Homework Questions Review Flashcards
1
Q
What is the paraphysiologic space?
A
The space between passive ROM and destruction of anatomic barriers
2
Q
Components of the set-up include: (choose all that apply)
A
Dr. position , Patient position , Dr. contact point , Patient contact point
3
Q
Why is your body position important?
A
to protect you from injury and provide the correct line of drive
4
Q
What muscles should the Dr. use to make a HVLA thrust (most commonly)?
A
Triceps and pectorals
5
Q
If a manipulation does not restore normal ROM you should
A
make no more than 2 or 3 attempts at manipulation in one day
6
Q
What is a contraindication for manipulation?
A
joint laxity
7
Q
The secondary cervical curve is in the ______________cervical region.
A
Lower
8
Q
When the neck goes into extension
A
the diameter of both the IVF and the canal decrease
9
Q
Cranial nerve VI is the ______________________ nerve.
A
abducens
10
Q
The ventral plate of the spinal cord carries mostly _____________________ information.
A
Motor
11
Q
Three parts of the MSC are
A
intrafusal fibers, Ia sensory neuron and gamma motor neuron
12
Q
What do GTOs monitor?
A
Contraction
13
Q
When the GTO is stimulated what effect does it create on the muscle?
A
Relaxation
14
Q
Ia fibers synapse directly to alpha motor neurons. This
A
increases the speed of transmission
15
Q
What do the MSCs monitor?
A
Stretch
16
Q
Why is it important for us to use a high velocity for the manipulation?
A
To stimulate the golgi tendon organs
17
Q
Where are GTOs (golgi tendon organs) located?
A
At the musculotendinous junction
18
Q
One way to increase stability is to move the center of gravity
A
lower
19
Q
One way to increase the force of a movement is to ___________ the range of motion.
A
increase
20
Q
The stretch shortening cycle is
A
eccentric loading of the muscle just prior to concentric action to increase the force produced
21
Q
Why is it important to spend 10-20 minutes in walk prior to training?
A
Tendons are viscoelastic so cyclic loading makes them less stiff to withstand load.
22
Q
Why do some movements begin with a counter-movement?
A
To generate more force
23
Q
Which muscle action generates the most force?
A
eccentric
24
Q
What enables the muscle spindle cell to be effective at all muscle lengths?
A
the gamma motor neuron or gamma gain
25
What is the effect of a slow, prolonged stretch on a muscle via the Ia afferents?
It rests the muscle to a new longer length
26
You are presented with a patient that is reluctant to bend its neck to the left and has very tense muscles in the lower cervical region. It is also mildly ataxic. The owner says that it fell while running outside. What should you do?
Pursue further diagnostics which may include radiographs of the neck
27
Why is it important for an animal to stand with its feet evenly under its body i.e. square?
it is the most energy efficient and balanced
28
What is the main goal of proprioceptive systems?
to keep the animal upright
29
Why does closing your eyes make it difficult to balance?
closing your eyes take away the horizon line
30
When an animal jumps, just before take off it flexes the joints of the hind limbs in other words it uses a counter-movement. Why do they use a counter-movement?
to increase the force generated by the hind limbs
31
Why is prolonged stretching contraindicated before exercise?
it resets the muscle spindle cells to a longer length and creates joint laxity
32
The _____________ and ______________ muscles close the mouth and the ____________muscle helps grind the food (lateral excursion)
masseter, temporalis, pytergoids
33
What muscle is responsible for rotation of C1on C2?
obliquus capitis caudalis
34
Muscles that lift the lower cervical curve include
splenius, scalenes and serratus ventralis
35
What muscle attaches at the transverse processes of C3-T3 to the mastoid process of the skull and the atlas?
longissimus capitis
36
What muscle consists of 5 muscle bundles per segment and lies on ventral aspect of the cervical spine?
longus colli
37
What muscles act as stabilizers for the scapulohumeral joint?
supraspinatus and infraspinatus
38
What are the attachments and action for the biceps brachii muscle?
Supraglenoid tubercle to the radial tuberosity and its action is to extend the shoulder joint and flex the elbow joint
39
Poor hoof balance can effect spinal manipulation by
making the restrictions recur quickly i.e. the adjustments will not last
40
The origins and insertions of the scalene are
C4-C7 to first rib
41
Is it possible for a cervical adjustment to improve a distal limb lameness?
Yes
42
Restrictions of the hyoid also affect the _____________ joint.
Tempormandibular
43
As the front limb extends during weight-bearing the carpal bones go in
Dorsal Translation
44
A horse that braces his brachiocephalicus pushes the larynx in to the tongue. What other structure will be affected?
Hyoid
45
Cranial nerve XI innervates
Brachiocephalic muslce
46
T/F Increasing nociception and perpetuating inflammatory factor are two ways the sympathetics can promote the subluxation complex
T
47
What motions are possible in the distal interphalangeal joint (coffin joint)?
flexion/extension, abduction/adduction, rotation and translation only
48
Which cervical motion segment (unit) has facets angled almost horizontally so that your line of correction needs to be lateral to medial?
C6/7
49
Low gamma gain can lead to tendon injury
outside of the normal range of motion
50
The left TMJ is painful to palpation, the restriction is most likely on the _____________.
right
51
Which muscle fills the dorsal arch of the atlas?
Obliquus capitis caudalis
52
What is the main action of the triceps muscle?
Extend the elbow
53
The stretch shortening cycle is
eccentric loading of the muscle just prior to concentric action to increase the force produced
54
Shunt stability is
Ability to contract the core muscles before a movement begins
55
How does head position affect the sympathetics?
lowering the head stimulates the parasympathetics and calms the sympathetics
56
Which mechanoreceptors inhibit or cause relaxation to the muscle that they are in?
GTOs
57
To adjust a lateral scapula you must be on a bale on the side opposite the restriction.
FALSE
58
Why does a horse lower its center of gravity when working, especially when the base of support is small?
To increase stability
59
During a jump, when is the trajectory of flight determined?
At take off
60
When a patient shows signs of TND you should
stop treatment for the day
61
What are the attachments and actions for the subclavius?
From the sternum and costal cartilages 1 through 4 to the supraspinatus and to shoulder fascia its action is to stabilize the shoulder and suspend the trunk
62
What is maladaptive pain?
pain that persists after the injury is healed
63
When a horse consistently lands after a jump with the right front foot forward it may indicate
The right front is sore
64
Why does a newborn foal have a different gait pattern than an adult?
The nervous system tracts involved in limb co-ordination don’t fully develop until a few weeks after birth
65
One way to increase stability is to move the center of gravity
lower
66
When adjusting the front limb
the limb should be non-weight bearing
67
Horses that race at a gallop use their back differently than horses that race at a trot or pace. Which pairing is correct?
gallop uses flexion/extension of the LS junction
68
In a normal horse at the walk, the head should move in a _______________________ pattern.
Figure 8
69
What is a complex joint?
a joint with 2 or more articular surfaces and a disc
70
T/F The neck should be in extension during motion palpation.
F
71
Injury or inflammation of which ligament can affect the contents of the IVF?
Ligamentum flavum
72
How does pain affect the sympathetics?
stimulates
73
When a horse begins to gallop the center of rotation of the hind limb moves from _____ to the _________.
Coxofemoral joint, Lumbosacral joint
74
If a manipulation does not restore normal ROM you should
make no more than 2 or 3 attempts at manipulation in one day
75
What are the attachments for the serratus ventralis cervicus?
Medial scapula to transverse process of C4-7
76
A restriction can cause patchy sweating due to
reflex connection to the sympathetic nervous system
77
Why does rubbing or shaking an injured part help decrease pain?
motion stimulates the Ia fibers which inhibit nociception
78
What enables the muscle spindle cell to be effective at all muscle lengths?
the gamma motor neuron or gamma gain
79
Where does pain occur?
in the brain
80
What is the line of correction (LOC) for a TMJ dorsal compartment?
Lateral to medial
81
The origins and insertions of the omohyoidius are
Subscapular fascia to lingual process of basihyoid bone
82
A horse’s jumping style
Is conserved from a young age
83
The origins and insertions of the omotransversarius are:
C2-4 to shoulder fascia
84
Extension of the thoracolumbar spine may be due to
contraction of the epaxial muscles, protraction of the forelimbs and elevating the head
85
What is a contraindication for manipulation?
joint laxity
86
When a horse consistently lands after a jump with the right front foot forward it may indicate
the right front is sore
87
What is the paraphysiologic space?
the space between passive ROM and destruction of anatomic barriers
88
What effect does vibration therapy have on delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS), jump performance and flexibility?
it improves all three
89
Why does a newborn foal have a different gait pattern than an adult?
the nervous system tracts involved in limb co-ordination don’t fully develop until a few weeks after birth
90
The origins and insertions of the omohyoidius are
subscapular fascia to lingual process of basihyoid bone
91
After a limb injury it is important to train
abdominal muscles
92
When adjusting the front limb
the limb should be non-weight bearing
93
The scalenes can contribute to flexing or lifting the lower cervical curve because they attach to
C4-C7 to first rib
94
The intercapital ligament
attaches at the neck of the rib, passes thru the vertebral canal to the opposite rib
95
What is the most common cause for inflammation that lasts longer than expected?
a premature return to training
96
How many articular surfaces are found on most thoracic vertebrae?
12
97
As speed of the movement increases, the accuracy ________.
decreases
98
What is the most cranial dorsal spinous process that you can palpate in the thoracic spine?
T3
99
What muscle attaches at the caudal sacral and first coccygeal vertebrae to the tuber ischium and then on to the cranial tibia and calcaneus?
semitendinosus
100
Ribs articulate with the vertebrae
caudal to the rib via a costovertebral and a costotransverse articulation
101
When the GTO is stimulated what effect does it create on the muscle?
relaxation
102
Typically, how long should we hold the muscles in a stretched position to decrease spasm?
30-60 seconds
103
What is the patient contact point when manipulating C3 thru C6?
lamina-pedicle junction
104
What initiates swing in the hind limb?
hip extension and stretch of the flexor muscles
105
Negative dissociation or negative displacement means that
the front feet land earlier in the stride cycle than expected
106
The omotransversarius is closely associated with the brachiocephalicus and its attachments are
C2-4 to shoulder fascia
107
T/F Increasing nociception and perpetuating inflammatory factors are two ways the sympathetics can promote the subluxation complex
TRUE
108
Which part of the quadriceps femoris can flex the hip joint as well as extend the stifle?
rectus femoris
109
Name two hip flexors that attach at the lesser trochanter of the femur.
psoas and iliacus
110
To make the horse’s gait more energy efficient
the bulk of the muscle mass is in the upper limb, the distal limb is light and the limb folds during swing
111
Giving a horse with back pain six months of rest with turnout is likely to
have little effect of the back pain and result in atrophy of the longissimus muscle
112
Why do we pull away, yell and get hot when we hit our thumb with a hammer?
pain stimulates the withdrawal reflex, the limbic area of the brain and causes an autonomic response.
113
Which set of limbs is better suited for utilization of the stretch shortening cycle?
pelvic limbs
114
To run faster
the horse needs to generate higher ground reaction force
115
Is laser therapy useful after tendon injury to aid in healing?
Yes
116
How does the motion of the back at walk differ from the back motion at trot?
there is less movement overall at the trot
117
Ia fibers synapse directly to alpha motor neurons. This
increases the speed of transmission
118
The serratus ventralis cervicus is another muscle that lifts or flexes the lower cervical curve. Its attachments are:
medial scapula to transverse process of C4-7
119
It is important to strengthen the muscles around the thoracolumbar spine
to provide dynamic stabilization and help prevent injury
120
Effective feed-back is dependent on ____________________.
high gamma gain
121
The sympathetic trunk in the thorax runs near
the rib heads
122
A hypertonic psoas muscle
can stimulate the sympathetic nervous system and make the horse nervous or anxious
123
After thoracolumbar injury, changes in the multifidus can be seen after
one day
124
When a patient shows signs of TND you should
stop treatment for the day
125
What aids circulation of lymph?
movement
126
The psoas major muscle attaches
the last ribs and lumbar vertebrae to the lesser trochanter of the femur
127
What is the primary factor in proper oxygenation?
mechanical movement of the ribs and spine
128
How can a horse compensate when it does not have enough core strength to lift its forehand?
raise its head and neck to help lift the forehand
129
What effect does knee effusion have on the quadriceps in humans?
decrease neuromuscular control
130
The neck should be in extension during motion palpation.
FALSE
131
Psoas hypertonicity can lead to
pain on palpation of the lumbosacral joint, ventral pressure over the SI joint and a shortened caudal phase of stride
132
The biceps femoris, semitendinosus and the semimembranosus all have two origins, what are they?
the lumbar and/or coccygeal vertebrae and the tuber ischium
133
T/F Proprioceptive training can help reduce the risk of injury.
TRUE
134
The key role of the psoas muscle is
to stabilize the SI joint
135
Why do the dorsal spinous processes of the cranial thoracics (withers) slant caudally?
to resist the pull of the nuchal ligament
136
What do GTOs monitor?
contraction
137
Ia fiber stimulation results in (3)
stimulation of the same muscle, stimulation of synergistic muscles and inhibition of antagonistic muscle
138
Inflammation helps the healing process by
bringing in cells to aid in the clean up and repair process
139
What is the line of correction (LOC) for a TMJ dorsal compartment?
lateral to medial
140
What are the attachments and action for the deltoideus?
the scapular spine and caudal border of the scapula to the humerus and its action is to flex the shoulder joint and abduct the limb
141
A central pattern generator is
neural network that is capable of generating rhythmic motor activity in the absence of sensory feedback.
142
Restrictions at ______________ or _________________ are most likely to affect cranial nerves.
TMJ or Hyoid
143
Feed-forward depends on
Prior experience
144
When an animal jumps, just before take off, it flexes the joints of the hind limbs in other words it uses a counter-movement. Why do they use a counter-movement?
to increase the force generated by the hind limbs
145
How does cold therapy affect the muscle spindle function, nerve conduction and muscle force production?
decreases all three
146
Why is it important for us to use a high velocity for the manipulation?
to stimulate the golgi tendon organs
147
What effect does therapeutic ultrasound have on tissue?
therapeutic ultrasound warms the tissue
148
Choice effect is:
with many choices available the response is slower until the nervous system develops parallel processing pathways
149
When a horse is worked in collection over time is bottom line becomes
deeper in the flank
150
The double curve of the ribs is important because
it allows movement of the ribs to expand the thoracic cavity
151
What are three muscles of inspiration?
external intercostal, serratus dorsalis cranialis and rectus thoracis
152
T/F To adjust a lateral scapula, you must be on a bale on the side opposite the restriction.
FALSE
153
Why is it important for an animal to stand with its feet evenly under its body i.e. square?
it is the most energy efficient and balanced
154
A horse that is sore on the left side of his back will make the rider saddle shift
to the right
155
A bilateral restriction of C5 may indicate a problem with the _________.
diaphragm
156
Feed-forward mechanisms are
fast because they anticipate movement
157
Muscles that attach to the tuber coxae include:
tensor fascia lata, external abdominal oblique and superficial gluteal
158
The muscle fibers of the serratus ventralis thoracis run from craniodorsal to caudoventral. At its ventral aspect it meets with another muscle that has the same orientation (its fibers run craniodorsal to caudoventral) and is a muscle of expiration. That muscle is the_______?
external abdominal oblique
159
What muscles can flex the hip?
Tensor fascia lata, psoas (major) and superficial gluteal
