Hostage Plan

Question 1

In a confirmed hostage situation, the _______________ will be immediately notified by Communications.

Answer 1

SWAT commander or designee

Question 2

In a confirmed hostage situation, once the ____________ and team arrive at the scene, the ____________________________ will assume command of all tactical operations, inner perimeter control, and will coordinate all contact with the hostage taker through the Crisis Negotiation Team (CNT)

Answer 2

SWAT commander/SWAT commander (captain) or the SWAT tactical commander (SWAT lieutenant)

Question 3

During a confirmed hostage situation, the _____________ will also retain command of the incident command post (ICP), staging area, secondary perimeter, and other police operations. The mere presence of senior officers will not imply the assumption of command.

Answer 3

Patrol supervisor

Question 4

During a confirmed hostage situation, once the SWAT team deploys and takes command of the inner perimeter, or if the hostage taker becomes mobile, the deployment of tactical assets, apprehension of the hostage taker, and rescue of the hostages is maintained by the ______________ until the situation is resolved.

Answer 4

SWAT commander

Question 5

During a confirmed hostage situation, Patrol officer will:

Answer 5

1. Arrive at the incident scene and take steps to slow the
   momentum, de-escalate, and protect human life. Attempt to avoid
   confrontation in favor of controlling and containing the situation.
2. Seal off the area as soon as possible. Isolate the critical zone to the
   smallest possible area by creating an inner perimeter.
3. Advise Dispatch of critical information.

Question 6

During a confirmed hostage situation, Patrol supervisor will:

Answer 6

1. Upon arrival, assess the situation and take command by
   prioritizing and communicating objectives.
2. Reinforce the inner perimeter and establish a secondary
   perimeter based on the nature of the incident.
3. Direct units to stop any inbound foot or vehicle traffic.
4. Assign officers as an immediate-action team (designating roles
   such as verbal communication, low lethality options, hands on,
   etc.) to control the subject should the subject surrender, release
   the hostage or exit the structure.
5. Evacuate or shelter-in-place bystanders and injured persons from
   the vicinity around the suspect’s location
6. Designate an officer with strong verbal skills to make contact with
   the hostage taker to determine their intent and solicit information
   on the well-being of hostages. If contact is made with the subject,
   ensure officers remain in a tactically sound position, using
   effective cover and concealment. Efforts should be made to
   persuade the suspect to voluntarily surrender.
   a. Prior to the arrival of SWAT/CNT, there will be no
   negotiations for the supply of weapons, ammunition, drugs,
   alcohol, or exchange of hostages.
7. Request a dedicated radio channel with a dispatcher, if required.
8. Communicate with and direct subsequent arriving supervisors to
   perform other tasks that require handling.
   a. Any subsequent arriving supervisor will assess and
   determine where they are needed and establish
   communication with the first arriving supervisor to provide
   support. All supervisors on-scene have a responsibility in the
   command and control process.
9. Designate an officer to record names and addresses of persons
   and residences evacuated

Question 7

DEFINITION: Done to protect first responders from any possible devices that may be placed to injure, maim, and kill them upon arrival. These searches should be conducted from low-to-high in a 360-degree manner around the “safe area.” When responding to a bomb threat, unattended item, or suspicious item, officers should conduct 25- and 100-foot searches.
1. Upon arrival officers should do a visual search of 25 feet around
their initial arrival location;
2. After the initial 25-foot search, a 100-foot search should be
conducted;
3. If a new location is established for a command post, the 25- and
100-footsearches will be conducted again. The use of an EDD
should be utilized if available.

Answer 7

25-foot and 100-foot searches

Question 8

If LVMPD receives initial information of a bomb threat/extortion, the __________________ will be notified by detectives as soon as possible.

Answer 8

Target individual or establishment

Question 9

All decisions regarding compliance with extortion demands will be made by the ______________________.

Answer 9

Representative of the establishment

Question 10

If a bomb threat is received a patrol supervisor will _______________.

Answer 10

Respond to the scene as necessary

Question 11

If a bomb threat against a vehicle is received a patrol officer will:

Answer 11

1. Conduct a threat assessment prior to making any approach to the
   vehicle.
2. Attempt to determine the existence of a device through a prompt
   preliminary investigation prior to requesting ARMOR.
3. Conduct a visual inspection of the inside and underside of the
   vehicle without opening doors, trunk, or hood. A booby-trapped
   vehicle could mean serious injury or death to the officer and
   bystanders.
4. Request ARMOR supervisor through Communications supervisor if
   anything suspicious is located.

Question 12

In the event a bomb threat is called in against LVMPD headquarters (HQ), radio silence will be maintained. HQ operations will not be disrupted, and personnel will not be evacuated without justification as determined by __________________.

Answer 12

Officers on scene

Question 13

Bomb threat assessment:

Answer 13

1. When did the item show up?
2. How long has it been there? (Surveillance video? Witnesses?)
3. Did anyone see the person who left the item?
4. Where is it placed? (In front of any Strip hotel or in an abandoned
   dirt lot? Entryway or exits? Crowded waiting area?)
5. How is it placed? (Does it look like it was deliberately hidden in a
   populated area?)
6. Have there been any recent threats?
7. What does the item look like? (Wires, switches, modifications,
   sounds, exceedingly heavy looking, any other suspicious
   indicators?)
8. If you feel the item is clear based on the totality of the
   circumstances? Did an explosive detection dog (EDD) alert on the
   item?
9. People and property are the most valued targets by terrorists
10. Is the item suspicious, abandoned, or temporarily unattended?

Question 14

During a bomb threat what is the 5-Line Report?

Answer 14

1. Specific location of the suspect item: This will help determine the
   command post (CP), route to staging, and assist in establishing a
   good perimeter.
2. Unit number/cell number of officer or patrol supervisor on scene:
   the ARMOR commander will need to contact the officer on scene
   to gather intelligence prior to dispatching resources.
3. Detailed description of item, photo (if available), and placement
   method: size, shape, container, was it thrown, placed, projected,
   etc.
4. Description of what resources, person(s) or critical infrastructure is
   threatened: Utility facility (water, power, gas, etc.), crowds, etc.
5. Protective measures taken: Perimeter, CP location, staging area, all
   actions taken.

Question 15

During a bomb threat a patrol officer will:

Answer 15

1. Respond to the scene and conduct preliminary investigation.
2. Perform an initial 25-foot search around the arrival area, then a
   100-foot search around the arrival area, to include the CP and
   staging area.
3. Establish a perimeter utilizing the FBI Bomb Threat Stand-Off Card
   (distances should be based on the recommendations of the
   Threat Description section on the card).
4. Search the area around the CP for secondary devices.
5. Gather and control witnesses as well as start voluntary
   statements.

Question 16

When the incident commander (IC) or on-scene supervisor determines a suspicious object is a suspected explosive device, __________ will be called to coordinate the appropriate resources (e.g., Las Vegas Fire and Rescue Bomb Squad, Nellis AFB Explosive Ordnance Disposal Team, etc.) and said resources will “render
safe” the item and make the situation harmless

Answer 16

ARMOR

Question 17

During a bomb threat a supervisor will:

Answer 17

1. Respond to and assume command of the scene. The field
   supervisor or senior officer in charge will remain at the scene to
   brief the ARMOR supervisor of all relevant matters. Establish
   Incident Command System (ICS) in accordance with LVMPD 3.500,
   Major Incident and All Hazard Plan and completes ICS-AAR as
   required.
2. Contact the ARMOR supervisor through Communications
   supervisor.
3. When requesting ARMOR, advise a responsible person from the
   establishment of the potential for explosion and initiate an
   evacuation of the premises. At least two floors above and below
   the device should be evacuated in a high-rise building.
   a. Failure to respond to an evacuation order is a violation of
   NRS 475.070.
   b. If a person is not readily available or able to easily be
   evacuated and is not in harm’s way based on the
   information of the threat and is outside the mandatory
   evacuation zone listed on the FBI Bomb Threat Stand-Off
   Card, the person may shelter in place. However, if they are
   in the mandatory evacuation zone, they must be evacuated
   to safety.
4. Assign an additional officer to the primary location (see Command
   and Control section) to assist in communications.
5. Remain at scene with the additional officer to assist ARMOR and
   prevent unauthorized access to the location of the device.

Question 18

______ command and control locations will be established when a device or suspected device is located.

Answer 18

Two

Question 18

Two command and control locations will be established when a device or suspected device is located. They are:

Answer 18

1. The Tactical Operations Center will be in the vicinity of the device
   determined suitable by ARMOR supervisor. Command of the
   primary location and all personnel assigned to it will rest solely
   with the ranking ARMOR member. The overall incident command
   will remain with the patrol IC.
2. The field command post (CP) will be operated and staffed, and a
   staging area established as for any unusual occurrence, by LVMPD
   personnel, who will oversee all field operations in connection with
   the explosive. Investigative personnel will report to the field CP or
   staging area as directed, when arriving at the scene.

Question 19

Officers on the perimeter of the crime scene will conduct ________________ searches around the exterior. Investigative personnel will assist in the search for any secondary devices with the EDD, ensuring that the interior of the scene is safe from any explosive hazards.

Answer 19

25-foot and 100-foot

Question 20

At the post blast scene of a bomb detonation a patrol officer will:

Answer 20

1. Respond to the scene and provide any emergency assistance as
   required.
2. Conduct preliminary investigation.
3. Establish, at a minimum, 300-foot perimeter from any item that
   they can visually identify as evidence.
4. Conduct 25-foot and 100-foot searches around the perimeter for
   secondary devices.
5. Search CP for secondary devices.
6. Gather and control witnesses and complete voluntary statements.
7. Complete ICR.

Question 21

At the post blast scene of a bomb detonation a patrol supervisor will:

Answer 21

1. Contact the ARMOR supervisor through Communications
   supervisor.
2. Coordinate with ARMOR for instructions regarding adjustment of
   the perimeter and other scene control concerns.
3. Determine the appropriate support personnel needed for security
   of the scene.
4. Maintain the perimeter until released by the ranking member of
   ARMOR, or the investigator functioning as liaison for ARMOR.
5. Determine the need for an EDD to search for a second device (this
   request can come from ARMOR).

Question 22

During a bomb investigation, for investigations involving deaths, the Homicide Section will:

Answer 22

1. Assume command of the death investigation. ARMOR will
   maintain control of the post-blast investigation.
2. Coordinate with the ranking ARMOR member regarding the crime
   scene investigation. ARMOR will conduct any post-blast
   investigation under the direction of the ranking detective.

Question 23

CBRNE

Answer 23

Chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, explosive

Question 24

DEFINTION: The systematic removal of person(s) from hazardous situation or environment (inside the designated contaminated area). Rescues in the contaminated area will only be conducted by properly equipped personnel.

Answer 24

Rescue

Question 25

The ______ is designated as the lead agency for all WMD/CBRNE incidents (Presidential Decision Directive 39 - PDD39).

Answer 25

FBI

Question 26

The FBI is designated as the lead agency for all WMD/CBRNE incidents per what Presidential Directive?

Answer 26

Presidential Decision Directive 39 - PDD39

Question 27

CBRNE: LVMPD personnel will assist in securing the scene and preserving evidence and will not enter a contaminated area unless ___________________.

Answer 27

Properly equipped

Question 28

Officers should approach any scene of an explosion as a possible _____________. They should be cautious until the cause of the explosion has been confirmed and be alert for the presence of secondary devices.

Answer 28

Criminal act

Question 29

Officers should approach any scene of an explosion as a possible criminal act. They should be cautious until the cause of the explosion has been confirmed and be alert for the presence of __________________.

Answer 29

Secondary devices

Question 30

If an incident results in multiple casualties (in excess of ____), the Clark County Mass Casualty Plan will be implemented.

Answer 30

20

Question 31

Incidents involving hazardous materials or WMD can have rapid and far-reaching effects. Necessary measures should be taken to:

Answer 31

1. Secure the area from the public. 2. Attempt to make a preliminary identification of the hazardous substance(s), if possible. This should be done from a safe distance without placing the member in any danger. 3. Assist the fire department in removing injured persons from the area by ensuring ingress and egress routes are available for the necessary responding emergency vehicles. Members should not expose themselves to a known contaminated area without the proper protective equipment. 4. Isolate those who may have had contact with hazardous materials, for further examination. 5. Keep personnel out of smoke, dust, or fumes. 6. Detour vehicular traffic around the scene to prevent contact and dispersion of hazardous contaminants. 7. Prohibit eating, drinking, or smoking in the area. Food or drink that may have been in contact with the material involved will not be consumed. 8. Limit activities at the scene to those who are competent in the field.

Question 32

The ___________ and other CAHRT members will become the lead investigations when the incident is intentional or may possibly be intentional.

Answer 32

ARMOR section

Question 33

CBRNE: First LVMPD member on scene will:

Answer 33

1. Stay upwind from the scene and will not expose themself to a designated contaminated area without the proper protective equipment. 2. Use the best information available from the appropriate fire department or Department of Transportation’s Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) to set up a security perimeter and establish the designated contaminated area(s). 3. Evaluate the situation and inform the Communications Bureau of the details, including: a. Location b. Type of hazardous material (if determined) c. Carrier, make and type d. Injuries e. Need for additional assistance f. Wind direction.

Question 34

CBRNE: First supervisor on the scene will:

Answer 34

1. Establish a command post (at a safe distance upwind from the scene). 2. Assign second or third unit arriving at the command post to check the immediate area for possible secondary devices. The officer(s) conducting the check should not touch suspicious objects. The locations that have been thoroughly checked should be marked so the explosive-detector dogs or bomb squad can eliminate those not marked as threats. 3. Review established security perimeter and ensure no personnel are deployed in a designated contaminated area without proper protective equipment. 4. Determine the need for an outer perimeter depending on the circumstances of the incident. 5. Coordinate the evacuation of the area downwind of the spillage or suspected spillage, with the ARMOR Section or fire department, in accordance with the Table of Isolation and Evacuation Distances found in the ERG. Department members will not conduct rescues without utilizing the proper protective equipment and being trained in its use. 6. Request Communications to make notifications.

Question 35

CBRNE: ARMOR Section will:

Answer 35

1. Establish unified tactical operations with all agencies represented. 2. Advise patrol supervisors of the perimeter size based on the threat. 3. Request other agencies (i.e., FBI, ATF, Civil Support Team [CST], Las Vegas Fire and Rescue arson/bomb squad) as needed based on totality of the circumstances. 4. Assess, monitor, sample/test, identify, mitigate, and investigate all CBRNE threats alone or with other supporting agencies. 5. Coordinate mass casualty decontamination of officers, civilian personnel and citizens. 6. Coordinate hazardous materials cleanup if required

Question 36

CBRNE: Area command personnel will:

Answer 36

1. Secure perimeter as directed for crowd control. 2. Assist emergency personnel as directed by the command post. 3. Deliver Personal Protective Equipment Readiness Kit (PRK) to the incident command post. 4. Limit access inside the perimeter to those authorized by the command post. 5. Attempt to identify and interview possible witnesses. (On several WMD incidents, the suspect has stayed in the area as an observer after the attack.

Question 37

Protests DEFINITION: A safety zone maintained by officers which creates distance and space between opposing groups.

Answer 37

Buffer zone

Question 38

Protests DEFINITION: A lawful public expression of objection, disapproval, or dissent toward an idea or action.

Answer 38

Peaceful Demonstration

Question 39

Protests DEFINITION: Nonviolent protest where there is an intentional breach of the law.

Answer 39

Civil Disobedience

Question 40

Protests DEFINITION: An assembly that constitutes a clear and present danger of violent or unlawful acts, including, civil unrest, destruction of property, arson, looting, or when another immediate threat to public safety, peace, or order appears.

Answer 40

Riot

Question 41

The department’s response to protests (peaceful demonstration, civil disobedience, or riot) will emphasize the concept of ________________ (see LVMPD 3.110, Use of Force) where the department’s intent is to slow down and stabilize any conflict as safely as possible by reducing danger through the use of verbal persuasion, tactics, and resources.

Answer 41

De-escalation

Question 42

Ideally, police action in peaceful demonstrations will be minimal, and the department’s primary role will be to assist in the ____________________.

Answer 42

Safe movement of the crowd

Question 43

When it is necessary to implement crowd management measures or take enforcement action, it should be an organized and well-communicated effort involving _______________ and ________________.

Answer 43

Multiple officers/Supervisory oversight

Question 44

The department utilizes the _____________________ as a standard tool for command, control, response coordination, and overall management of complex incidents, planned events, or emergencies (for further guidelines and tasks). ________ will be implemented in LVMPD’s response to protests.

Answer 44

Incident Command Structure (ICS)/ICS

Question 45

________________________ are responsible for attempting communication with protest organizers or leaders.

Answer 45

Department supervisors

Question 46

____________________ will attempt to communicate with professional members of the media and legal observers (or their liaison).

Answer 46

Department supervisors

Question 47

In labor disputes, officers __________ enter the property where a protest is occurring, except for official business.

Answer 47

Should not

Question 48

During a protest, officers will refrain from personal cell phone usage and will neither take photographs of the protest nor pose with protesters

Answer 48

True

Question 49

When responding to an unplanned or spontaneous protest or large public gathering, first-responding officer will conduct an assessment of conditions, including:

Answer 49

1. Location 2. Number of participants 3. Apparent purpose of the event 4. Identity of event organizers 5. Any initial indicators of unlawful or disruptive activity 6. Presence of counter-protesters

Question 50

Protests: When an event requires continuous oversight or monitoring by a supervisor, the supervisor will assign themselves as the ___________________.

Answer 50

Incident Commander (IC)

Question 51

Upon responding to a protest, the supervisor or IC will evaluate the current and evolving conditions. In addition to the conditions noted by the first-responding officer(s), the supervisor or IC will assess:

Answer 51

1. Any evolving threat to public safety 2. Protection and preservation of citizens’ civil rights 3. Unlawful actions or violations of laws or ordinances, if any, of protesters 4. Movement of vehicular traffic and pedestrian safety concerns 5. Impact of protest on business and commerce 6. Level of communication and cooperation with event organizers, legal observers, and professional members of the media 7. Anticipated duration of the event 8. Positioning of officers and crowd management tactics, including the need to designate units for overwatch 9. Need for the authorization of police protective gear 10. Need for additional units or resources (e.g., in-the-box squads, Traffic, Emergency Management, SWAT) 11. Need for a scribe to record operational decisions and actions (including logging use of force by officers) 12. Need to video record protest activities (either by BWCs or handheld recorder) 13. Necessity for medical assistance to be staged nearby 14. Environmental factors (e.g., weather and street conditions)

Question 52

Protests: At minimum, the _______________ will be made aware of the protest that requires continuous oversight.

Answer 52

Area command captain

Question 53

Protests: Dispatch will make appropriate notifications and requests for additional resources relayed by the ______.

Answer 53

IC

Question 54

Protests: As circumstances warrant, the ________ will provide periodic updates through the chain of command, relaying information to senior command staff regarding the event.

Answer 54

IC

Question 55

Protests: s. The IC and supervisors are responsible to ensure that all orders given to a crowd are ____________, __________, and __________ for the circumstances

Answer 55

Consistent/Lawful/Appropriate

Question 56

Protests: When confronting a dangerous crowd or a situation where public safety has been compromised, the department will declare it an unlawful assembly and attempt to provide orders to disperse at least __________, giving demonstrators ample time to leave the area.

Answer 56

Three times

Question 57

Protests: If there is an immediate threat of physical harm or death to a person, then _____________ must be provided.

Answer 57

No order to disperse

Question 58

Protests: If there is an immediate threat of harm to property, then _______________ must be provided.

Answer 58

Only one order to disperse

Question 59

Protests: The determination to give the order to disperse is the responsibility of the _____ upon consultation with the on-scene lieutenant.

Answer 59

IC

Question 60

Protests: The ______________ will be logged by the IC and the Communications Bureau channel dispatcher.

Answer 60

Order to disperse

Question 61

Protests: The IC should attempt to document and record the ______________ on BWC to include the time, location, and officer issuing the order.

Answer 61

Dispersal order announcement

Question 62

Protests: Once an order to disperse is announced, _______________ or ______________ must witness the event from a distance outside the area of the dispersal order that does not interfere with police operations.

Answer 62

Professional members of the media/Legal observers

Question 63

Protests: Persons with a prohibited weapon or in possession of items prohibited at a protest (e.g., improvised weapon, filled balloon, stick, baseball bat, PVC pipe, brick, glass bottle, shield, etc.) will be either advised, cited, or arrested. When enforcement action is warranted in protests, _____________ are preferred over mass arrests.

Answer 63

Selective arrests

Question 64

Protests: Persons with a prohibited weapon or in possession of items prohibited at a protest (e.g., improvised weapon, filled balloon, stick, baseball bat, PVC pipe, brick, glass bottle, shield, etc.) will be either advised, cited, or arrested. When enforcement action is warranted in protests, selective arrests are preferred over _____________.

Answer 64

Mass arrests

Question 65

Protests: In making an arrest, supervisors will:

Answer 65

1. Consider timing, location, and method of the arrest and resources available. 2. If circumstances allow, assemble an arrest team, comprised of a minimum of a supervisor and multiple officers. Individual officers are not precluded from making arrests when there is a clear violation of law and the arrest will defuse the situation. 3. Not interfere or arrest professional members of the media or legal observers performing their respective functions (observing, capturing, and/or reporting on protests or events) so long as they are performed in a safe and legal manner. If a professional member of the media or legal observer is arrested, the IC will be advised as soon as possible.

Question 66

Protests: If a professional member of the media or legal observer is arrested, the ____ will be advised as soon as possible.

Answer 66

IC

Question 67

Protests: For ______________ (or other unusual reporting circumstances), the arresting officer will generate a separate event number from the protest to ensure that BWC and other reports are easily connected to that specific arrest.

Answer 67

Felony arrests

Question 68

During an arrest at a protest, The IC will:

Answer 68

1. Coordinate and direct the process for the booking of an arrestee and their prisoner transport with DSD personnel to ensure it is completed in an efficient and timely manner. 2. Assign additional officers to assist in the booking process if needed and verify all required documentation for arrests has been completed and collected. 3. Request prisoner transport vehicles to assist if mass arrests occur.

Question 69

Protests: Uses of force occurring during enforcement actions will be documented and the _____ will be notified as soon as practical.

Answer 69

IC

Question 70

Protests: Deployment of aerosol irritants will only be used at the direction of the _____, and only after clear warning has been given and when avenues of egress are available to the crowd.

Answer 70

IC

Question 71

Protests: In situations where _____________ have been used to disperse the crowd, any subsequent use of force or an application of a force tool must be used in compliance with LVMPD 3.110, Use of Force and will be articulated separately from the dispersal.

Answer 71

Aerosol irritants

Question 72

Protests: When subjects refuse to release themselves from these protester devices, each individual protester will be advised they are under arrest and given ________________________ before force is used to remove the devices.

Answer 72

An additional chance to comply

Question 73

Protests: For field force extrications, it is the responsibility of the IC to request ________ to respond. The _____________ will give tactical options for extrication of locked protester(s) to resolve the incident.

Answer 73

HSST/HSST supervisor

Question 74

Protests: A ______________ and the ________________ will be dispatched to the scene after officers confirm locked protesters are present.

Answer 74

Patrol supervisor/Area lieutenant (or watch commander in their absence)

Question 75

Protests: When a call is generated reference protesters locked together a patrol officer will:

Answer 75

1. Confirm protesters are locked in devices. 2. Make contact with the locked protesters, gather information (protester’s cause, organizer/spokesperson) and relay to Dispatch. 3. Contact Special Investigations Section (SIS) if the protest is determined to be related to an organized labor union. 4. Assess unlawful acts and evaluate police response. a. Determine laws or criminal offenses that are being violated (e.g., person in a roadway or trespassing).

Question 76

Protests: When a call is generated reference protesters locked together the IC will:

Answer 76

1. Establish ICS. 2. Arrive at scene, determine if a criminal offense has occurred, and assess the need to have protesters immediately removed from the area. a. Request the locked protesters to release themselves and disperse. If they refuse, issue the dispersal order. b. If protesters still refuse to release and disperse, request the HSST through Dispatch. 3. Direct officers to create and maintain a buffer zone, ensuring inbound foot and vehicle traffic is diverted. 4. Designate an arrest team to take custodial arrest and complete booking of protesters once released from their devices by HSST (consider notification to DSD if multiple arrests)

Question 77

Each sergeant will conduct an initial check ride and document the outcome in UMLV for _______________ who will be operating department vehicles (exception: new FTEP graduates within the first week of assignment).

Answer 77

Newly assigned officers

Question 78

All employees will attend EVOC under the following circumstances:

Answer 78

1. Vehicle Collision Board (VCB) referral 2. Supervisory intervention 3. Self-registration 4. Approved squad/specialty training

Question 79

Department members who fail to participate or certify in ______________ will be assigned duties that do not require the operation of a department vehicle until they are properly certified.

Answer 79

Mandatory EVOC

Question 80

EVOC will immediately notify a member’s _____________, in writing, if they fail to attend a scheduled recertification course without providing proper notification.

Answer 80

Chain of command

Question 81

Upon notification, the _____________________ will direct the member to immediately reschedule EVOC then verify that driving privileges are suspended until the member has successfully completed EVOC.

Answer 81

Bureau/area commander

Question 82

Members on light-duty status or who have an active worker’s compensation case and are not allowed to attend EVOC per their physician, are exempt from the qualifying requirements until ______________________. Once released, members will be required to recertify prior to operating a department vehicle

Answer 82

Released back to full duty

Question 83

Driving/Vehicle Procedures DEFINITION: An occurrence in which a vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bicycle, road debris, or stationary object such as a tree, pole, or building resulting in bodily injury, a complaint of bodily injury, death of a person, or results in the total damage to any vehicle or item of property to an apparent extent of $750 or more.

Answer 83

Collision

Question 84

Driving/Vehicle Procedures DEFINITION: A separate category from a collision, is an occurrence in which a vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bicycle, road debris, or stationary object such as a tree, pole, or building not resulting in bodily injury, a complaint of bodily injury, death of a person, or results in the total damage to any vehicle or item of property to an apparent extent of less than $750

Answer 84

Incident

Question 85

Driving/Vehicle Procedures DEFINITION: A finding that a collision a department member was involved in was performed in accordance with department policies, procedures, training standards, and traffic laws.

Answer 85

Non-preventable

Question 86

Driving/Vehicle Procedures DEFINITION: A finding that a collision a department member was involved in violated department policies, procedures, training standards, or traffic laws.

Answer 86

Preventable

Question 87

Driving/Vehicle Procedures DEFINITION: Any collision, regardless of injury sustained or damage totals, occurring during training/in the training environment on a closed course.

Answer 87

Training collision/incident

Question 88

Driving/Vehicle Procedures DEFINITION: The internal mechanical parts of a vehicle required for operation (i.e., engine and attached parts, engine compartment, underside of the vehicle, drive train, transmission, steering assembly, etc.) and all underside mechanical parts to include the tires and rims. (Bumpers, doors, door rails and posts, quarter panels, top or windows, and any outside/exterior body part of the vehicle is not considered part of the undercarriage.)

Answer 88

Undercarriage

Question 89

Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Once the vehicle collision investigation is complete, all members with BWC video will manually label and categorize the video as _____________. This category designation will retain the video footage for five years.

Answer 89

"Pending Review"

Question 90

Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Once the vehicle collision investigation is complete, all members with BWC video will manually label and categorize the video as "Pending Review." This category designation will retain the video footage for ___________.

Answer 90

Five years

Question 91

Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Prior to the end of shift, report the details of the collision via the Collision Report in __________.

Answer 91

Blue Team

Question 92

Driving/Vehicle Procedures: If an officer is involved in a vehicle collision the supervisor will:

Answer 92

a. If a commissioned supervisor, respond and conduct preliminary investigation. 1) If the collision involves any other citizen vehicle, non- motorist, significant property damage, PIT, blocking, VCT, or ramming, request a Traffic Bureau unit to respond. 2) If the collision only rises to the level of an incident and no other citizen vehicle or non-motorist was involved (i.e., LVMPD property vs. LVMPD property, single vehicle damage on- or off-road [i.e., rim damage, oil pan, etc.]; or single vehicle vs. private property [i.e., rock, pole, structure, etc., with minor or no apparent damage]), complete and submit an LVMPD 393 to the involved member's bureau/area commander. b. Ensure that a Check Ride Report (LVMPD 461) is completed on the involved member and forward a copy to the VCB and Advanced Officer Skills Training (AOST) for entry in the member’s UMLV training record. Motor officers assigned to the Traffic Bureau will be required to complete a check ride with a certified motor instructor. Completion of this check ride will be documented in UMLV, and a copy forwarded to the VCB. c. Ensure the involved member completes a Collision Report in Blue Team or memo as required. d. Direct the involved member to contact the Litigation Section with any inquiries.

Question 93

Driving/Vehicle Procedures: If the collision only rises to the level of an incident and no other citizen vehicle or non-motorist was involved (i.e., LVMPD property vs. LVMPD property, single vehicle damage on- or off-road [i.e., rim damage, oil pan, etc.]; or single vehicle vs. private property [i.e., rock, pole, structure, etc., with minor or no apparent damage]), complete and submit an ______________ to the involved member's bureau/area commander.

Answer 93

LVMPD 393

Question 94

Driving/Vehicle Procedures: After an employee is involved in a vehicle collision ensure that a _____________ is completed on the involved member and forward a copy to the VCB and Advanced Officer Skills Training (AOST) for entry in the member’s UMLV training record. Motor officers assigned to the Traffic Bureau will be required to complete a check ride with a certified motor instructor. Completion of this check ride will be documented in UMLV, and a copy forwarded to the VCB.

Answer 94

Check Ride Report (LVMPD 461)

Question 95

Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Officer is involved in a vehicle collision. Members without computer network access will submit an __________________ through their chain of command to the bureau/area commander, EVOC staff, and the Fleet Operations Section.

Answer 95

Interdepartmental memo

Question 96

Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Investigations of Department Vehicle Incidents: Commissioned supervisor will:

Answer 96

a. Respond and conduct preliminary investigation. 1) Determine that the incident is consistent with the definition of an incident and not a collision. 2) If determined to be an incident and no other citizen vehicle or non-motorist was involved (i.e., LVMPD property vs. LVMPD property, single vehicle damage on or off road [i.e., rim damage, oil pan, etc.]; or single vehicle vs. private property [i.e., rock, pole, structure, etc. with minor or no apparent damage]), complete and submit the LVMPD 393 to the involved member's bureau/area commander.

Question 97

Driving/Vehicle Procedures: _________________ collision reports are completed for non-injury, moderate to major damage collisions that do not involve motorists, unsolved hit and runs, commercial vehicles, school buses, and trailers.

Answer 97

Property damage only (PDO)

Question 98

Driving/Vehicle Procedures: An officer is involved in a vehicle collision. As part of the discipline process, the board will take the following action:

Answer 98

a. The first preventable collision will result in a Contact Report or discipline up to and including termination, and a minimum of eight hours of remedial driver’s training at the VCB’s discretion. b. A second preventable collision finding where a member previously received a Contact Report no more than 12 months prior, may result in a written reprimand or other discipline up to and including termination, and a minimum of eight hours of remedial driver’s training at the VCB’s discretion. c. A third preventable collision finding where a member previously received two Contact Reports, or received a written reprimand, may result in a written reprimand or other progressive discipline up to and including termination, and a minimum of eight hours of remedial driver’s training at the VCB’s discretion. d. A fourth, and any subsequent preventable collision finding will result in a major suspension or other discipline up to and including termination and a minimum of eight hours of remedial driver’s training at the VCB’s discretion.

Question 99

Driving/Vehicle Procedures: . Officers will replenish depleted or damaged items by contacting the service aide or supervisor at the area command. If necessary, an explanation should be made in the space for comments. The LVMPD 47 and 47a will be turned in for supervisory review before _______________.

Answer 99

The end of shift

Question 100

Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Patrol supervisors will conduct periodic spot inspections of vehicles assigned to their personnel at least ____________. Any deficiencies noted and/or corrective actions taken will be recorded in a Contact Report. This will ensure the serviceability of vehicles and equipment, and accountability of assigned items.

Answer 100

Monthly

Question 101

Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Law enforcement escorts. All non-emergency escorts must be approved by an _______________.

Answer 101

Assistant Sheriff

Question 102

Driving/Vehicle Procedures: A routine, non-emergency escort will be utilized for funeral processions of police, fire, and military personnel killed in the line of duty (active), visits from the president and/or vice president of the United States, and other limited circumstances as approved by a _________________.

Answer 102

Division commander

Question 103

Missing Persons: In compliance with the National Child Search Assistance Act of 1990 (as amended), LVMPD will not require_________________ to make a missing person's report.

Answer 103

Any waiting period

Question 104

Missing Persons: In accordance with the National Child Search Assistance Act of 1990 (as amended) and the federally mandated Suzanne’s Law, entry into the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) will be made under the following circumstances:

Answer 104

1. All juveniles, 17 years old and younger, will be entered into NCIC immediately upon receiving the required minimum data elements, not to exceed two hours. 2. Missing persons 18 through 20 years old (even though legally considered adults) will also be entered into NCIC in accordance with the federally mandated Suzanne’s Law immediately upon receiving the required minimum data elements, not to exceed two hours. 3. Adults may go missing for a variety of reasons. However, adults can only be entered into NCIC if they have a disability, are in physical danger, are a victim of a catastrophe or suspicious or involuntary circumstances (i.e., endangered). Regardless of NCIC entry, all missing persons will be entered into SCOPE.

Question 105

Missing Persons: All juveniles, 17 years old and younger, will be entered into NCIC immediately upon receiving the required minimum data elements, not to exceed ___________.

Answer 105

Two hours

Question 106

Missing Persons: Missing persons ______________ years old (even though legally considered adults) will also be entered into NCIC in accordance with the federally mandated Suzanne’s Law immediately upon receiving the required minimum data elements, not to exceed two hours.

Answer 106

18 through 20

Question 107

Missing Persons: Adults may go missing for a variety of reasons. However, adults can only be entered into NCIC if they have a ___________, are in __________, are ______________________. Regardless of NCIC entry, all missing persons will be entered into SCOPE.

Answer 107

Disability, Physical danger, A victim of a catastrophe or suspicious or involuntary circumstances (i.e., endangered)

Question 108

Missing Persons: Entry into NCIC must be listed in one of the following categories as specified in the NCIC operating manual:

Answer 108

Disability (EMD) Endangered (EME) Involuntary (EMI) Juvenile (EMJ) Catastrophe Victim (EMV) Other (EMO)

Question 109

Missing Persons: Personnel taking missing persons reports for those age 20 and under and adults with one or more endangerment factors will attempt to obtain the minimum data elements within ___________ of initial contact.

Answer 109

Two hours

Question 110

Missing Persons: If the juvenile is located, the report must be _____________ and the NCIC record canceled by contacting RFB’s NCIC Section.

Answer 110

Completed

Question 111

Missing Persons: The patrol officer must determine if the missing person meets the Missing Persons Detail callout criteria:

Answer 111

a. The missing juvenile is 11 years old and younger. b. The missing person, adult or juvenile, has a documented diminished mental capacity of 11 years old or younger. c. The missing person, adult or juvenile, has a physical/medical condition or life-threatening situation that would hinder their ability to care for themselves, posing a significant risk of serious bodily harm or death. d. The juvenile (17 years old and younger), is actively suicidal, making a direct threat to harm oneself (e.g., with a weapon, pills, jumper) via phone, text, email, social media (not merely possibly suicidal). For adults age 18 and older, refer to the Suicidal Subjects section on whom to notify and how to investigate. e. The missing juvenile(s) is involved in a child custody dispute and only if the child(ren) is in immediate articulable danger and a threat to harm has been made. f. The missing person has been reported as a lost/overdue hiker. g. The found person is an adult, has proven guardianship over them, and the guardian cannot be located/contacted.

Question 112

Missing Persons: If there is a crime reported in addition to the missing person/runaway, a separate report in P1 must be completed under ___________ event number.

Answer 112

A different

Question 113

Missing Persons: If the case remains unsolved and still meets callout criteria, contact a supervisor, who will then notify the _______________.

Answer 113

Missing Persons Detail

Question 114

Missing Persons: Officers with __________________ training will be dispatched to events involving a subject threatening suicide under volatile circumstances (e.g., subject is armed, has threatened to harm another, is a danger to the community or is a “suicide by cop” threat). In such cases, a field supervisor will respond to the scene to assume command and control, and on-call patrol detectives will be notified for response.

Answer 114

Crisis Intervention Team (CIT)

Question 115

Missing Persons: Officers with Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) training will be dispatched to events involving a subject threatening suicide under volatile circumstances (e.g., subject is armed, has threatened to harm another, is a danger to the community or is a “suicide by cop” threat). In such cases, a ____________ will respond to the scene to assume command and control, and on-call patrol detectives will be notified for response.

Answer 115

Field supervisor

Question 116

Missing Persons: If the missing suicidal adult has a cellphone, patrol supervisor will request a ____________ phone ping through Dispatch supervisor.

Answer 116

Kelsey Smith

Question 117

Missing Persons: If the missing adult is threatening suicide under volatile circumstances, officers will contact the ___________________.

Answer 117

On-duty or on-call patrol detective

Question 118

Missing Persons: If the suicidal juvenile is missing, officers will, if the juvenile has a cellphone, patrol supervisor will request a ____________ phone ping through Dispatch supervisor.

Answer 118

Kelsey Smith

Question 119

Missing Persons: In instances of suicidal missing juveniles, a patrol supervisor will contact the ____________________ if the missing juvenile is threatening suicide under volatile circumstances.

Answer 119

On-duty or on-call patrol detective

Question 120

Missing Persons: An Amber Alert will be activated only when the following criteria are met:

Answer 120

a. Confirmed abduction. b. Child is under 18 years old. c. Threat of serious bodily harm or death. d. Information on suspect and/or vehicle.

Question 121

Missing Persons: If the missing person is a juvenile, officers will attempt to contact the parent/guardian. If contact cannot be made with the parent/guardian and no criminal charges exist, the juvenile will be transported to the _________________________________.

Answer 121

Child Haven receiving area at 701 N. Pecos Road

Question 122

Missing Persons: In situations where a parent is claiming abduction by the other parent, other civil, legal and jurisdictional issues must be considered. If custody rights have been established by a court order, judgment, or operation of law, then the adverse party can be investigated as a taking parent “if __________________.”

Answer 122

Probable cause exists

Question 123

Missing Persons: In child custody cases, if the elements of a crime exist amid a custody matter, take a report for Detain/Hide/Remove Child from the biological parent, guardian, or court-appointed guardian. A probable cause arrest cannot be made for this event (see NRS 200.359). ________________________ is the only entity that can authorize an arrest for this crime.

Answer 123

The Nevada Attorney General’s (AG’s) Office

Question 124

MACTAC

Answer 124

Multi-Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities

Question 125

_______________ response is used when incidents occur simultaneously and exceed conventional law enforcement tactics and resources. This includes incidents involving shootings, stabbings, rammings, improvised explosive devices (IEDs), and other potential threats. _____________ provides officers tactical knowledge, skills, and abilities to respond to incidents that require immediate police intervention.

Answer 125

MACTAC

Question 126

MACTAC: Units from __________________ can respond to the incident if advised by Communications, the watch commander, IC, area command captain, or area command lieutenant to the staging area or immediate incident area, as directed.

Answer 126

Neighboring area commands

Question 127

_______________ near the incident may respond to the staging area or as directed by the IC. However, careful consideration will be given to the assistance they can provide in relationship to that of a marked patrol unit with a uniformed officer. _______________ should be readily identifiable as law enforcement to mitigate blue-on-blue incidents.

Answer 127

Non-uniformed officers

Question 128

MACTAC: First arriving units will ensure officer and public safety by utilizing the 4 A’s concept: ________________________________.

Answer 128

Assess, Announce, Assemble, and Act

Question 129

MACTAC: If the first arriving supervisor on-scene, make entry with the initial officer(s), providing direction and overall command and control. Utilize the 4 C’s concept: __________________________________.

Answer 129

Contain, Control, Communicate, Coordinate

Question 130

MACTAC: Upon additional supervisor response, establish a formal ____________________. Consider utilizing NCORE TAC channels for the establishment of unified command.

Answer 130

Incident Command Post

Question 131

MACTAC: If one of the first arriving officers has taken IC, determine if a transfer of command needs to occur from the officer to the ___________. This will be based on the size, type, and complexity of the incident.

Answer 131

Sergeant

Question 132

MACTAC: Upon arrival of fire department personnel, establish a unified command. Determine the need for additional __________________ command and general staff positions based on the size, type, and complexity of the incident

Answer 132

Incident Command System (ICS)

Question 133

MACTAC: Supervisors/officers arriving will:

Answer 133

1. Respond to the staging area or as otherwise directed by the IC or Communications. 2. Contact the staging area manager for deployment orders. 3. Exercise radio discipline, remaining off channel, and activate the “arrive” button on the mobile data terminal (MDT). 4. Remain on post until relieved or released

Question 134

MACTAC: Officers responding from off-duty status will utilize the TAC Dispatch channel, located under the Events TAC profile, to log on for instructions or event details. This can also be used to log on a squad if they are called in. Personnel will respond to a _________________ to determine if or where they will be needed.

Answer 134

Secondary staging area

Question 135

Arrest Procedures: It is the policy of this department that warrantless felony or gross misdemeanor arrests will be limited to the _______________ arising from a single set of circumstances, with the exception of violent crimes, for which charges will be combined.

Answer 135

Most serious charge(s)

Question 136

Arrest Procedures: In Clark County, misdemeanor arrests will be limited to the single most serious offense and generally will not be combined with a ________________________.

Answer 136

Felony or gross misdemeanor arrest

Question 137

Arrest Procedures: In the _________________, all appropriate misdemeanor charges will be reflected for each arrest. This policy does not apply to arrests made pursuant to warrants.

Answer 137

City of Las Vegas (CLV)

Question 138

Arrest Procedures: Officers may, after notification and approval of a _______________, exercise discretion regarding continuing with the booking process if it has been determined that the arrestee needs medical assistance.

Answer 138

Watch commander

Question 139

Arrest Procedures: Officers will not make the decision to release the arrestee without ensuring that the arrestee has been provided an option for _______________.

Answer 139

Obtaining medical care

Question 140

Arrest Procedures: If the medical condition is not life threatening, the officer may transport the arrestee to a hospital or emergency room; however, they must release the arrestee to _______________. Arrestees will not just be dropped off at the front door of the medical facility.

Answer 140

The care of hospital personnel

Question 141

Arrest Procedures: In cases where it is determined that an arrestee will be transported for medical assistance, either by private transportation or by the officer, the officer may cite the arrestee prior to releasing them to medical personnel or the officer will submit for an arrest warrant ______________________.

Answer 141

Before the end of the shift

Question 142

Arrest Procedures: If the arrestee signs an ___________________ with the paramedics or medical personnel, they may leave, and the officer will not interfere.

Answer 142

Against Medical Advice form

Question 143

Arrest Procedures: In CLV, suspects may be booked for all appropriate misdemeanor offenses. Arrestees will not be booked for any misdemeanors when being booked for felony or gross misdemeanors except in the following circumstances:

Answer 143

a. Suspects committing a crime(s) against an officer may be booked on those offenses in addition to any other offense(s). b. When an arrest is mandated by statute for certain misdemeanors (i.e., domestic violence or driving on a Driving While Intoxicated revoked license). c. Suspects may be booked for a misdemeanor (combined with a felony or gross misdemeanor) when it is the charge that results in a search leading to a felony or gross misdemeanor arrest. (For example, if a suspect is arrested for Disturbing the Peace and a subsequent search incident to arrest reveals Possession of a Controlled Substance. In this case, the suspect can be booked for the felony and misdemeanor). d. Charges will be combined for suspects being booked for one or more violent crimes.

Question 144

Arrest Procedures: In Clark County, where more than one offense is alleged, request approval of the ______________ to book on additional charges (with the exception of violent crimes) and list those approved charges on the TCR. The initials and P Number of the ________________ granting approval will be noted on the TCR and in all subsequent reports.

Answer 144

Authorizing supervisor

Question 145

Arrest Procedures: Turn in reports to supervisor no later than _____________________.

Answer 145

The end of the shift

Question 146

Arrest Procedures: In the absence of the officer’s immediate supervisor, the officer will have the AR Package reviewed by the ______________. If the ______________ is not available, the AR Package must be reviewed by any available Community Policing, Tourist Safety, or Investigative Services Division supervisor (as appropriate to the arresting officer’s chain of command).

Answer 146

Shift lieutenant

Question 147

Arrest Procedures: Supervisor will Review DOA for:

Answer 147

a. Sufficient justification for multiple charges on felony or gross misdemeanor arrests. b. Sufficient probable cause. c. Adequate articulation of the actions of the defendant constituting the charge. Each element of the crime must be clearly stated and supported by facts. d. Quality of the report

Question 148

Arrest Procedures: For felony and gross misdemeanor arrests, review the ___________ for completeness, ensure it is attached to the top of the AR Package, and complete the lower portion.

Answer 148

LVMPD 124

Question 149

Arrest Procedures: When contacted by an arresting officer regarding releasing an arrestee to medical personnel, ensure that the arrestee is not released from custody if the following charges are applicable:

Answer 149

a. Crime(s) against an officer. b. Domestic violence or driving on a DUI revoked license or any other charge where arrest is mandated by statute. c. Any violent crime against person with significant injury. d. Any violent crime involving the use of a deadly weapon. e. Sexual Assault. f. Kidnapping.

Question 150

Arrest Procedures: NCF must be done within __________ of the time of arrest in the field (prior to the submission of the arrest information to the DA) otherwise the release must be coordinated directly with the DA (Screening Office 702-671-2550), as the authority to release is out of the control of LVMPD.

Answer 150

48 hours

Question 151

Arrests w/o Warrants: This warning is intended to protect a person’s Fifth Amendment right against self-incrimination.

Answer 151

Miranda warning

Question 152

Arrests w/o Warrants: A juvenile should be advised of the potential to be charged in ___________ when applicable. Examples of potential crimes include murder, attempt murder, and sexual assault.

Answer 152

Adult court

Question 153

Arrests w/o Warrants: An officer may make an arrest without a warrant for:

Answer 153

1. Crimes (felony, gross misdemeanor, or misdemeanor) that have been committed in the officer’s presence. Misdemeanor arrests must be in accordance with LVMPD 4.136, Misdemeanor Citation and/or Arrest. 2. Felonies and gross misdemeanors not committed in the officer’s presence when the officer has probable cause that the crime was committed and that the specific person committed it. 3. Any person who a police officer has probable cause to believe is about to commit a felony crime. 4. Juvenile misdemeanors not committed in the officer’s presence. 5. Traffic offenses delineated in Nevada Revised Statute (NRS) 484 other than DUI (see LVMPD 4.200, Traffic Enforcement). 6. Battery between siblings, cousins, or current roommates (not constituting domestic violence).

Question 154

Arrests w/o Warrants: An officer will make an arrest without a warrant when probable cause exists for the following:

Answer 154

1. All felony and misdemeanor battery acts constituting domestic violence. 2. Traffic offenses that are classified as: a. DUI b. Felony hit and run c. Homicide by vehicle 3. Protective order violations

Question 155

Arrests w/o Warrants: Making a Warrantless Arrest the arresting officer will:

Answer 155

1. Use only a reasonable amount of force to make the arrest. 2. Restrain the arrestee by handcuffing their hands behind the back, unless handicapped, obese, or other physical reasons exist for not doing so. 3. Inform the suspect that they are under arrest and name the criminal offense or cause for arrest. 4. Search the arrestee for weapons and instruments or fruits of the crime that are upon their person and/or within their immediate control. 5. If interrogation is to follow, give the arrestee the Miranda warning beforehand. 6. Protect and safeguard the arrestee and personal property. 7. Transport the arrestee to the appropriate detention facility. 8. Complete arrest procedures in accordance with LVMPD.

Question 156

Arrests w/o Warrants: In weighing the determination whether to arrest, cite, or give an advisement, officers will consider the following:

Answer 156

1. The severity of the offense (e.g., pushing or spitting vs. punching or kicking); 2. Whether this is the first time officers have responded to the location and/or interacted with the involved parties, and/or if a party has a prior offense of a similar nature; 3. One or both parties is in a violent or agitated state, and officers have a reasonable concern that by not removing at least one party from the incident, violence may escalate; 4. One or both of the involved parties wants to press charges.

Question 157

Arrests w/o Warrants: In circumstances where a citation has not been issued or an arrest has not been made, officers will update _____________________ with the identity of the involved parties, details of the incident, and the reason why no enforcement action was taken.

Answer 157

Computer-aided dispatch (CAD)

Question 158

Arrests w/o Warrants: An officer will immediately release from custody any person they arrested without a warrant if the officer becomes aware that there is _______________ for proceeding with an arrest. A released person will be deemed not to have been arrested but only detained.

Answer 158

Insufficient probable cause

Question 159

DV: DEFINITION: Frequent, intimate associations primarily characterized by the expectation of affectional or sexual involvement. The term does not include a casual relationship or an ordinary association between persons in a business or social context.

Answer 159

Dating relationship

Question 160

DV: DEFINITION: Intentionally applying sufficient pressure to another person to make it difficult or impossible for the person to breathe, including, without limitation, applying pressure to the neck, throat, or windpipe that may prevent or hinder breathing or reduce the intake of air, or applying any pressure to the neck on either side of the windpipe, but not the windpipe itself, to stop the flow of blood to the brain via the carotid arteries.

Answer 160

Strangulation

Question 161

DV: Patrol officers will immediately contact their supervisor in cases when:

Answer 161

a. Felony domestic violence has occurred. b. A law enforcement employee of any agency is involved as a suspect or victim. c. Parties involved are believed to be a pimp and prostitute. d. A suspect under arrest has a previous conviction for domestic violence and is in possession of a firearm and/or ammunition. e. A mutual arrest is considered.

Question 162

DV: Determine if _____________ exists to make an arrest, regardless of whether the officer believes the offense may be ultimately prosecuted. The decision to prosecute rests with the prosecuting agency, not with the victim or the officer.

Answer 162

Probable cause

Question 163

DV: Officers must make a probable cause warrantless arrest for any battery offense constituting domestic violence under two conditions:

Answer 163

1) If officers develop probable cause for a suspect who is on scene during their investigation: A battery constituting domestic violence must have been committed within the preceding 24 hours. 2) If officers develop probable cause for a suspect who is not on scene during their investigation (e.g., fled before police arrived): A battery constituting domestic violence must have been committed within the preceding seven days.

Question 164

DV: If officers develop probable cause for a suspect who is not on scene during their investigation (e.g., fled before police arrived): A battery constituting domestic violence must have been committed within the preceding ___________.

Answer 164

Seven days

Question 165

DV: Officers ________ conduct a consensual encounter knock-and-talk as a pretext to make an arrest for domestic violence

Answer 165

Will not

Question 166

DV: Police __________ enter a suspect's home with the primary intent to make a warrantless probable cause arrest absent exigency or a warrant.

Answer 166

May not

Question 167

DV: The primary intent of the law is to provide police with ___________ to find and lawfully arrest a domestic violence suspect who fled before police arrived.

Answer 167

Seven days

Question 168

DV: Request a SafeNest advocate as early as possible via radio once the investigation has established the following:

Answer 168

1) Strangulation is alleged. 2) Reasonable belief there is a firearm(s) at the residence. 3) The victim, upon learning of SafeNest services from officer, asks for a SafeNest advocate to be called. 4) The involved parties have significant repeated calls for service.

Question 169

DV: A supervisor will, in cases of mutual arrest, ensure that every attempt has been made to try and determine a _________________, and that probable cause exists for both arrests prior to giving approval for any mutual arrest.

Answer 169

Primary physical aggressor

Question 170

DV: In cases meeting the Family Justice Center callout criteria, immediately notify FJC detectives. Current criteria can be obtained through the Dispatch supervisor. For cases that do not meet the FJC callout criteria, contact the ____________________________.

Answer 170

Area command on duty or on-call PD detective squad

Question 171

DV: If parties involved are believed to be a pimp and prostitute, immediately notify the _____________.

Answer 171

Vice Section

Question 172

DV: In cases when a law enforcement employee of any agency is involved as a suspect or victim of domestic violence, immediately notify the _______________ and the area lieutenant to respond.

Answer 172

Watch commander/Area lieutenant

Question 173

DV: If it is determined that a law enforcement employee of any agency is involved as a suspect or victim, immediately notify their supervisor. The supervisor will immediately notify the ______________.

Answer 173

Watch commander

Question 174

DV: If the suspect/victim is an LVMPD employee, the watch commander will contact the _____________.

Answer 174

CIS supervisor

Question 175

DV: FJC detectives will investigate the following crimes:

Answer 175

1. Domestic battery by strangulation. 2. Domestic battery with a deadly weapon, including shooting- related charges (i.e., discharging a firearm at/into an occupied structure or vehicle). The intended victim must have a relationship with the suspect as defined in NRS 33.018. 3. Assault domestic violence with use of a deadly weapon. 4. Domestic battery (third offense). 5. Domestic battery with prior felony convictions. The prior felony conviction must be a domestic violence offense.

Question 176

Transporting Prisoners: Vehicles w/o partition cages: A police officer transporting an arrestee in a standard vehicle without a partition cage will place the arrestee in the ________________.

Answer 176

Front passenger seat

Question 177

Transporting Prisoners: Vehicles w/o partition cages: In a two-officer unit, transporting an arrestee in a standard vehicle without a partition cage, the arrestee will be placed in the rear seat behind the ________________ and the second officer __________________.

Answer 177

Passenger’s position/Behind the driver

Question 178

Transporting Prisoners: Vehicles w/o partition cages: In a two-officer unit, the arrestee will be placed in the rear seat behind the passenger’s position and the second officer behind the driver. A second arrestee would be placed in the ______________.

Answer 178

Front seat

Question 179

Transporting Prisoners: Vehicles w/o partition cages: Officers will not transport more than one arrestee nor a two-officer unit more than two arrestees without ___________________.

Answer 179

Supervisory approval

Question 180

Transporting Prisoners: In a standard one- or two-officer patrol vehicle equipped with a partition cage, up to two arrestees of the _____________________ may be transported in the rear seat.

Answer 180

Same or opposite sex

Question 181

Transporting Prisoners: When two arrestees are combative, officers may, at their discretion, restrain the arrestees with ________________ or transport them separately.

Answer 181

Leg restraint devices

Question 182

Transporting Prisoners: If an arrestee is to be held in a parked vehicle for an extended period, consideration should be given to leaving the __________________ and the __________________ for air circulation. An arrestee will not be left alone in a vehicle unless under close observation.

Answer 182

Safety barrier in the lowered position/Front windows opened slightly

Question 183

Transporting Prisoners: Officers will not be diverted to any other law enforcement activities while transporting unless the ________________, _____________________, and ___________________.

Answer 183

Risk to third parties is both clear and grave/The risk to the arrestee(s) is minimal/Supervisory approval is given

Question 184

Transporting Prisoners: Under no circumstances will an arrestee be held in a transport vehicle longer than __________ before being transported to the detention facility and booked.

Answer 184

Two hours

Question 185

Transporting Prisoners: When an arrestee is transported by an officer of the opposite sex, the start/stop mileage, to include tenths of a mile, will be ______________.

Answer 185

Entered on the tablet

Question 186

Transporting Prisoners: If an arrestee of the opposite sex is transported in a vehicle without a tablet, the start/stop mileage will be ___________________.

Answer 186

Voice reported to the dispatcher

Question 187

Transporting Prisoners: Except under extraordinary situations approved by a supervisor, no member will permit an arrestee to enter a department vehicle without first being ____________.

Answer 187

Handcuffed

Question 188

Transporting Prisoners: Arrestees in police vehicles will be handcuffed ___________, unless impractical or impossible due to obesity, handicap, or other reason. Special restraints will not be used unless approved by a supervisor.

Answer 188

Behind the back

Question 189

Transporting Prisoners: Officers will not attempt to restrain an arrestee’s legs without __________________.

Answer 189

The assistance of another officer

Question 190

Transporting Prisoners: Restraints will not be used to secure an arrestee’s legs to ____________________, as this could result in serious injury in the event of an accident.

Answer 190

Fixed positions inside a vehicle

Question 191

Transporting Prisoners: Transporting an arrestee face down on an ambulance gurney is permissible when _________________ determine it will not harm the arrestee.

Answer 191

Attending medical personnel

Question 192

Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Department members, citizens, and arrestees occupying department vehicles will wear seat belts while the vehicle is in motion (see NRS 484D.495). The only exemption to this is when the vehicle is traveling _______________ and the driver or passenger(s) is expecting to exit the vehicle to take immediate police action once the vehicle has stopped.

Answer 192

Less than 15 miles per hour

Question 193

Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Text messaging or emailing while driving is prohibited. This includes reading messages and checking messages at ____________.

Answer 193

Stop signals

Question 194

Driving/Vehicle Procedures: On-duty personnel will not wear a _______________ at any time if a radio earpiece is worn.

Answer 194

Cellphone earpiece

Question 195

Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Department members must park the vehicle in a practical manner and attempt to avoid parking where _____________________.

Answer 195

Backing out may be required

Question 196

It is the policy of this department that patrol units will not be dispatched on “routine” 421 (sick or injured person) calls unless the ___________________ so requests. Routine calls include injuries from falls or accidents, general illness, heart attacks, and accidental overdoses.

Answer 196

Responding medical service

Question 197

Patrol units will be dispatched on 421 calls that:

Answer 197

1. Are suspicious in nature. 2. Are related to unknown trouble calls. 3. Involve injuries as a result of criminal activity or traffic accident. 4. Are the result of a gunshot. 5. Indicate a need for police involvement due to other circumstances.

Question 198

In medical emergencies, patients should only be transported by ambulance or other medical conveyances. Escorting civilian vehicles under emergency circumstances is extremely dangerous and ______________. All emergency escorts will be conducted in accordance with LVMPD 4.116

Answer 198

Must be avoided

Question 199

If the injured person is suffering from a potential life-threatening injury or substantial head trauma, an ________________ will be completed and photographs will be taken to document details of the event.

Answer 199

Incident Crime Report (sick or injured person)

Question 200

Upon arriving at the scene and determining the death to be suspicious or the result of a homicide a supervisor will:

Answer 200

a. Ensure crime scene analyst(s) have been requested. b. Ensure detectives from Homicide have been notified.

Question 201

Responding Homicide detectives will complete the case reports. Patrol officers will not begin the Incident Crime Report on homicides or suspicious deaths unless directed by ______________.

Answer 201

The detective

Question 202

For deaths that appear to be natural and/or deaths to which CSI personnel do not respond, ________________ to ensure proper documentation.

Answer 202

Photograph the scene

Question 203

Response to Dead Bodies Other Than Homicides, In-Custody Deaths, Suspicious Deaths, detailed photos will be taken with a ____________________ and uploaded into the Axon Capture app.

Answer 203

Department-issued cellphone

Question 204

Request _________ on all suicides, overdoses and other deaths that are considered “not natural.”

Answer 204

CSI

Question 205

Response to Dead Bodies Other Than Homicides, In-Custody Deaths, Suspicious Deaths, complete the Dead Body Incident Report in P1 by ___________. Do not provide details of the death in the narrative tab.

Answer 205

The end of shift

Question 206

Personal Property of the Decedent on a Dead Body Call, all personal property at the scene or belonging to the decedent such as identification, money and jewelry will be placed in safekeeping by the ______________ or ________________, not impounded by LVMPD employees.

Answer 206

Coroner investigator/Public Administrator

Question 207

Firearms at the Scene of a Dead Body Call, only the firearm used in an incident (suicide, accidental shooting, etc.) will be impounded as evidence by a _________________. Patrol officers may impound other firearms for safekeeping only when a threat to life or safety exists – notating the justification when doing so – and when the Public Administrator is not available.

Answer 207

Crime scene analyst

Question 208

Firearms at the Scene of a Dead Body Call, only the firearm used in an incident (suicide, accidental shooting, etc.) will be impounded as evidence by a crime scene analyst. Patrol officers may impound other firearms for safekeeping only when a ______________ – notating the justification when doing so – and when the Public Administrator is not available.

Answer 208

Threat to life or safety exists

Question 209

Response to Deceased Children, For the purpose of this policy, a child means: a person who is age _____________.

Answer 209

17 or younger

Question 210

The ______________ is the primary investigator on child deaths. Homicide will typically take lead if there was an act of concealment or body disposal after death. The Overdose Response Team (ORT) may assist Abuse/Neglect on suspected child (teenager) overdoses.

Answer 210

Abuse/Neglect Detail

Question 211

The Abuse/Neglect Detail is the primary investigator on child deaths. ____________ will typically take lead if there was an act of concealment or body disposal after death. The Overdose Response Team (ORT) may assist Abuse/Neglect on suspected child (teenager) overdoses

Answer 211

Homicide

Question 212

A patrol officer and ______________ will be dispatched on all events related to the death of a child.

Answer 212

Patrol supervisor

Question 213

In-Custody Deaths: ____________________ will be notified of all in-custody deaths involving a police/corrections officer or an inmate housed at Clark County Detention Center (CCDC), North Valley Complex, Tucker Holding Facility or a medical facility.

Answer 213

The Force Investigation Team (FIT) lieutenant or designee

Question 214

An in-custody death is defined as the death of a person:

Answer 214

1. Who is under arrest. 2. Who is an inmate housed at CCDC, North Valley Complex, or medical facility. 3. Who has been contacted or detained by officers and during the contact when the death occurs (i.e., vehicle or pedestrian stop, a person commits suicide when officers are near or have the person contained).

Question 215

A nationally recognized model developed to implement and facilitate the problem-solving process consisting of four steps: Scanning, Analysis, Response, and Assessment.

Answer 215

SARA

Question 216

What does SARA stand for?

Answer 216

Scanning, Analysis, Response, Assessment

Question 217

Community Policing: A citizen can submit a request for service by filling out a _________________.

Answer 217

Service Request Form (LVMPD 132)

Question 218

Community Policing: An officer can begin the SARA problem-solving process by completing an _______________________ and forwarding it to the appropriate area command COP office.

Answer 218

LVMPD 241 (automated), Community Policing Service Request

Question 219

Community Policing: Defines problems and documents pertinent information on the _________________________. For small problems or ongoing problems requiring spot checks, uses the LVMPD 240 (automated).

Answer 219

LVMPD 239 (automated), Project Worksheet Long Form

Question 220

The ________________ protects an expectation of privacy that must be both reasonable and legitimate.

Answer 220

Fourth Amendment

Question 221

An investigative detention based on reasonable suspicion is strictly limited to ____________.

Answer 221

60 minutes

Question 222

Objective words or actions that clearly show a person has disclaimed ownership, dominion, and control over real or personal property.

Answer 222

Abandonment

Question 223

A protocol requiring officers to announce their authority and purpose before entering a premises, allowing a reasonable amount of time for occupants to comply. Officers may do this using a ruse, bullhorn, public address (PA) system, etc.

Answer 223

Announce and wait

Question 224

An exception to the Fourth Amendment’s warrant requirement based on the public’s expectation that law enforcement may take action to save life or render aid.

Answer 224

Community caretaking doctrine

Question 225

A non-criminal encounter with a citizen or vehicle that is intended for law enforcement to investigate a serious medical concern or other life safety issues (i.e., Legal 2000).

Answer 225

Community caretaking search

Question 226

A completely voluntary police interaction with members of the public, requiring no legal justification for the interaction, where a reasonable person would feel free to disregard the police and go about their business.

Answer 226

Consensual encounter

Question 227

Area(s) near a residence where the residents have a reasonable expectation of privacy. Considerations in determining whether an area is ___________ and subject to the protections of the Fourth Amendment are: (1) proximity of the area to the home; (2) whether the area is included in an enclosure which surrounds a home; (3) nature of uses to which an area is put; (4) steps taken to protect the area from observation from passers-by. The legal protection associated with curtilage is always determined in favor of the property owner, not law enforcement.

Answer 227

Curtilage

Question 228

A warrantless entry into a home when an emergency exists and there is a need to render aid or to protect an individual from immediate harm from themselves or others.

Answer 228

Emergency aid exception

Question 229

A time-critical exception to the search warrant requirement for the purpose of acting on an investigative emergency, based on probable cause for a criminal investigation. Police cannot create the exigent circumstance or use a ruse to affect a warrantless search.

Answer 229

Exigent circumstances

Question 230

Occurs when there is probable cause that a person, who is wanted for a serious felony, is inside a home or other private place and is about to flee. (Not to be confused with hot pursuit.)

Answer 230

Fresh pursuit

Question 231

A sub-category of “exigent circumstances” allowing entry into a structure when there is probable cause to believe a dangerous person has committed a serious felony. The suspect is fleeing from law enforcement, and the officer has direct knowledge of the suspect’s location. (Not to be confused with fresh pursuit.)

Answer 231

Hot pursuit

Question 232

Reasonable suspicion stop, also known as a “Terry stop,” is a seizure of a person for no more than 60 minutes, with the limited scope and purpose of conducting an investigation and for which a police officer must have reasonable suspicion that a person is committing, has committed, or is about to commit a crime (NRS 171.123).

Answer 232

Investigative detention

Question 233

A warrantless search that requires probable cause to: (1) prevent the destruction of evidence of a serious felony offense, or; (2) effect a warrantless arrest of a violent or dangerous suspect who officers have probable cause to believe committed a serious felony or violent offense and may escape if not immediately apprehended, or; (3) hot or fresh pursuit.

Answer 233

Investigative emergency search

Question 234

What a person knowingly exposes to the public is not protected by the Fourth Amendment no matter where the exposure takes place. It does not justify a warrantless seizure. (Not to be confused with plain view.)

Answer 234

Open view

Question 235

An open hand contact of a subject’s outer clothing to detect weapons on a person or contained within items “immediately associated with a person” (e.g., purse, backpack, etc.). The “pat down” is based on reasonable suspicion or articulable facts that the person may be armed with a dangerous weapon and is a threat to the safety of the officer.

Answer 235

Pat down

Question 236

If during a pat down the officer feels an item that is not suspected to be a weapon but is immediately apparent without manipulation from the mass and shape that the item is probably contraband, the officer can legally seize the item.

Answer 236

Plain feel

Question 237

An exception to the search warrant requirement that must satisfy these conditions: (1) the officer must be in a position where there is a legal right to be; (2) the items must be immediately recognizable as contraband or evidence; and (3) the seizure must be made without substantial additional intrusion. (Not to be confused with open view.)

Answer 237

Plain view

Question 238

Exists when the facts and circumstances known to an officer would warrant a prudent person in believing that a crime had been committed, and that the accused had committed it.

Answer 238

Probable cause to arrest

Question 239

A “fair probability” that the items sought to be seized will be contained in the premises sought to be searched.

Answer 239

Probable cause to search

Question 240

A quick and limited search of premises for the safety of officers and others. It must be narrowly confined to a cursory visual inspection of those places in which a person might be hiding.

Answer 240

Protective sweep

Question 241

Specific and articulable facts or circumstances that would lead a reasonable person to believe a crime has been, is being, or is about to be committed.

Answer 241

Reasonable suspicion

Question 242

A police interference with an individual’s freedom of movement by means of physical force or show of authority or meaningful interference with an individual’s possessory interests in property.

Answer 242

Seizure

Question 243

An order obtained in conjunction with a search warrant that authorizes an affiant to “turn over” property seized during service of a search warrant to another jurisdiction (e.g., task force partner or law enforcement officers from outside Clark County).

Answer 243

Turnover order

Question 244

The frisk of a vehicle is based on reasonable suspicion or articulable facts that a person may have immediate access to a dangerous weapon and is a threat to the safety of the officer. The frisk must be confined to the areas of the vehicle where the person has access, and the officer may only enter unlocked compartments or areas where a weapon may be present.

Answer 244

Vehicle frisk

Question 245

Exceptions related to criminal investigations where the Fourth Amendment does not apply are:

Answer 245

1. Open view 2. Person has no standing to assert a legal right (property right or constitutional right) 3. Trash searches outside the curtilage 4. Abandoned property 5. Searches by a private citizen not acting as an agent of the government

Question 246

Warrantless entry into a residence is not permitted under the _______________________. Instead, officers need to articulate the need for an emergency aid exception

Answer 246

Community Caretaking Doctrine

Question 247

Courts recognize ______________ situations as a distinct non-criminal investigative function of law enforcement. LVMPD values the sanctity of life and expects its officers to conduct thorough ______________ to determine if there is a need for life-saving assistance. These interactions are justified under the Community Caretaking Doctrine and are totally divorced from the detection, investigation, or acquisition of evidence relating to the violation of a criminal statute.

Answer 247

Welfare checks

Question 248

The department will limit interactions under the ___________________ to welfare checks on individuals who are outside of a residence and during certain traffic stops

Answer 248

Community Caretaking Doctrine

Question 249

The ________________ is a recognized exception to a warrant requirement and allows officers to make a warrantless entry to summon emergency medical assistance or to protect an occupant from imminent bodily harm.

Answer 249

Emergency aid exception

Question 250

If officers determine that ___________________ no longer exist to remain inside a residence under the emergency aid exception, then they must exit unless proper consent is received. However, if officers develop probable cause to arrest an occupant before exigency no longer exists, then an arrest can be made before vacating the residence.

Answer 250

Exigent circumstances

Question 251

When an emergency aid exception happens, the sergeant will:

Answer 251

1. Acknowledge the call over the radio and if feasible, respond to the scene. 2. Ensure the preliminary investigation has been conducted by the officer. 3. Confirm exigent circumstances exist to justify the need for entry under the emergency aid exception. 4. Determine if the use of a locksmith or the use of an officer’s personal lock-picking device is appropriate. 5. Ensure additional units, resources, and medical assistance have been requested if needed.

Question 252

Investigative detentions, also known as reasonable suspicion stops, or Terry stops, allow an officer to stop a person to ascertain their:

Answer 252

a. Identity b. Purpose

Question 253

Officers can ask for identification; however, a person is not required to provide a ______________. If a person only provides a name, officers may require additional personal identifying information such as date of birth or social security number to verify identity. Once a person’s identity and purpose have been ascertained, and the officer’s reason for the stop is satisfied, detention must end, and the person must feel free to leave.

Answer 253

Government-issued ID

Question 254

Officers conducting a traffic stop are allowed to ____________ drivers and passengers to address unlawful driving behavior through a warning, citation, or in specific cases, arrest.

Answer 254

Minimally detain

Question 255

If during a traffic stop a driver becomes non-compliant when asked to provide identification and/or other requested documentation with no other actions, the driver will be considered an obstructive subject. A ____________ will be notified and respond to determine how to proceed.

Answer 255

Supervisor

Question 256

There are two types of traffic offenses: primary and secondary. Probable cause to believe that a _____________ has been committed is required to conduct a traffic stop.

Answer 256

Primary offense

Question 257

Traffic Stop: Officers can demand, and drivers are required to provide a _____________, _____________, and ________________. Officers can also run a records check to determine the status of driving privilege.

Answer 257

Driver’s license, Registration, Proof of insurance

Question 258

The detention on a traffic stop (unless the officer develops reasonable suspicion or probable cause for an arrest, or the officer receives consent from the occupants) must remain _____________.

Answer 258

Minimal

Question 259

Officers will not detain drivers or passengers for longer than is necessary to confirm the driving privilege status and to issue a citation or give a warning. In no event can the detention exceed ______________.

Answer 259

60 minutes

Question 260

A _________________ is not sufficient for a traffic stop (e.g., no seat belt).

Answer 260

Secondary offense

Question 261

The right to bear arms is protected by the United States Constitution. The determination to impound a firearm for safekeeping should be for _____________ or ____________ (e.g., found firearm). The determination to impound a firearm for safekeeping will be documented and articulated in the narrative portion of the Property Report (LVMPD 67a).

Answer 261

Life safety/To determine ownership

Question 262

Officers can seize Persons with the following justifications:

Answer 262

a. Investigative detention (60-Minute Rule) b. Vehicle stop (driver and passengers) c. Arrest d. Legal 2000

Question 263

Officers can seize Residences/Structures with the following justifications:

Answer 263

a. Premises freeze b. Search warrant

Question 264

Officers can seize Vehicles with the following justifications:

Answer 264

a. Vehicle stop b. Impound c. Search warrant

Question 265

Officers can seize Property with the following justifications:

Answer 265

a. Plain view b. Abandoned c. Premises freeze (electronic storage devices) d. Search warrant e. Safekeeping (protecting an item from theft or to determine ownership)

Question 266

Pursuant to a lawful stop, vehicles may be searched under the following circumstances if PC evidence is contained in the vehicle:

Answer 266

Search pursuant to a search warrant Vehicle is readily mobile Consent search

Question 267

Pursuant to a lawful stop, vehicles may be searched under the following circumstances if No PC evidence is contained in the vehicle:

Answer 267

Protective frisk for officer safety Inventory Consent search VIN inspection