytokine release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the normal CD4+ cell count

A

500-1600 cells/mm3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

below which level of CD4+ cell count is opportunistic infection a risk?

A

CD4+ < 200 cells/mm3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How long is the window of opportunity to prevent HIV after exposure

A

72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when is the onset of primary HIV

A

2-4 weeks after infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How can primary HIV present

A 
fever 
myalgia 
rash 
pharyngitis 
headaches
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Is viral replication still occurring in asymptomatic HIV

A

Yes, despite having no symptoms, virus continues to replicate and there is CD4+ cell count depletion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define opportunistic infection

A

an infection caused by a pathogen that does not normally cause disease in a healthy individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common opportunistic infection in HIV

A

Pneumocytis pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What organism causes pneumocystis pneumonia

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii / PCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

At what CD4+ cell count does pneumocystis pneumonia occur

A

<200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Prophylaxis for PCP is given to those with CD4+ <200, true or false

A

TRUE

With low dose co-trimoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does pneumocytsis pneumonia present

A

insidious onset
SOB
dry cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How can the CXR appear in PCP

A

normal

may look like CCF, infiltrative rather than lobular pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What investigations can be done for PCP

A

Exercise desaturation - exercising causes tachycardia and reduced O2 saturation
CXR
Bronchoalveolar lavage + immunofluorescence
+- PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the management of pneumocystis pneumonia

A

High dose co-trimoxazole (+steroid if hypoxic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Latent TB can reactivate with co-existing HIV, true or false

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What organism causes cerebral toxoplasmosis

A

toxoplasmosis gondii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

levels below which CD4+ cell level puts you at risk of cerebral toxoplasmosis

A

CD4+ <150 cells/mm3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How does cerebral toxoplasmosis appear on imaging
Ring enhancing lesions
26
What are symptoms of cerebral toxoplasmosis
``` headaches fever ^ICP focal neurology seizures reduced consciousness ```
27
Below which level of CD4+ cell count is CMV a risk?
< 50 cell/mm3
28
What screening occurs in those with CD4+ < 50
ophthalmic screening
29
What are symptoms of CMV infection
``` retinitis colitis - abdominal pain, PR bleeding, diarrhoea oesophagitis reduced visual acuity floaters in vision ```
30
Features of Herpes Zoster viral infection in those with HIV
multidermatomal rashes | recurrent
31
Features of Herpes simplex viral infection in those with HIV
extensive and hypertrophic | aciclovir resistant
32
What other weird skin infections can occur in HIV
penicillosis | histoplasmosis
33
What is HIV associated neurocognitive impairment
reduced short term memory with motor dysfunction brain atrophy can occur at any CD4+ cell level
34
What is progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
PML is a rapidly progressing disease with focal neurology and confusion and personality change
35
What causes PML
JC virus
36
below which CD4+ cell level does PML occur
<100 cells/mm3
37
What other conditions may be associated with HIV
``` distal sensory polyneuropathy Guillain barre syndrome mononeuritis multiplex vascular myelopathy aseptic meningitis cryptococcal meningitis neurosyphilis ```
38
What is Slim's disease
HIV associated wasting - cachectic appearance
39
Give examples of AIDS related cancers
Kaposi's sarcoma Cervical cancer Non-Hodgkins lymphoma
40
What virus causes Kaposi's sarcoma
human herpes virus 8 (HHV 8)
41
Describe Kaposi's sarcoma
``` Spongy, purple tumours vascular tumours occur at any CD4+ cell count cutaneous, mucosal, visceral eg skin, nails, palate, lungs, guts ```
42
Which virus causes Non-Hodgkins lymphoma
Eptein Barr virus EBV
43
Describe Non-Hodgkins lymphoma
Can occur at any CD4+ count bone marrow involvement B symptoms
44
Which virus causes cervical cancer
Human papilloma virus HPV
45
List some non-opportunistic HIV features
``` mucosal candidiasis (Oral, oesophageal) seborrhoeic dermatitis (eczema and fungal) diarrhoea fatigue worsening psoriasis lymphadenopathy parotitis epidemiologically linked STIs ```
46
List some haematological diseases in HIV
Anaemia of chronic disease thrombocytopaenia can occur at any CD4+ level
47
Describe modes of transmission of HIV
Sexually transmitted - MSM, W+M Parenterally transmitted - PWID, infected blood products, iatrogenic Mother to child transmission - in utero, delivery, breast feeding
48
List methods of identifying those with HIV
Universal screening - high prevalence areas Opt out testing - certain clinical settings Screening - high risk groups Clinical indicative testing - HIV is a differential
49
What are the markers of HIV
Antibody testing Antigen p24 Viral RNA
50
What is 3rd generation testing
HIV 1+2 antibody testing detects IgM and IgG 3 months window period
51
What is 4th generation testing
combined antibody and antigen p24 testing | shorter window period
52
A negative 4th generation test performed at 4 weeks post exposure is highly unlikely to exclude HIV, true or false
FALSE, it is likely to exclude HIV
53
What is the rapid HIV test
POCT fingerprick blood test results in 20-30 minutes
54
Describe the life cycle of HIV
HIV infects CD4+ cells via CCR5 receptor HIV membrane fuses with CD4+ cell membrane Reverse transcriptase converts viral RNA to DNA Integrase incorporates viral genome into the host cells Replication of genetic material occurs Assembly Protease cleaves DNA which then buds off to make new vesicles
55
Give types of reverse transcriptase target medications
Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors NRTIs Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors NNRTIs Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors NtRTIs
56
What other medications are used in HIV
Protease inhibitors Integrase inhibitors Fusion inhibitors CCR5 inhibitors
57
Mono and dual therapy is effective, true or false
FALSE | they are ineffective due to increasing resistance
58
Define HAART
Highly Active Anti Retroviral Therapy | combination of a minimum of 3 drugs from at least 2 drug classes that HIV is susceptible to
59
What are the aims of HAART
Reduce viral load to undetectable Restore immunocompetence Reduce morbidity and mortality
60
What is the single most important factor in taking HIV treatment
Adherence
61
What are some toxic effects of HAART
``` GI - transaminitis, fulminant hepatitis CNS - sleep disorders, psychosis, mood Skin - rash, hypersensitivity Renal - stones, proximal tubulopathies Bone - osteomalacia CVS - MI risk Haematology - anaemia ```
62
Protease inhibitors are potent liver enzyme inducers/inhibitors?
inhibitors
63
NNRTIs are potent liver enzyme inducers/inhibitors?
Inducers
64
Partner notification is a voluntary process, true or false
TRUE
65
List methods of preventing transmission
``` Condoms HIV treatment STI screening and treatment partner disclosure PEP - Post exposure prophylaxis PrEP - Pre exposure prophylaxis ```
66
Can couples with HIV conceive normally
Yes as long as they are on HAART
67
explain reasons for different delivery methods in pregnant mothers with HIV
undetectable load --> vaginal birth | detectable load --> c-section
68
How long does a neonate get PEP for
4 weeks
69
Breast feeding is allowed in HIV mothers, true or false
FALSE, breast feeding is absolutely contraindicated
70
What are the eligibility criteria for PrEP
``` >= 16yo HIV negative commits to 3 monthly appointments willing to stop if eligibility criteria no longer apply Scottish resident ```
71
What are the high risk factors for getting HIV
HIV + partner with detectable load MSM UPAI >=2 partners in last year and likely to do so again in next 3 months confirmed bacterial rectal STI in last year other high risk factors

Reproduction and sexual health (46 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions