HTN Flashcards

1
Q

what is secondary HTN

A

caused by renal disease, sleep apnea, or adrenal disease

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2
Q

what is primary or essential HTN

A

what most people have

cause is unknown but attributed to risk factors

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3
Q

which systems have increased activity in HTN

A

sympathetic nervous system

Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

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4
Q

Describe how the RAAS system increases blood pressure

A

low blood pressure signals the liver to release angiotensinogen and renin which converts to angiotensin I. ACE then converts this to Angiotensin II which causes aldosterone secretion and vasoconstriction. aldosterone prompts increase Na and water reabsorption increasing blood volume.

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5
Q

how does an ACE inhibitor affect blood pressure

A

it prevents ACE from inactivating bradykinin (which causes vasodilation) and prevents the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

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6
Q

how does the sympathetic nervous system cause increased blood pressure

A

low blood pressure signals the brain to release Norepi which causes vasoconstriction by activating the alpha-1 receptors as well as increased HR and contractility by activating the beta 1 receptors

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7
Q

What do DHP CCBs affect?

A

SVR (systemic ventricular resistance)

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8
Q

what do non-dhp ccbs affect

A

contractility and heart rate

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9
Q

Normal blood pressure

A

<120/<80

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10
Q

top or bottom number: systolic

A

top

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11
Q

top or bottom number diastoli

A

bottom

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12
Q

HTN values

A

> /= 130/ >/= 80

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13
Q

what should sodium intake be reduced to for HTN management?

A

<1500mg/daily

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14
Q

when to start drug treatment

A

stage 2 HTN (>140/>90)
or
stage 1 HTN + ASCVD risk >/=10% or clinical CVD

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15
Q

First-line agents: non-black patients

A

thiazide, CCB, ACE inhibitor, ARB

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16
Q

First-line agents: black patient

A

thiazide or CCB

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17
Q

First-line agents: CKD (all races)

A

ACEi or ARB

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18
Q

First-line agents: diabetes with albuminuria

A

acei or arb

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19
Q

First-line agents: stage 2 HTN with readings >150/90

A

start 2 first-line agents

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20
Q

which first line agents should not be used in combo

A

acei and arbs

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21
Q

can you add a second agent before the first one is titrated to max?

A

Yes! actually works better and can prevent side effects

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22
Q

which htn drugs have a boxed warning for fetal toxicity when used in pregnancy

A

acei, arbs, and aliskiren

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23
Q

what is recommened in patients with a high risk of preclampsia

A

low dose aspirin daily after first trimester

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24
Q

when to treat chronic htn in a pregnant patient

A

if >/= 160/105

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25
First-line agents: pregnant patient
labetalol and nifedipine ER
26
MOA thiazide diuretics
inhibit sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubules, increasing excretion of sodium, cl, water, and K
27
thiazides CI
sulfonamide allergy
28
at what Crcl should thiazides not be used
CrCl < 30
29
which thiazide is available IV
chlorothiazide
30
which drug should not be used with thiazides due to increased risk of toxicity
lithium
31
List of DHP CCBs
"-pine"
32
MOA DHP CCBs
inhibit Ca from entering vascular smooth muscle and myocardial cells, causes peripheral arterial vasodilation
33
Which side effects occur with CCBs due to peripheral vasodilation
reflex tachycardia/palpitations headache flushing peripheral edema!
34
Which CCB is preferred in HF
amlodipine
35
CI Nicardipine
advanced aortic stenosis
36
Non-DHP CCBs indication
control HR/arrhythmias | Afib
37
MOA non-DHP CCBs
negative inotropic and chronotropic effects (decrease force of ventricular contractions and decrease HR)
38
Side effects with non-DHP CCBs
edema, constipation, gingival hyperplasia
39
CYP considerations with CCBs
CYP3A4 substrates
40
If a patient experiences angioedema with an ACEi or ARB, can you try the other class?
NO
41
ACEi/ARBs safe in pregnancy?
NO! Boxed warning
42
hypo or hyperkallemia with ACEi?
hyperkalemia!
43
why are K+ sparing diuretics used in combo with thiazides?
to combat K+ loss
44
Which K+ sparing is non-selective?
spironolactone - also blocks androgen
45
When are beta blockers recommended first line?
post-MI ischemic heart disease heart failure
46
Which beta blockers are preferred in heart failure
metoprolol succinate bisoprolol carvedilol
47
beta 1 selective beta blockers
atenolol esmolol metoprolol nebivolol
48
Non-selective beta blockers
propranolol nadolol carvediolol labetalol
49
CI beta blockers
hepatic impairment
50
What type of beta blockers are preferred in bronchospastic disease
selective
51
Why do we have to be cautious in diabetic patients on beta blockers
beta blockers can mask hypoglycemia
52
metoprolol tartrate IV:PO dosing
1:2.5
53
why does propranolol have more CNS effects
high lipid solubility = crosses BBB
54
what can help with orthostatic hypotension in carvedilol
taking with food!
55
alpha 2 adrenergic agonists list
clonidine | guanfacine
56
MOA alpha 2 adreergics
stimulating these receptors reduces outflow of norepi which causes decreased SVR and HR
57
which alpha 2 comes in a patch?
clonidine | *good for patients who can't swallow
58
which alpha 2 is commonly used in resistant HTn
clonidine
59
which alpha 2 can be used in pregnancy
methyldopa
60
methyldopa warnings
hemolytic anemia | hepatic necrosis
61
list of direct vasodilators
hydralazine
62
hydralazine CIs
mitral valvular rheumatic HD | CAD
63
Alpha blocker list
-zosin
64
role of alpha blockers
can be used in men with HTN and BPH
65
HTN emergency or urgency - organ damage
emergency
66
HTN emergency or urgency which one needs IV treatment
emergency
67
How quickly do we need to decrease BP in emergency
NO MORE than 25% in first hour
68
IV meds for HTN
``` chlorothiazide diltiazem enalaprilat esmolol hydralazine labetalol metoprolol nicadipine propranolol verapamil ```