Policy 2025 Flashcards
(207 cards)
1
Q
Fill in the blank: The application of deadly force is a measure to be employed in the most _______ circumstances.
A
[extreme]
2
Q
What is the primary commitment of the Las Vegas Metropolitan Police Department?
A
Protecting people, their property and rights while providing the best in public safety and service.
3
Q
The department respects the sanctity of every human life, and the application of deadly force is a measure to be employed in the most extreme circumstances where lesser means of force have failed or could not be reasonably considered
A
True
4
Q
An officer’s actions to slow down, stabilize, and resolve an incident as safely as possible by reducing danger through the use of verbal persuasion, tactics, resources, and transitioning through force options.
A
De-Escalation
5
Q
Officers are legally authorized to use deadly force to effect an arrest when in compliance with Nevada Revised Statutes (NRS) and the legal standards under ______________
A
Tennessee v. Garner (1985)
6
Q
Officers are legally authorized to use deadly force to effect an arrest when in compliance with Nevada Revised Statutes (NRS) and the legal standards under Tennessee v. Garner (1985) to:
A
1) Protect themselves or others from what is reasonably believed to be an imminent threat of death or substantial bodily harm
2) Prevent the escape of a fleeing felon who the officer has probable cause to believe has committed a violent felony crime and is an imminent threat to human life.
7
Q
Officers will only use a level of force that is ______________ to bring an incident or persons under control and to safely accomplish a lawful purpose.
A
Objectively Reasonable
8
Q
In choosing a force option, officers will consider the nature and ______________.
A
Severity of the crime
9
Q
The U.S. Supreme Court’s decisions and interpretations of the Fourth Amendment of the U.S. Constitution state an officer shall only use such force as is “objectively reasonable” under all of the circumstances. The standard that courts use to examine whether a use of force is constitutional was first set forth in ______________.
A
Graham v. Connor
10
Q
The reasonableness of a particular use of force must be judged from the perspective of a ______________, rather than with 20/20 vision of hindsight.
A
Judicious officer on the scene
11
Q
Objective factors that affect the reasonableness of the force include:
A
- The severity of the crime
- Whether the subject poses an immediate threat to the safety of
officers or others - Whether the subject is actively resisting arrest or attempting to
evade arrest by flight - The influence of drugs/alcohol or the mental capacity of the
subject - The time available to an officer to make a decision
- The availability of officers or resources (including the number of
officers present at the time) to de-escalate the situation - The proximity or access of weapons to the subject
- The environmental factors and/or other exigent circumstances
12
Q
When subjects are at extremes of age (under 13 over 70), physically frail, visibly or known to be pregnant, or disabled, officers will carefully weigh these factors and utilize ____________, crisis intervention, or other alternatives to force when reasonable (see NRS 171.1455). Where potential confrontations are anticipated, the deployment and use of _____________ should be evaluated.
A
De-escalation techniques/Low lethality options
13
Q
Any officer present, regardless of rank, and observing another officer using force that is clearly beyond what is justified or objectively reasonable under the circumstances will, _________________________________.
A
When in a safe position to do so, intercede to prevent the use of unreasonable force
14
Q
If the supervisor is using unjustified force, the officer will report
it to the ________________.
A
Next level of supervision
15
Q
Duty to Intervene: Reporting officer will document in writing no later than _________ after the occurrence.
A
10 days
16
Q
Reporting officer will document in writing no later than 10 days after the occurrence the following:
A
- Date, time, and location of the incident
- Identity, if known, and description of the participants
- Description of the actions taken as a result of the observation
17
Q
The department or any employee will not ____________ or __________ an employee who intervenes to stop any unjustified or unreasonable use of force or subsequent reporting.
A
Retaliate against/Discipline
18
Q
Whenever an officer applies a use of force option upon a subject that results in either observable signs or complaints of injury or difficulty in breathing, the officer will _____________ and immediately summon medical attention.
A
Continuously monitor the subject
19
Q
Whenever an officer applies a use of force option upon a subject that results in either ___________ or complaints of injury or difficulty in breathing, the officer will continuously monitor the subject and immediately summon medical attention.
A
Observable signs
20
Q
When requesting medical attention, the officer will provide the ___________, the subject’s age and gender, and other circumstances that could be of potential medical risk to the subject.
A
Nature of the injury
21
Q
When requesting medical attention, the officer will provide the nature of the injury, ______________, and other circumstances that could be of potential medical risk to the subject.
A
The subject’s age and gender
22
Q
When requesting medical attention, the officer will provide the nature of the injury, the subject’s age and gender, and _________________________.
A
Other circumstances that could be of potential medical risk to the subject
23
Q
Whenever an officer applies a use of force option upon a subject that results in either observable signs or complaints of injury or difficulty in breathing, the officer will _____________ and immediately summon medical attention.
A
Continuously monitor the subject
24
Q
Whenever an officer applies a use of force option upon a subject that results in either observable signs or ___________ or difficulty in breathing, the officer will continuously monitor the subject and immediately summon medical attention.
A
Complaints of injury
25
Whenever an officer applies a use of force option upon a subject that results in either observable signs or complaints of injury or ______________, the officer will continuously monitor the subject and immediately summon medical attention.
Difficulty in breathing
26
Officers ______________ who are in custody and under control in a manner that compromises their ability to breathe.
Will not restrain subjects
27
___________ subjects will be immediately placed in a recovery or seated position once safe to do so.
Proned handcuffed
28
In ____________, the best course of action may be to transport the subject to the nearest medical facility. The nature of injury, response time of medical personnel, and the proximity of the medical facility should be considered.
Some instances
29
Medical attention will be summoned for the following use of force applications, regardless of visible injury or complaint of injury:
1. Baton/Impact weapons – any strikes to the head, neck, chest,
spine, kidneys, or groin area
2. Canine – all bites
3. Electronic control device (ECD) – probe strikes to the head, neck,
chest, or groin area
4. Oleoresin capsicum (OC) spray – direct exposure to the facial area
5. Use of Force with a Projectile Weapon:
a. Low lethality shotgun – all strikes
b. 40mm specialty impact weapon – all strikes
6. Handgun/Shotgun/Rifle – all strikes
7. Use of Force with a Vehicle:
a. Precision intervention technique (PIT)
b. Ramming – all
30
After prisoner transport, the arresting officer will notify detention personnel and facility medical staff if the subject has a __________, complains of injury, or has experienced any of the above force applications.
Visible injury
31
After prisoner transport, the arresting officer will notify detention personnel and facility medical staff if the subject has a visible injury, ____________, or has experienced any of the above force applications.
Complains of injury
32
UOF: A person contacted by an officer who acknowledges direction or lawful orders given and offers no resistance.
Compliant
33
UOF: The subject is uncooperative, not complying with an officer’s commands, or their physical actions are intended to prevent an officer from placing the subject in custody or under control; the subject’s actions are not directed at harming the officer or others.
Obstructive
a. Standing stationary and not moving upon lawful direction
b. Becoming “dead weight”
c. Holding onto a fixed object (e.g., utility pole or steering wheel) or
locking arms with another
during a protest
d. Walking or running away
e. Breaking the officer’s grip
34
UOF: The subject demonstrates the intent to harm the officer, others or themselves.
Assaultive
a. A subject taking a fighting stance, punching, kicking, striking, or
attacking with weapons
b. Other actions which present an imminent threat of physical harm
c. A subject fleeing while in control of weapon (e.g., firearm in a
waistband)
35
UOF: The subject’s actions are likely to result in death or substantial bodily injury to the officer or others.
Life Threatening
a. The imminent use of a firearm, blunt, or bladed weapon
b. Extreme physical force
36
UOF: A level of control that balances against a subject who is compliant or obstructive and is neither likely nor intended to cause injury. Examples are handcuffing a compliant arrestee or proning a subject out on a high-risk vehicle stop.
Low Level Force
37
UOF: Low Level Force includes:
a. Officer presence
b. Verbal communication
c. Empty hand tactics: physical restraint, hand control (escorts,
gripping, wristlocks), takedowns (not likely to cause injury,
complaint of injury or complaint of continuing pain)
d. Handcuffs/Hobbles/DSD specialty restraints (excluding restraint
chair as defined in NRS 193.350)
e. Baton (as escort tool)
f. Canine (on leash)
g. Vehicle containment technique (VCT) (This requires a Use of Force
Report.)
38
UOF: A level of control that balances against a subject who is assaultive and has the potential to cause injury or substantial pain.
Intermediate Force
39
UOF: Intermediate Force includes:
a. Empty hand tactics (strikes, kicks)
b. DSD specialty restraint devices (including restraint chair)
c. Baton/Impact tools (jabs, strikes)
d. Oleoresin capsicum (OC) spray
e. Electronic control device (ECD)
f. Low lethality shotgun (fired at a distance of seven yards or greater)
g. 40mm specialty impact weapon (fired at a distance of five yards or
greater)
h. Canine (with bites)
i. PIT (speeds 40 mph or below)
40
UOF: A degree of force which balances against a subject whose actions are life-threatening and likely to result in death or substantial bodily injury.
Deadly Force
41
UOF: Deadly Force includes:
a. Baton (striking head, neck, chest, spine, groin, or kidneys)
b. Low lethality shotgun (fired at a distance less than seven yards)
c. 40mm specialty impact weapon (fired at a distance less than five
yards)
d. PIT (speeds more than 40 mph)
e. Ramming
f. Firearm use
42
An officer _________ use deadly force against a person based on the threat that the person poses solely to themselves.
Will not
43
In the use of deadly force, the following elements must be articulated by the officer:
Ability, Opportunity, Imminent Jeopardy, Preclusion
44
UOF: Exists when a person has the means or capability to cause substantial bodily injury or death to an officer or others. May include the subject’s size, age, strength, combative skill, level of
aggression, and any weapons in their immediate control.
Ability
45
UOF: Exists when a person is in a position to effectively resist an officer’s control or to use force or violence upon the officer or others.
Opportunity
46
UOF: Examples which may affect opportunity include:
a. ___________________________
b. Physical barriers between the subject and the officer.
Relative distance to the officer or others.
47
UOF: Examples which may affect opportunity include:
a. Relative distance to the officer or others.
b. ________________________________
Physical barriers between the subject and the officer.
48
UOF: Exists based upon the known facts and circumstances, the officer reasonably believes the subject poses an imminent threat to the life of an officer or others, and the officer must act immediately to prevent death or substantial bodily injury
Imminent Jeopardy
49
UOF: Exists when lesser alternatives have been reasonably considered and exhausted before the use of deadly force, to include disengagement.
Preclusion
50
Non-uniformed commissioned personnel the rank of lieutenant and below are required to carry at least _____ intermediate force option
One
51
If feasible, before the use of any approved weapon, the officer will communicate with other officers in the area and issue a warning to the subject. Officers will give the subject a __________________
to comply. This is particularly important in preventing sympathetic fire when utilizing projectile weapons or the ECD.
Reasonable opportunity
52
Officers will not use a baton, ECD, or projectile weapon on a woman who is believed to be pregnant unless the subject displays _________________.
life-threatening resistance
53
Chokeholds are ___________. Officers ________ use an arm bar across the throat or any technique that encircles the neck, including the Lateral Vascular Neck Restraint®(LVNR®). Any action that is
likely to restrict the flow of air into a person’s lungs or blood into a person’s brain is ___________.
Not permitted/Will not/Prohibited
54
Officers _________ use an ECD or projectile weapon when the subject is in an elevated position where a fall is likely to result in substantial bodily injury or death unless the subject displays ______________. This is particularly important when utilizing the ECD.
Will not/Life-threatening resistance
55
Officers ______ use physical force solely to stop a person from swallowing a substance that is in their mouth or to retrieve evidence from a person’s mouth.
Will not
56
To minimize the risk of injury to officers and others, an officer will handcuff all persons arrested as soon as possible. What are approved reasons for handcuffing during investigative detentions (Terry Stops) where one or more of the following factors are present and only for as long as the circumstances exist, not to exceed 60 minutes:
1) Articulable facts that the subject is physically uncooperative
2) Articulable facts that a subject’s actions may present physical
danger to themselves or others if not restrained
3) Reasonable possibility of flight based on the actions of the subject
4) Information that the subject is currently armed
5) The stop closely follows a violent crime, and the subject matches
specific parts of a description
6) Articulable facts that a crime of violence is about to occur
57
Approved Use for Handcuffs:
a. During investigative detentions
b. Suicidal persons
c. During a search warrant service, as is reasonably necessary, to
safely execute the warrant
d. Persons being transported to detoxification facilities
e. By officers moving in-custody subjects
58
Special restraints will not be used unless _________________.
Approved by a supervisor
59
When responding to a security office where a subject has been placed in handcuffs prior to the officer’s arrival, the officer will not place LVMPD handcuffs on the subject until the officer has
___________ or ___________ based on their independent investigation.
Reasonable suspicion/Probable cause
60
Officers are __________ from using their firearm as an impact tool due to the possibility of a negligent discharge.
Discouraged
61
OC spray will not be used on a handcuffed subject unless the subject is displaying _____________.
Assaultive resistance
62
OC spray __________ be used on a driver of a vehicle or inside a patrol vehicle
Should not
63
In a protest or demonstration situation, OC spray may only be used when authorized by an ___________ in response to imminent threat of harm
Incident Commander
64
In a protest or demonstration situation, OC spray may only be used when authorized by an incident commander in response to ________________.
Imminent threat of harm
65
What level of control is an ECD application?
Intermediate Force
66
Touch Stun is a pain-compliance application of the ECD, with or without the use of a cartridge, by making direct contact against the subject’s body. The use of a Touch Stun application is __________ unless used to complete neuro-muscular incapacitation by closing a circuit when probes have already been deployed.
Discouraged
67
Officers _______ conduct a spark check, outside the public view, at the beginning of shift to ensure the ECD will function properly. This spark check does not require a Use of Force Report.
Must
68
The ECD will not be used:
1) On a handcuffed person.
2) When the officer knows a subject has come in contact with
flammable liquids or substances.
3) On a fleeing subject (without other known factors). Mere flight
from an officer cannot be the sole justification for use of the ECD.
4) On persons with known heart conditions.
69
ECD: Use the standard ECD five second cycle and then _________ the need to apply another five second cycle after providing the subject with _______________________.
Evaluate/An opportunity to comply
70
ECD: Each subsequent five second cycle requires _______________.
Additional justification
71
Once the subject has been exposed to ______ cycles, the ECD will be deemed ineffective, and another use of force option will be considered unless exigent circumstances exist.
Three
72
Approved use of canine: Handlers will keep the patrol dog on leash and not allow the dog to make contact with the subject when the subject is in what level of resistance?
Obstructive
73
Approved use of canine: Canine (with bite) is approved when there is probable cause to believe a subject has committed a violent or felony crime, or is a threat to themselves or others, and is evading efforts to be taken into custody. What level of resistance is this?
Assaultive or life threatening
74
When it is believed a subject may be armed with a weapon likely to cause injury to the patrol dog, the handler ______ exercise their discretion to deploy the dog.
May
75
Any injury caused by a patrol dog to a person who was not the subject of the search will be documented in _________ as an Accidental/Unintentional Bite Incident Report and require a
supervisor response.
Blue Team
76
The positioning of a police vehicle in the path of an occupied subject vehicle where contact between the vehicles is anticipated to be minimal, and the potential for injuries is low.
Blocking
77
The intent of _________ is to prevent an avenue of escape by the safe placement of a police vehicle.
Blocking
78
The utilization of a police vehicle to intentionally hit another vehicle.
Ramming
79
A preplanned containment tactic restricted for use only by units in the SWAT Bureau and the Major Violator Section. It employs extremely low-speed and intentional vehicle contact with a subject’s vehicle. The purpose is to prevent a vehicle pursuit and render a vehicle immobile.
Vehicle Containment Technique (VCT)
80
A specific manner of intentional contact using a police vehicle against a fleeing vehicle during a pursuit to cause the fleeing vehicle to come to an abrupt stop, rendering it immobile.
Precision Intervention Technique (PIT)
81
UOF with a Vehicle: ________ is a permitted tactic and is not considered a use of force.
Blocking
82
Vehicle containment technique (VCT) is considered ___________ force.
Low level
83
Precision Intervention Technique (PIT) at speeds 40 mph or below is considered ___________ force.
Intermediate
84
PIT in the following instances:
1) At speeds of more than 40 mph
2) When used on a high center-of-gravity vehicle likely to roll over
such as vans, SUVs, and Jeeps
is considered ____________ force.
Deadly
85
Ramming, regardless of speed is considered _____________ force.
Deadly
86
Prior to initiating a PIT, officers will use their emergency equipment and will give the operator of the subject vehicle a _______________.
Reasonable opportunity to stop
87
Officers will advise __________ the intent to use a PIT if circumstances permit. Otherwise, notification will be made immediately after.
Dispatch
88
Officers driving department trucks or non-patrol SUV-type vehicles are __________ to use a PIT (exception: Major Violator Section, Narcotics Section, and Viper Section trucks/mini-vans/SUVs).
not authorized
89
Use of VCT is prohibited when a subject vehicle has ___________, at least one of whom is not directly associated with the original crime.
Three or more occupants
90
What are the supervisor's responsibilities for PIT?
a. Immediately acknowledge the officer’s notification over the radio.
b. Order discontinuation of the PIT when the necessity for
apprehension is outweighed by the dangers of the PIT.
91
Any contact that causes damage or a collision between a department vehicle and another vehicle after PIT will also be reported as a ___________ on a Vehicle Incident Report (LVMPD 42).
Traffic incident
92
Any contact that causes damage or a collision between a department vehicle and another vehicle will also be reported as a traffic incident on a ________________.
Vehicle Incident Report (LVMPD 42)
93
The vehicle containment technique (VCT) and ramming require a _____________.
Use of Force Report
94
PIT (successful uses or attempts) requires a ____________ and a __________.
Use of Force Report/Pursuit Report
95
Intermediate Force - Low Lethality Shotgun when fired at a distance of __________ or greater and 40mm Specialty Impact Weapon when fired at a distance of _________ or greater.
Seven yards/Five yards
96
Low Lethality Shotgun when fired at a distance of seven yards or
greater and 40mm Specialty Impact Weapon when fired at a distance of five yards or greater is considered ___________ Force.
Intermediate
97
Deadly Force – Low Lethality Shotgun when fired at a distance ___________ and 40mm Specialty Impact Weapon when fired at a distance ____________.
Less than seven yards/Less than five yards
98
When time permits, ________ officers will be present for the deployment of a projectile weapon; this is the most effective and best practice in utilizing a low lethality shotgun or 40mm specialty impact weapon.
Two
99
Low Lethality Shotgun when fired at a distance less than seven yards and 40mm Specialty Impact Weapon when fired at a distance less than five yards is considered __________ Force.
Deadly
100
In exigent circumstances, a _________ can deploy and use a projectile weapon; however, the officer will apply sound tactics to mitigate risk and will maintain a readiness to transition to their firearm.
Single officer
101
Officers are cautioned that the target area for impact munitions substantially differs from a deadly force target area. Instead of aiming for center mass, these weapons will be aimed at the _________ and target the large muscle groups of the buttocks, thigh, and the knees of the subject.
Abdomen
102
Officers are cautioned that the target area for impact munitions substantially differs from a deadly force target area. Instead of aiming for center mass, these weapons will be aimed at the abdomen and target the large muscle groups of the ______________ of the subject.
Buttocks, thigh, and the knees
103
Projectile weapons may be used against persons who are holding a firearm if it can be utilized to de-escalate and intervene with a potential deadly force situation.
Firearm
104
Projectile weapons may be used against persons who are holding a firearm if it can be utilized to de-escalate and intervene with a potential deadly force situation; however, the following conditions must be met:
1) A minimum of two officers are present, one officer acting as lethal
coverage.
2) Officers have considered the use of available cover/concealment.
105
In a civil unrest situation unless authorized by an ____________ or above. Each application must target a specific individual who presents an imminent threat, and it must be
reasonably assured that other individuals in the crowd who pose no threat will not be struck by the munitions. Officers will not intentionally target the head, neck, spine, pelvis, or any other
vital area of the body unless the person poses an immediate threat of physical harm or death to officers or others.
Incident Commander
106
Use of a firearm: Officers will cease fire when the perceived deadly threat is no longer present. Whenever feasible, officers will:
1) Identify themselves and state their intention to shoot. Example:
“Police! Stop, or I’ll shoot!”
2) Control their rate of fire and assess every round fired.
3) Evaluate obtaining a better tactical advantage and backdrop
before discharging their firearm at the subject
107
Officers should shoot at the ___________ for maximum stopping effectiveness and minimal danger to bystanders. Accurate shot placement is imperative. Missing an intended target provides the most risk to citizens and officers and does not stop a deadly threat.
Center mass
108
Flashlights mounted to firearms ________ be used for routine searches in place of a hand-held flashlight.
Will not
109
Shooting at or from a moving vehicle is ineffective, dangerous and unpredictable. An officer threatened by an oncoming vehicle will ______________________.
Make every effort to move out of the way
110
Officers will not discharge their firearm at a moving vehicle unless:
a. A person in the vehicle is an imminent deadly threat to officers or
others by means other than the vehicle (such as an occupant
firing a handgun at an officer).
b. The driver is using the vehicle as a weapon to inflict mass
causalities (such as a truck driving through a crowd).
111
The placement of a firearm against a person is extreme. Officers will not place their firearm against a person unless:
The person is an imminent threat of death or substantial bodily injury, and the exigent circumstances and environmental factors do not allow the officer the ability or opportunity to withdraw to a more tactically secure position.
112
Directed Rifle Patrol:
a) Must be authorized by the ________________ or a _______________.
b) Only those officers specifically designated on the Incident Action
Plan (IAP) or who are assigned as directed rifle patrol will be
allowed to open carry/overt carry rifles during special events.
Events Planning lieutenant/Captain assigned as the incident commander
113
When officers deploy rifles on an incident the supervisor will:
1) Proceed immediately to the incident and assume tactical control.
2) Ensure proper deployment of rifles and address over-deployment
and crossfire issues.
114
A designated officer who is not involved in the use of deadly force and whose responsibilities are to prevent discussions regarding the incident among subject officers, witness officers, witnesses, and with other individuals who arrive at the scene prior to the Force Investigation Team (FIT).
Monitor officer
115
A series of questions to obtain information to determine if there is an immediate threat to public safety.
Public Safety Statement (PSS)
116
Any use of force which results in injury or complaint of injury, complaint of continuing pain, or any use of force greater than low-level force.
Reportable force
117
A Use of Force Report is required by _________ who uses reportable force in an incident
Each officer
118
Use of Force Reports will be completed by _________ (any exceptions must be approved by a supervisor) and reviewed through the chain of command within ________.
End of shift/30 days
119
Levels of Control that require the completion of a Use of Force Report include:
1. Low-level force that results in injury, complaint of injury, or
complaint of continuing pain
a. The vehicle containment technique (VCT) is a reportable use of
force whether or not an injury, complaint of injury, or
complaint of continuing pain occurred.
2. All intermediate force
3. All deadly force
120
_____________________ is a reportable use of force whether or not an injury, complaint of injury, or complaint of continuing pain occurred.
The vehicle containment technique (VCT)
121
Critical Incident Review Team (CIRT) will:
a. Complete the Use of Force Report on officer involved shootings or
use of deadly force incidents, and when applicable, the Pursuit
Report.
b. At the discretion of the CIRT lieutenant, also complete the Use of
Force Report when low lethality options are used.
122
CIRT will complete the Firearm Discharge Report on:
a. Any discharge at a person regardless of injury.
b. The discharge of any firearm (other than at a human being) which
includes dog or animal shoots in self-defense or to humanely
euthanize. Resident officers are an exception
123
IAB will complete the Firearm Discharge Report on:
Negligent discharge of a firearm whether on or off duty
124
Non-deadly force requiring a Use of Force Report will be investigated by ______________________.
The officer’s chain of command
125
Non-deadly UOF: Supervisors involved as subject officers in a reportable use of force incident will not investigate themselves or other subject officers; investigative duties will be relinquished to _____________________.
The next level of supervision in the officer’s chain of command
126
Non-deadly UOF: If the next level of supervision in the officer’s chain of command is unavailable, the supervisor involved in the use of force incident will notify the _______________. ______________ will delegate the next level of supervision responsible for the use of force investigative duties.
On-duty watch commander/The watch commander
127
When an ECD is used how do you handle the used probes?
Handle the probes in the same manner as contaminated needles in accordance with bio-hazard disposal procedures and impound all probes, wires, and cartridges as evidence.
128
After an ECD is used provide the ECD to a ___________ for data download
Supervisor
129
UOF with a vehicle: Any contact with damage will be reported as a traffic incident on a Vehicle Incident Report (LVMPD 42). A Use of Force Report is not required.
Blocking
130
UOF with a vehicle: Use of this technique requires a Use of Force Report. Any contact or collision will be documented by the Traffic Bureau on a Vehicle Incident Report.
Vehicle Containment Technique (VCT)
131
UOF with a vehicle: Traffic officers will respond to assist with the traffic investigation.
Precision Intervention Technique (PIT)
132
UOF with a vehicle: A supervisor will:
a. Respond, without delay, to an incident in which reportable force is
used.
b. Determine the level of force
c. Conduct an investigation by interviewing the subjects, officers,
medical personnel, and witnesses.
d. Ensure photographs are taken and placed into Blue Team, to
include the subjects, the scene, officers involved, and collect any
evidence.
e. For the review of body worn camera video, see LVMPD 7.136, Body
Worn Cameras.
f. Check the surrounding area for any video surveillance, obtain a
copy, and ensure the third-party video is impounded as evidence
and noted in Blue Team.
g. Review all applicable reports to ensure accuracy and
completeness.
133
What are the supervisor responsibilities when an ECD has been used?
1) Ensure the data record has been uploaded into Blue Team.
2) Verify the probes, wires, and cartridges are properly impounded,
and arrange for replacement cartridges (accidental discharges will
not require impounding unless there has been an injury).
134
Document the investigation in a _________________ when alleged use of force is determined to be unfounded.
Citizen Contact (CC) in Blue Team
135
When an officer discharges a firearm, uses deadly force, has a negligent discharge of a firearm whether on or off duty, uses any force resulting in death or causes substantial bodily injury, or
becomes aware of an in-custody death, the officer will:
1) Ensure life safety.
2) Ensure the scene is safe and secure.
3) Immediately notify Dispatch (via radio if on-duty; Dispatch will
update the CAD event accordingly):
a) If needed, request medical assistance and provide
information on injuries.
b) Include suspect description and location.
4) Once the scene is static, an officer should not modify, load, or
unload any firearm used prior to the countdown by FIT. In
addition, the officer will not modify their attire to include
positioning of their equipment and BWC.
136
UODF resulting in death or substantial bodily harm: The first arriving supervisor will:
a. Act as incident commander until relieved and will:
1) Ensure medical attention is provided for those in need.
2) Ensure the crime scene is safe and secure, preventing the
possibility of contamination or alteration.
a) This responsibility includes the removal of unauthorized
persons, including officers from the inner perimeter of the
crime scene. A degree of tact and good judgment must be
exercised to avoid alienating potential witnesses who may
possess information of value.
3) Update Dispatch and request that notifications be made.
a) Dispatch will update the CAD event accordingly.
4) Coordinate the search for outstanding suspects.
5) Oversee the identification and isolation of witnesses.
6) Ensure witness officers and subject officers are separated and
placed in a secure environment with a monitor officer. The
monitor officer will:
a) Not talk to the officer about the facts and circumstances of
the incident.
b) Ensure that subject/witness officers remain at scene. Under
no circumstance will any representative be allowed to move
the location of any subject or witness officer prior to a FIT
supervisor’s approval.
c) Ensure that subject officers and witness officers do not
discuss the incident being investigated.
d) Remain with the officer until the firearms countdown is
completed or dismissed by a FIT supervisor.
b. Provide FIT detectives on the names and locations of the subject
officers and potential witness officers. If there is concern that an
officer is not a witness officer, but a subject officer, the ranking FIT
supervisor will make the final determination regarding the status
of the officer(s).
c. Remain on scene, and do not leave until released by the FIT
supervisor.
137
The Public Safety Statement (PSS) is a series of questions asked of the shooting officer to obtain information to determine if an immediate threat to public safety exists. The PSS must be taken in a
timely manner and appropriate action conducted based on the information received from the PSS. When practical, only the ____________ and a __________ should be present during the PSS.
Shooting officer/Supervisor
138
The questions will be read directly from the PSS card (no unauthorized form will be used). A supervisor will write down the officer’s response. The PSS _________ be recorded on a body worn camera.
Should not
139
In the event where the supervisor is involved in an officer involved shooting and no other supervisor is immediately available to take the PSS, _______________ will conduct the PSS.
The senior officer on scene
140
What is the Force Investigation Team (FIT) response criteria?
1) Any use of deadly force as described in LVMPD 3.110, Use of
Force.
2) Any incident where a department member, in the course of their
duties, is a victim of a significant violent crime or sustains
substantial injury.
3) In-custody death, including any subject assigned to the Electronic
Monitoring Program (EMP), either with an ankle monitor or on
house arrest.
4) Other jurisdiction requests that meet FIT criteria
5) Suspect or citizen receives a substantial bodily injury or is killed in
a police operation.
6) Any investigation and/or incident at the request of the Sheriff or
designee.
7) Any alleged negligent discharge of a firearm, on/off duty with
injury to a human being
141
UODF: If the subject officer provides FIT with a voluntary statement and probable cause exists, _____ will complete the arrest.
FIT
142
UODF: If the subject officer does not speak with FIT and is the only witness, the ________ will make the decision to arrest and then complete all paperwork, including the Temporary Custody Record (TCR)/Declaration of Arrest Report (DOAR).
Subject officer
143
________ conducts non-criminal, administrative examinations of deadly force, significant bodily injury, or other high-risk police operations. The purpose of this review is to improve individual and agency performance through the evaluation of decision making, tactics, supervision, and the actual use of force.
CIRT
144
_______ will conduct a preliminary investigation and determine whether the investigation remains with CIRT, is transferred to IAB for review, or is reverted to the officer’s chain of command
CIRT
145
UODF: CIRT will respond and investigate the following:
a. Use of deadly force or use of force resulting in death.
b. The intentional discharge of any firearm on duty.
c. Deadly force PIT maneuvers or PIT maneuvers resulting in death
or substantial bodily injury.
d. Officer, while in the line of duty, is killed or sustains a substantial
bodily injury, including a traffic collision.
e. In-custody death occurs during a police operation or at the Clark
County Detention Center (CCDC) where no clear medical issues
are related to the death. CIRT will respond to in-custody
suicides and attempted suicides.
f. A high-risk incident, such as active shooter or large-scale civil
unrest, upon the request of the Sheriff
146
UODF: CIRT may respond and investigate the following:
a. Use of force resulting in substantial bodily injury to include car
accidents.
1) Upon notification, the CIRT supervisor will make the
determination of whether a CIRT response is required.
a) Substantial bodily injuries may include cranial fractures,
brain bleeds, head/chest injuries which create a risk of
death, or paralysis. Wounds not amounting to substantial
bodily injury (may include broken wrist, cracked tooth,
abrasions, and sprains), will be investigated by the
officer’s chain of command.
b. The negligent discharge of a firearm
147
UODF: The purpose of the scene walkthrough is to assist investigators with an understanding of the scene, identifying physical evidence and officer locations at the time deadly force was used. The walkthrough with the subject officer is _________, and it is not an interview. Personnel observing the walkthrough will be at the discretion of the FIT supervisor.
Voluntary
148
UODF: ____________ will provide a walkthrough, and an audio recorded statement as needed or directed by FIT. _____________ will identify their location and explain their role as a _____________.
A _______________ who refuses to provide information will be deemed in violation of LVMPD 8.160, Obedience and Insubordination.
Witness officers
149
The subject officer’s chain of command will complete the ____________ for any incident involving the use of deadly force or where substantial bodily injury or death results. Supervisors will place other officers in relief of duty status at the direction of PEAP.
Administrative Leave Notice (LVMPD 117)
150
Code 2: Non-Emergency - Lights only, may be used:
a. To stop violators (consideration shall be given for immediate
activation of emergency lights).
b. Upon arriving in an area where the use of the siren may signal
suspects.
c. To signal other motorists of traffic hazards when an officer is
moving at a slow speed in traffic (e.g., pushing a stalled vehicle,
moving at slow speed as a crime prevention tool, or making
unusual movement on the roadway). Officers must drive at the
speed limit or below.
d. When approved by a sergeant or above during an authorized
motorcade. Note: Officers responding to non-emergency calls will
not use emergency lights and/or siren for the sole purpose of
crossing intersections.
151
Code 3: Emergency lights and siren, emergency response driving, will not exceed posted speed limit by more than _______. In regard to pursuit driving, the ______ over posted speed limit maximum
rule is removed.
20 mph
152
Officers may respond Code 3 when:
1. Imminent danger to citizens and the officer’s arrival might save
lives.
2. Another officer requires assistance to control a volatile situation.
3. Reliable information exists of a felony in progress.
4. Pursuits
153
Typing of messages and use of a cell phone are __________ during a Code 3 response.
Prohibited
154
Primary officer (or first officer to initiate Code 3 response) will:
1. Determine the need for Code 3 response.
2. Notify Communications via radio of Code 3 status.
3. Activate and continuously utilize emergency lights and siren.
4. Activate the Code 3 button on the mobile data terminal (MDT), if
equipped with MDT.
5. Proceed in a safe manner.
155
Field supervisors will: Monitor respective radio channels to ensure strict adherence to this policy and will _______ or _______ code 3
responses, as warranted.
Cancel/Direct
156
It is the policy of this department that a vehicle pursuit may be initiated based on a pursuing officer’s observations that the pursuit is the best available tactic at the time. For those reasons, the
requirement for___________________ by a supervisor for a pursuit is the cornerstone of the department's pursuit philosophy.
Immediate control and authorization
157
A non-code tactic that is utilized when attempting to contain a suspect in a mobile vehicle. The tactic utilizes police units to create a mobile perimeter or “bubble.”
Bubble tactic
158
Responsible for the management of a vehicle pursuit, bubble tactic, and/or Air Unit surveillance of a suspect vehicle that meets pursuit criteria.
Monitoring supervisor
159
Units not directly involved in a vehicle pursuit intentionally traveling on adjacent streets as to remain parallel with the pursuit and/or suspect vehicle while not adhering to all traffic laws, regardless of the activation of emergency equipment (lights and siren).
Paralleling (prohibited)
160
A pursuit will only be authorized for a ____________ or if the suspect presents a _______________.
Violent felony offense/Clear and immediate danger to the public
161
A ______________________ will not be defined by officers based solely on a suspect’s reaction to the initial vehicle stop.
Clear and immediate danger to the public
162
If an officer can articulate that a suspect presents a clear and immediate danger to the public, the monitoring supervisor must _____________ the vehicle pursuit over the radio.
Verbally approve
163
If approved, the monitoring supervisor will direct the continuance of the vehicle pursuit. In addition, initiating pursuit officers and field supervisors who authorize the vehicle pursuit to continue will consider the following:
1. Whether the need for immediate apprehension of the suspect(s)
outweighs the danger created by the pursuit itself.
a. If the vehicle pursuit is for a violent felony, pursuing units
and monitoring supervisor(s) should evaluate the severity of
the crime and when it occurred. For example:
1) Is there a confirmed victim and evidence or
corroborating witness(es) to support that a violent
felony crime occurred? Does the crime involve
substantial bodily injury or death?
2) Is the crime part of a violent felony crime series?
2. Whether the suspect is known to officers and could be
apprehended later.
3. Speeds of the vehicle pursuit (pursuing units and fleeing vehicle).
4. Vehicle and pedestrian traffic (including road conditions).
5. Environmental factors surrounding the pursuit: residential,
commercial, or rural.
6. Weather conditions (e.g., rain, fog, or snow).
7. Time of day: Does visibility create an unreasonable risk of injury to
the public or pursuing officers?
8. Alternatives to allowing the pursuit to continue, including the
availability of the Air Unit, use of the bubble tactic, surveillance
with unmarked LVMPD vehicles, use of the precision intervention
technique (PIT), deployment of stop sticks, or arrest at a later time
via investigative means.
164
A maximum of _______ pursuing units will be authorized unless additional units are approved to join the pursuit by a monitoring supervisor.
Three (primary, secondary, and third)
165
Any officer who assumes the primary position, at any point during the pursuit, regardless of duration in the primary position, will complete a separate _________________.
Pursuit Report in Blue Team
166
Any primary pursuing unit will proceed to the ______________ at the conclusion of the pursuit.
Termination point
167
Supervisors directly involved in the vehicle pursuit – whether as the primary, secondary, or the third unit –will ______________ to a black and white marked patrol unit joining the vehicle pursuit. This will ensure the supervisor maintains command, control, and objectivity of the vehicle pursuit.
Relinquish their position
168
Decisions made by the pursuing units and monitoring supervisors who authorize the vehicle pursuit will have the primary goal of assuring the safety of ___________, __________, and, when possible, ____________.
Innocent citizens/Officers/Those who are fleeing
169
If pursuing units discontinue a vehicle pursuit or are ordered by a supervisor to discontinue, the pursuing units will:
1. Immediately cease emergency operations (lights and siren),
reduce speed, and discontinue visual contact with the suspect
vehicle.
2. Broadcast over the radio the discontinuance of pursuit and that
there is no longer visual contact of the suspect vehicle.
170
An officer involved in a motor vehicle collision during an emergency response, or a pursuit will immediately discontinue involvement and take proper action as required by NRS 484E and department directives unless:
1. No unit is available to assume the pursuit or respond to the unit
involved.
2. Damage to the unit is minor, and it can still be operated without
danger.
3. There are no apparent injuries as a result of the collision.
171
Officers must notify the Communications Bureau under the following circumstances:
1. When a pursuit is initiated and terminated.
2. When a pursuit is initiated and discontinued.
3. When a situation is observed that could result in a pursuit, but the
pursuit did not meet the criteria for pursuing (event must be
created or updated in this situation).
172
Officers must notify Communications via radio if they are the __________ unit at any point of a vehicle pursuit. Considering the dynamics of a vehicle pursuit, the __________ unit could alternate between authorized pursuit units.
Primary
173
What is the appropriate code used by dispatch for pursuit initiated and terminated?
PS
174
What is the appropriate code used by dispatch for pursuit initiated and discontinued?
PC
175
What is the appropriate code used by dispatch for potential pursuit situation observed but situation did not meet criteria?
PO
176
Units bubbling a suspect vehicle will not intentionally bubble outside their assigned area command unless approved by the ______________ and assigned by the Communications dispatcher, in consultation with the monitoring supervisor.
Monitoring supervisor
177
Whether or not a vehicle pursuit is occurring, if the suspect vehicle enters another area command or jurisdiction, the _____________ will determine if the bubble tactic should continue. The monitoring supervisor will not transition responsibilities while the bubble tactic is still active and will continue to monitor unless relieved by a higher-ranking department supervisor.
Monitoring supervisor
178
If a vehicle pursuit has been initiated, or the suspect vehicle meets pursuit criteria and the bubble tactic is active and/or Air Unit surveillance has been established, all units assigned will work on the __________________ radio channel throughout the incident, regardless of whether the suspect vehicle moves into other area commands or jurisdictions.
Originating area command
179
If the suspect vehicle enters another area command or jurisdiction, the monitoring supervisor _________ transition responsibilities and ________ continue to monitor unless relieved by a higher-ranking department supervisor.
Will not/Will
180
During a pursuit the monitoring supervisor will:
1. Immediately acknowledge the notification made by the pursuing
officers or Communications and authorize the continuation of the
vehicle pursuit over the radio by stating, “I am supervising this
pursuit.”
2. Continuously evaluate the need to authorize additional units to
the pursuit.
3. Determine whether a transition to the bubble tactic is more
appropriate based on availability of the Air Unit and unmarked
vehicles.
4. Evaluate whether to discontinue the pursuit if the Air Unit has
arrived and assumed primary responsibility for broadcasting the
progress of the pursuit.
5. During the pursuit, consider use of PIT and/or stop sticks.
6. Discontinue the pursuit over the radio when apprehension of the
fleeing suspect(s) is outweighed by the danger caused by the
pursuit.
a. Confirm that speeds of pursuing units and fleeing vehicle are
reasonably being broadcast over the radio throughout the
duration of the pursuit.
7. Discourage overconvergence at termination point to avoid officers
unduly jeopardizing the safety of themselves and others.
8. Respond to the termination point and manage the overall scene
(i.e., high-risk vehicle stop procedures, a low-lethal option, and a
custody plan).
9. If the occupant(s) of the suspect vehicle flees on foot:
a. When available, coordinate with the Air Unit to communicate
with bubbling units on apprehension/containment
procedures. If Air Unit is unavailable, communicate with
bubbling units on apprehension/containment procedures.
b. Manage police activities for the suspect vehicle (e.g., high-
risk vehicle stop procedures and containment).
10. Ensure all required post-pursuit procedures are completed.
181
Pursuits will be discontinued when leaving Clark County unless the decision to continue is approved by the ____________ or ____________.
LVMPD on-duty watch commander/Area lieutenant
182
When a pursuit leaves Clark County, officers and supervisors will re-evaluate the pursuit to include consideration of the following:
a. How long the pursuit has lasted
b. Whether assistance is needed from another agency
c. Whether communication can be maintained
d. All factors set forth in the policy as to whether the pursuit can be
conducted in reasonable safety and in compliance with policy and
state law.
183
When a pursuit leaves Clark County, the pursuing officer or supervisor ________ request assistance from another agency.
May
184
If a request is made for assistance from another agency, officers or supervisors will not request an officer from another agency to _____________: however, other appropriate forms of assistance may be requested.
Actively join in the pursuit
185
Officers are prohibited from joining pursuits initiated by another jurisdiction or law enforcement agency unless assigned to the pursuit by an Officers are prohibited from joining pursuits initiated by another jurisdiction or law enforcement agency unless assigned to the pursuit by an _________________.
LVMPD supervisor
186
An LVMPD supervisor will not assign officers to participate in such pursuits unless assistance is requested by the initiating agency
and they provide sufficient information (including the crime the suspects are believed to have committed) so that an LVMPD supervisor can determine if the pursuit is in compliance with the
provisions of this policy. If insufficient information is received and/or if the outside agency-initiated pursuit is not in compliance with this policy, the pursuit will not be joined by LVMPD officers. However, an LVMPD supervisor may authorize officer(s) to drive in routine operation toward the area of the pursuit to be in a relatively good position to render backup and other aid once the pursuit vehicle is stopped.
True
187
Officer(s) will not deploy stop sticks during a pursuit under the following circumstances:
a. When transporting arrestees or other non-police personnel.
b. When fleeing suspects have demonstrated a clear intent to injure
officers using the fleeing vehicle or other deadly weapon.
c. As a weapon.
d. On bridges, curves on the roadway, around roadway construction,
or any location where the deploying officer feels it would be too
dangerous.
e. To slow or stop any of the following vehicles, unless the use of
deadly force would be justified:
1) Motorcycle, moped, or any other two- or three-wheeled
vehicle.
2) All-terrain vehicle (ATV).
3) Any truck transporting explosives or other hazardous
materials.
188
Stop stick training will be completed on a ___________ basis.
Quarterly
189
The use of ______ to stop a pursuit will be done only after the violator has clearly demonstrated the intention to avoid apprehension.
PIT
190
The use of PIT to stop a pursuit will be done only after the violator has clearly demonstrated the intention to _______________.
Avoid apprehension
191
Before initiating a PIT, officers will use their emergency equipment
(lights and siren) and will give the operator of the target vehicle a __________________ to stop.
Reasonable opportunity
192
PIT as non-deadly use of force:
a. Used at speeds of 40 mph and below and does not meet the
criteria as deadly force.
b. If the tires of a pursuable vehicle have been deflated, and speeds
are 40 mph and below.
c. PIT (successful non-deadly and attempts) are reportable uses of
force and must be in a Use of Force Report and Pursuit Report in
Blue Team.
193
PIT as deadly force:
a. At speeds of over 40 mph.
b. Used on motorcycles.
c. Used on high center-of-gravity vehicles likely to roll over.
d. Used on vehicles that are significantly heavier/larger than the
primary unit (e.g., buses, motorhomes, semitrailers).
e. Circumstances that create a substantial risk of death or serious
bodily injury.
f. Circumstances warranting the use of the PIT as deadly force
include:
1) Continued movement of the pursued vehicle would place
others in danger of bodily harm or death other than the
occupants of the vehicle; and/or
2) Apparent risk of harm – to those other than the occupants of
the pursued vehicle – is so great as to outweigh the risk of
harm in making the forcible stop; and
3) Other means of apprehension during the pursuit have been
considered and rejected as impractical (e.g., continue to
follow, bubble tactic, stop sticks, call for the Air Unit, and/or
discontinuance).
g. The Critical Incident Review Team (CIRT) will complete the
appropriate reports for incidents where deadly force is used
(PIT or ramming).
1) In incidents where PIT (deadly) or ramming is used, the use
of force will be handled by CIRT at the discretion of the CIRT
lieutenant, based on the totality of the circumstances.
194
Circumstances warranting the use of the PIT as deadly force include:
1) Continued movement of the pursued vehicle would place others
in danger of bodily harm or death other than the occupants of the
vehicle; and/or
2) Apparent risk of harm – to those other than the occupants of the
pursued vehicle – is so great as to outweigh the risk of harm in
making the forcible stop; and
3) Other means of apprehension during the pursuit have been
considered and rejected as impractical (e.g., continue to follow,
bubble tactic, stop sticks, call for the Air Unit, and/or
discontinuance).
195
The ____________________ will complete the appropriate reports for incidents where deadly force is used (PIT or ramming).
Critical Incident Review Team (CIRT)
196
In incidents where PIT (deadly) or ramming is used, the use of force will be handled by CIRT at the discretion of the _____________, based on the totality of the circumstances.
CIRT lieutenant
197
The use of PIT at speeds below 40 mph (non-deadly) when contact is made a communication supervisor will:
1) Notify the officer’s immediate supervisors (sergeant, lieutenant,
and captain).
2) Notify the watch commander and bureau/area lieutenant
198
The use of PIT at speeds over 40 mph (deadly), regardless of injury or death a communications supervisor will:
1) Notify the officer’s immediate supervisors (sergeant, lieutenant,
and captain).
2) Notify the watch commander and bureau/area lieutenant.
3) Notify CIRT/FIT.
4) Notify Internal Oversight and Constitutional Policing (IOCP) Bureau
commander.
5) Notify Traffic Bureau/Fatal Detail.
6) Notify Risk Management Section.
7) Notify Crime Scene Investigations (CSI) Section.
8) Notify Police Employees Assistance Program (PEAP).
9) Notify respective collective bargaining unit.
199
What are the post pursuit requirements for a supervisor?
1. Respond to the termination point and assume responsibility for
the scene.
2. Ensure all appropriate notifications are made at the scene.
a. Ensure CIRT/FIT have been notified when the use of force
with vehicle results in death or critical bodily injury (PIT
under or over 40 mph and ramming).
b. Notify CIRT when the pursuit involves multi-jurisdiction,
multiple bureaus/area commands, and/or the pursuit
involves more than five officers. CIRT will assess the totality
of the circumstances to determine whether a response is
necessary.
c. Notify CIRT when there is significant damage.
d. Notify CIRT/FIT if PIT is used on a high center of gravity
vehicle. CIRT/FIT will assess the totality of the circumstances
to determine whether a response is necessary.
3. Conduct a thorough investigation to determine if the pursuit was
within policy and justified. If a supervisor becomes involved in a
pursuit other than supervising the pursuit, the pursuing
supervisor will not conduct the investigation of the pursuit.
Investigative duties will be relinquished to the next level of
supervision in the officer’s chain of command
4. Ensure all applicable reports are completed.
5. Check the area surrounding the termination point for any video
surveillance, and obtain a copy (MP4 format, if possible).
6. Review all involved officers’ BWCs to ensure pursuit procedures
were followed and that all involved officers are documented in the
report.
7. Ensure any officer who assumed a primary position in the pursuit
completes a Pursuit Report in Blue Team.
8. Document in Blue Team if the pursuit has been determined to be
justified and in adherence to procedure, to include all facts and
evidence obtained throughout the investigation.
9. Document in Blue Team if the pursuit was determined to be
unjustified, and include all facts and evidence obtained
throughout the investigation.
10. Document in Blue Team if the Air Unit was available.
a. If available, articulate:
1) When the Air Unit arrived (i.e., before, during or after the
vehicle pursuit).
2) How the Air Unit assisted (i.e., radio broadcast of vehicle
pursuit, containment at termination point, etc.).
b. If unavailable, articulate why (i.e., weather conditions,
maintenance, assisting on another incident, or vehicle
pursuit occurred during a non-operational period).
11. Document in Blue Team if tire deflation devices were deployed
and ensure that the circumstances justifying each deployment is
articulated. Include the following:
a. Number of times tire deflation devices were deployed and
how (i.e., during vehicle pursuit or on a stationary vehicle
[before or after the vehicle pursuit]).
b. Location of each deployment
c. Name, P# and call-sign of each officer who deployed a tire
deflation device for every location.
d. What type of substantial barrier was used as cover by the
officer who deployed the tire deflation device.
e. If deployment was on a stationary vehicle, describe where
the tire deflation device was deployed (i.e., subject vehicle
[front or rear tires] or ingress/egress areas of a business or
residential area [street, cul-de-sac, driveway, etc.])
f. If the deployment was successful or unsuccessful at each
location and why it was determined to be successful or
unsuccessful.
g. Did any vehicles other than the subject vehicle strike the tire
deflation device?
12. Ensure all evidence and documentation (e.g., voluntary
statements, photos, injuries, vehicle damage, etc.) is secured prior
to the end of shift
200
Officers may initiate foot pursuits of any individual(s) the officer _____________ is engaged in criminal activity
Reasonably believes
201
During a foot pursuit the following officer safety issues should be considered:
1. The potential for violence to officer(s) or citizens.
2. The officer is acting alone.
3. The subject is known or believed to be armed.
4. The officer becomes unsure of his/her location and direction of
travel
5. Radio contact is lost with Dispatch or backup officers.
6. The officer loses possession of his/her firearm, radio, or other
essential equipment.
7. The subject enters a building, structure, confined space, or
otherwise isolated area.
8. The officer becomes aware of unanticipated circumstances that
increase the risk to officers or the public (i.e., baiting to ambush).
9. An officer pursuing multiple subjects does not reasonably believe
he/she would be able to control the subjects should a
confrontation occur.
10. Two or more officers involved in the pursuit become separated,
lose visual contact with one another, or obstacles separate them
to the degree they cannot immediately assist each other.
11. The need to secure department vehicles left unlocked or running.
202
Officers initiating a foot pursuit should broadcast the following information:
1. Unit identifier;
2. Location and direction of travel;
3. Reason for the foot pursuit;
4. Number of subjects and descriptions; and
5. Whether the subject is known or believed to be armed.
203
Persons who are in prolonged physical encounters with officers may be at risk of medical distress. Officers _________________ if the subject is injured, complains of injury, or shows signs of distress (e.g., displays difficulty breathing or appears to lose consciousness).
Will summon medical attention
204
By maintaining a position where the suspect was last physically seen, the officer effectively seals one avenue of escape and gives arriving K9 and Air Support a position from which to start their search. While in containment, maintaining the perimeter is a ____________.
Priority
205
A supervisor will make reasonable efforts to ascertain information, direct responding resources, and take command of the foot pursuit. The supervisor’s _____________ is not required to exercise control over the foot pursuit and the supporting resources.
Physical presence
206
A supervisor will respond to a foot pursuit when the following occur:
1. Injury to an officer, citizen, or suspect;
2. Any entry into a residence or similar structure, regardless if it is
occupied or not;
3. Any reportable force; or
4. Any other unusual occurrence that warrants supervisory
oversight.
207
