Human Anatomy Midterm Flashcards
(356 cards)
1
Q
What are the two parts of the long bone?
A
Diaphysis and epiphysis
2
Q
What 5 parts make up the long bone?
A
Medullary cavity, compact bone, epiphyseal plate, endosteum, and the periosteum
3
Q
What is the medullary cavity?
A
A hollow region in the diaphysis and is filled with yellow marrow
4
Q
What is compact bone
A
The walls of diaphysis and is dense and hard
5
Q
What is the epiphyseal plate
A
A layer of hyaline (transparent) cartilage in a growing bone and becomes an epiphyseal line when a person stops growing
6
Q
What is endosteum
A
The lining of the medullary cavity and where bone growth, repair, and remodelling occur
7
Q
What is periosteum
A
The covering of the outer surface of bone and contains blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels/ attachment of tendons and ligaments
8
Q
What is the difference between the epiphyseal line and the epiphyseal plate
A
The epiphyseal plate is a layer of hyaline cartilage in a growing bone. The epiphyseal line is when the epiphyseal plate is replaced/ closed when a person stops growing
9
Q
What is an osteon
A
They are cylindrical vascular tunnels by an osteoclast-rich tissue (Haversian system)
10
Q
What is the difference between yellow marrow and red marrow
A
Red marrow contains stem cells that turn into RBC, WBC, and platelets. Yellow marrow is mostly made of fat
11
Q
What are the 5 types of bones by shape
A
Long bones, Short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones, Sesamoid bones
12
Q
What are the characteristics of long bones
A
-cylindrical in shape
-longer than it is wide
-shaft and two ends
-found in arms, legs, finger and toes
13
Q
What kind of bone is this
A
Long bone
14
Q
What kind of bone is this
A
Short bone
15
Q
What kind of bone is this
A
Flat bone
16
Q
What are the characteristics of a short bone
A
-cube like in shape
-approximately equal in length, width and thickness
-found in carpals of wrists and tarsals of ankles
17
Q
What are the characteristics of flat bones
A
-typically thin
-often curved
-found in skull, scapulae, sternum, ribs
18
Q
What kind of bone is this
A
Irregular bone
19
Q
What are the characteristics of irregular bones
A
-does not have any easily characterized shape
-complex shapes
-found in vertebrae and facial bones
20
Q
What kind of bone is this
A
Sesamoid bone
21
Q
What are the characteristics of a sesamoid bone
A
-small, round bone
-shaped like a sesame seed
-form in tendons
-found in tendons associated with the feet, hands, and knees
22
Q
What kind of fracture is this and how do you know
A
Transverse : occurs straight across the long axis of the bone
23
Q
What kind of fracture is this and how do you know
A
Oblique: occurs at an angle that is not 90 degrees
24
Q
What kind of fracture is this and how do you know
A
Spiral: bone segments are pulled apart as a result of a twisting motion
25
What kind of fracture is this and how do you know
Comminuted: several breaks result in many small pieces between two large segments
26
What kind of fracture is this and how do you know
Compacted: one fragment is driven into the other,usually as a result of compression
27
What kind of fracture is this and how do you know
Greenstick: a partial fracture in which only one side of the bone is broken
28
What kind of fracture is this and how do you know
Open/ compound: a fracture in which at least one end of the broken bone tears through the skin, Carries high risk of infection
29
What kind of fracture is this and how do you know
Closed/simple: a fracture in which the skin remains intact
30
What are the 4 types of bone cells
-osteocyte
-osteoblast
-osteogenic cell
-osteoclast
31
What is the function of this bone cell and what is its function
Osteocyte; Maintains bone tissue
32
What is the function of this bone cell and what is its function
Osteoblast; forms bone matrix
33
What is the function of this bone cell and what is its function
Osteogenic cell; stem cell
34
What is the function of this bone cell and what is its function
Osteoclast; resorbs bone
35
What are the 5 regions of the vertebrae
-cervical
-thoracic
-lumbar
-sacral
-coccyeal
36
What section is the cervical region of the vertebral column and what is the function?
C1-C7
Atlas (C1): supports the skull, no body
Axis (C2): for head rotation and dens (odontoid process)
37
What section is the Thoracic region of the vertebral column and what is the function?
T1-T12
-Where ribs are attached
-articulation with head or rib and tubercle of rib
38
What section is the lumbar region of the vertebral column and what is the function?
L1-L5
-Carries greatest amount of body weight
39
What are sutures
They are immobile joints between adjacent bones
40
What are the 5 sutures
-coronal
-sagittal
-lamboid
-squamous
-pterion
41
What suture connects the parietal and frontal bone
coronal
42
What suture connects the two parietal bones
sagittal
43
what suture connects the two parietal bones to the occipital bone
lamboid
44
What suture connects the parietal bones to the temporal bones
squamous
45
What suture connects the sphenoid, frontal, parietal, and squamous temporal bones
pterion
46
what are the 8 different keystone facial bones?
-maxillary bones (2)
-palatine bones (2)
-zygomatic bones (2)
-nasal bones (2)
-lacrimal bones (2)
-inferior nasal conchae (2)
-vomer
-mandible
47
what are the 6 keystone cranial bones
-parietal bone (2)
-temporal bone (2)
-frontal bone
-occipital bone
-sphenoid bone
-ethmoid bone
48
what is the function of the sacrum
Strengthen and stabilizes the pelvis
49
what is the function of the coccyx
Provides stability and balance when one is seated
50
What are the 3 different types of ribs
-true ribs (1-7)
-false ribs (8-10)
-floating ribs (11-12)
51
What are the 5 parts of the sternum
-manubrium
-jugular
-clavicular notch
-sternal angle
-xiphoid process
52
What is an intervetebral disc/ what is the purpose
-Provides padding and allows for movements between adjacent vartebrae
-fibrous outer layer is called the anulus fibrosus
-gel like center called nucleus pulposus
-intervertebral foramen is the opening formed between adjacent vertebrae for the exit of a spinal nerve
53
Name this vertebral abnormality
Scoliosis
54
Name this vertebral abnormality
Kyphosis
55
Name this vertebral abnormality
Lordosis
56
What makes up the axial skeleton
-80 bones
-skull
-vertebral column
-thoracic cage
57
What 7 bones make up the cranium and which one is mobile?
-2 parietal bones
-2 temporal bones
-frontal bone
-occipital bone
-spheniod bone
-ethmoid bone
-mandible (mobile)
58
Where is the styloid process located
It is located on the temporal bone on the cranium
59
Which bone allows you to nod and to shake your head?
the occipital bone allows you to nod, and the atlas bone allows you to shake your head.
60
What is the most commonly fractured and dislocated wrist bone
The distal radius bone
61
What makes up the pelvic girdle
-ilium
-ischium
-pubis
62
What two bones make up the shoulder girdle
-Clavicles
-Scapulae
63
What is the difference between a male and female pelvis
-females are thinner and lighter, males are thicker and heavier
-female pelvic inlet has a round/oval shape, male pelvic inlet is heart-shaped
-female lesser pelvic cavity is shower and wider, male lesser pelvic cavity is longer and narrower
-female subpubic angle is >80 degrees, male subpubic angle is <70 degrees
-Female pelvic outlet is rounded and larger, male pelvic outlet is smaller
64
What 4 bones make up the fingers
-distal
-middle
-proximal
-pollex (thumb)
65
What 8 bones make up the wrist
-trapezium
-trapezoid
-scaphoid
-hamate
-capitate
-pisiform
-triquetrum
-lunate
66
what bones make up the forearm and where are there location in anatomical position
-ulna, the medial bone
-radius, lateral side of arm
67
What are the 3 margins of the scapula
-superior border
-medial border
-lateral border
68
What are the 3 regions of the clavicles
-medial end
-lateral end
-shaft
69
What are the weight bearing bones of the lower extremities
-Femur
-Tibia
-Fibula
70
What 7 bones make up the ankle
-calcaneus
-talus
-cuboid
-navicular
-medial cuneiform
-intermediate cuneiform
-lateral cuneiform
71
What is the deltoid tuberosity?
The part of the humerus that attaches to the deltoid muscle. Also attaches to the humerus, clavicle, and scapula
72
What is a colles fracture
a fracture in the radius close to the wrist
73
What makes up the appendicular skeleton
-upper and lower limb bones
-both hands and feet
-bones that anchor the limbs to the axial skeleton
74
Give an example of flexion
-putting head down
-moving arm up
-bending knee back
75
Give an example of extension
-moving arm back
-bending head back
-moving leg to standing position from bending knee back
76
Give an example of abduction
-moving arm out from body
77
Give an example of adduction
-moving arm towards body
78
Give an example of circumduction
arm circles
79
Give an example of roation
-shaking head
-looking left/right
80
give an example of supination
-when you move your forearm so that your palms are facing upward/foreward
81
Give an example of pronation
-when you move your forearm so that your palms are facing backwards/downwards
82
Give an example of dorsiflexion
-pointing toes up towards shin
83
Give an example of plantar flexion
-pointing toes down away from shin
84
Give an example of protraction
- moving lower jaw outwards (underbite)
85
Give an example of retraction
-moving your jaw inwards
86
Give an example of depression
-opening your mouth
87
Give an example of elevation
-closing your mouth
88
Give an example of lateral excursion
-moving jaw left to right
89
Give an example of medial excursion
moving jaw to the middle from the left/right
90
Give an example of superior rotation in the scapula
raising arms/shoulders
91
Give an example of inferior rotation in the scapula
rolling shoulders down and back
92
Give an example of opposition
touching thumb and pointer finger together
93
Give an example of reposition
opening hand from a fist
94
What is amphiathrosis
-limited mobility
-ex: cartilaginous joint that unites bodies of adjacent vertebrae
-pubic symphysis of the pelvis, right and left hip bones are anchored to each other
95
what is synarthroses
-immobile or nearly immobile joint
-ex: sutures/ fibrous joints between the bones of the skull
-manubriosternal joint/cartilaginous joint that unites manubrium and sternum
96
What kind of joint is a diarthosis joint and what 3 categories are they divided into
-synovial joints of the body
-divided into uniaxial, biaxial, and multiaxial
-ex: ball and socket joint in hip
97
What is TMJ and what is the function
TMJ is temporomandibular joint and it
-allows for opening, closing, and moving jaw left to right
-articulation between mandibular fossa and articular tubercle of the temporal bone, with head/condyle of mandible
98
what kind of joint does the hip form
ball and socket joint (hip joint)
99
What kind of joint forms inbetween the radius and carpal bones of the wrist
condyloid joint
100
What kind of joint forms between the tarsal bones
plane joint
101
what kind of joint forms between the trapezium carpal bone and the first metacarpal bone
saddle joint
102
what kind of joint does the elbow form
hinge joint
103
what kind of joint forms between the C1 and C2 vertebrae
pivot joint
104
What are the 3 structural classifications of joints
-fibrous
-cartilaginous
-synovial
105
What are 3 functional classifications of joints and how are they determined
-synarthrosis (immobile)
-amphiarthrosis (slightly moveable)
-diarthrosis (freely moveable)
they are determined by the amount of mobillity
106
What kind of joints are uniaxial
-pivot
-hinge
107
What kind of joints are biaxial
-condyloid
-saddle
108
what kind of joints are multiaxial
-plane
-ball-and-socket
109
what is the difference between inversion and eversion
inversion is when you stand on the outside of your foot, while eversion is when the sole of your foot faces outwards
110
What is the difference between dorsiflexion and plantarflexion
dorsiflexion is when you point your toes up towards shin, plantar flexion is when you point your toes down/away from shin
111
what ligaments in the knee are commonly injured
the anterior cruciate ligament and the tibial (medial) collateral ligament
112
what are the 4 structures of the synovial joint
-articular capsule
-articular cartilage
-synovial membrane
-synovial fluid
113
what injury can occur when there is a force applied on the lateral aspect of the knee
a torn anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
114
What are fontanelles and what is their function
They are large areas in a fetal skull filled with fibrous connective tissue and allow continued growth of skull
115
What structure passes through the foramen magnum
Allows passage of spinal cord
116
What are the 6 levels of structural organization from smallest to largest?
-chemical
-cellular
-tissue
-organ
-organ system
-organismal level
117
What parts of the body are in the Integumentary system? And what are its functions?
-skin
-hair
-nails
-provides protection
118
What parts of the body are in the skeletal system and what is the function?
-bones
-provides support, protection, and nutrients
119
What parts of the body are apart of the muscular system and what is its function?
-skeletal muscle
-cardiac muscle
-smooth muscle
-provides movement
120
What parts of the body are in the nervous system and what is its function?
-brain
-spinal cord
-nerves
-provides communication
121
What parts of the body are apart of the endocrine system and what is its function?
-glands
-provides communication between organs
122
What parts of the body are part of the cardiovascular system and what is its function?
-heart
-arteries
-capillaries
- blood
-delivers oxygen and nutrients throughout the body
123
What parts of the body are part of the lymphatic system and what is its function?
-lymph nodes
-cleans “debris” from body
124
What parts of the body are part of the respiratory system and what is its function
-lungs
-it is the site of gas exchange such as CO2 and O2
125
What parts of the body are part of the digestive system and and what is its function
-stomach
-intestines
-breaks down food
126
What parts of the body are part of the urinary system and what is its function?
-kidney
-bladder
-excretes wastes
127
What parts of the body are in the reproduction system and what is its function?
-testes
-ovaries
-etc.
-reproduction
128
What are the 11 systems in the body
-integumentary
-skeletal
-muscular
-nervous
-endocrine
-cardiovascular
-lymphatic
-respiratory
-digestive
-urinary
-reproductive
129
What is the anatomical position
-reference point for anatomical directions
-head looking straight forward
-palms pointing forward
-feet pointing forward, shoulder-width apart
130
How many abdominal regions are there
9
131
How many abdominal quadrants are there
4
132
What 7 organs are in the upper right quadrant
-liver
-gallbladder
-large intestine
-small intestine
-stomach
-pancreas
-right kidney
133
What 6 organs are in the Left upper quadrant
-spleen
-stomach
-pancreas
-left kidney
-upper part of the colon
-a small part of the liver
134
What organs are in the right lower quadrant
-parts of the small and large intestines
-right ovary
-right Fallopian tube
-appendix
-right ureter
135
What organs are in the Left lower quadrant
-ileum
-colon
-rectum
-left ureter
-left ovary
-left Fallopian tube
136
What is part of the dorsal body cavity
-cranial cavity
-spinal/vertebral cavity
137
What is part of the ventral body cavity
- thoracic (pleural and mediastinum)
-abdominal-pelvic
138
Cavities housing the eyes are called what
Orbital cavity
139
Histology would be best defined as the study of what
Tissues
140
An oblique cut is one that is cut how
Diagonally between vertical and horizontal planes
141
The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except what
A. Thumbs pointed laterally
B. Palms turned posteriorly
C. Arms at side
D. Body erect
B. Palms turned posteriorly
142
Which of the following best describes the plasma membrane?
A. A phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
B. A membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae
C. A single layer membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell
D. A double layer of protein enclosing the plasma
A. A phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
143
Once solid material is phagocytized and taken into a vacuole, which of the following statements best describes what happens?
A.The vacuole remains separated from the cytoplasm and the solid material persists unchaged
B. The phagocytized material is stored until further breakdown can occur
C. A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material
D. A ribosome enters the vacuole and uses the amino acid in the "invader" to form new protein
C. A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material
144
What is mitosis?
The division of the nucleus
145
What are the 3 planes of the body
-sagittal
-frontal/coronal
-transverse
146
What does the sagittal plane divide?
Left and right sides of the body
147
What does the coronal/frontal plane divide?
The front/anterior and the back/posterior part of the body
148
What does the transverse plane divide?
The upper/superior and the lower/inferior part of the body
149
what does proximal mean
it describes a part of a body closer to the head
150
What does distal mean?
it describes a part of a body that is farther from the head
151
What does medial mean
towards the torso
152
What does lateral mean
away from the torso
153
What is the cytoplasm
Material between the plasma and membrane of the nucleus
154
What is an organelle and what is the function?
-carries out specific functions
-essential for normal cell functions
155
What is the rough endoplasmic reticulum and what is its function?
-external surface covered in ribosomes
-contains fluid-filled cavities called cisternae
-Manufactures proteins secretes from cells
-helps to maintain plasma membrane
156
What is the smooth endoplasmic reticulum and what is its function?
-facilitates reactions involved in:
*lipid metabolism, cholesterol synthesis
*synthesis of steroid-based hormones
*absorption, synthesis, transport of fats
*detoxification of drugs, carcinogens
*breakdown of glycogen to glucose
157
What is the golgi apparatus and what is its function
-consists of stacked membranous sacs
-serves as "traffic director" for proteins
*function is to modify, concentrate and package proteins and lipids made at the RER
*Does not produce proteins
*associated intimately with RER
158
What is the mitochondria and what is its function?
-"power plant" of the cell, provides most of the ATP supply
-enclosed by a double membrane
-matrix
-contains both DNA, RNA, and ribosomes
159
What are ribosomes and what is the function
-Site of protein synthesis
-free ribosomes
*not bound to membranes
*make soluble proteins that will function in the cytosol
-membrane bound ribosomes
*bound to RER
*proteins will be exported from the cell
160
What are lysosomes and what is its function?
-"disintegrator bodies"
-spherical sacs of digestive enzymes
*digests worn-out, nonfunctioning organelles
*breakdown non useful tissues and bone
161
What are peroxisomes and what is its function?
-"peroxide bodies"
-membranous sacs containing enzymes
*oxidases and catalases
*help to detoxify harmful substances like alcohol
*clean up cellular meobolites
162
What is the cytoskeleton and what is its function
-acts as the cells bones, muscles, and ligaments by supporting cells structure
-generates a variety of cell movements
163
What are the 3 main classes of the cytoskeleton
-microfilaments
-microtubules
-intermediate filaments
164
What is cilia and what is its function
-whiplike motile cellular extensions that occur on exposed surfaces of certain cells
-propel other substances across a cells surface
165
What is flagella and what is its function
-projections formed by centrioles are substantially longer
-propells the cell itself
166
What are basal bodies
-centrioles forming the bases of cilia and flagella
167
What is the nucleus
-largest of the cellular organelles
-control center of the cell
-contains DNA
168
What is mitosis
when one mother cell divides into two daughter cells
169
What are the 4 phases of mitosis
-prophase
-metaphase
-anaphase
-telophase/cytokinesis
170
What happens during prophase
-chromosomes condense and become visible
-spindle fibers emerge from the centromeres
-nuclear envelope breaks down
-centromeres move towards opposite poles
171
What happens during prometaphase
-chromosomes continue to condense
-kinetochores appear at the centromeres
-mitotic spindles microtubules attach to kinetochores
172
What happens during metaphase
-chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate
-each sister chromatid is attached to a spindle fiber originating from opposite poles
173
what happens during anaphase
-centromeres split in two
-sister chromatids (now called chromosomes) are pulled towards opposite poles
-certain spindle fibers begin to elongate the cell
174
what happens during telophase
-chromosomes arrive at opposite poles and begin to decondense
-nuclear envelope material surrounds each set of chromosomes
-the mitotic spindle breaks down
-spindle fibers continue to push poles apart
175
what happens during cytokinesis
-Animal cells have a cleavage furrow separates the daughter cells
-plant cells have a cell plate, the precursor to a new cell wall and separates the daughter cells
176
What are the 4 basic types of tissues
-Epithelial
-connective
-nervous
-muscle
177
What makes up the basal lamina
thin glycoprotein layer from epithelial cells
178
What makes up the basement membrane
basal lamina and the reticular lamina
179
What are the 3 special characteristics of epithelial tissue
-polarity
-supported by connective tissue
-avascular but innervated
180
How do you classify epithelia
-number of layers and cell shape
181
what are the two names that describe the layer of epithelia tissue
-simple epithelia (one layer)
-stratified (many layers)
182
What are the 3 names that describe the cell shape of epithelia tissue
-squamous (flat and scale like)
-cuboidal (box shaped)
-columnar (tall and column shaped)
183
Describe simple squamous epithelium and where can it be found?
-thin an often permeable
-allows for filtration and absorption
-sometimes has secretory function
can be found in:
-kidneys
-lungs
-lining in heart
-blood vessels
-lymphatic vessels
-lining of ventral body cavity
184
Describe simple cuboidal epithelium and where can it be found?
-tall and wide
-secretion and absorption
can be found in:
-kidney tubules
-ducts and secretory portions of small glands
-ovary
185
Describe simple columnar epithelium and where can it be found?
-single layer of tall, closely packed cells
-secretion of mucus, etc.
-absorption
-propulsion
can be found in:
-lining of digestive tract
-excretory ducts of some glands
-small bronchi
-uterine tubes/uterus
186
Describe pseudostratified columar and where can it be found?
-has the appearance of several layers because nuclei is at different heights; all have basal contact
-secretion
-propulsion of mucus
can be found in:
-trachea
-upper respiratory tract
-ducts of large glands
-sperm carrying ducts
187
Describe stratified squamous epithelium and where can it be found?
-multiple layered flat cells
-protection
-abundant in areas under abrasion
can be found in:
-lining of mouth
-outer surface of the skin
-esophagus
-vagina
188
Describe stratified cuboidal epithelium and where can it be found?
-forms large ducts of some glands
can be found in:
-sweat glands
-salivary glands
-mammary gland
189
Describe stratified columnar epithelium and where can it be found?
-at transition areas, only apical layer of cells are columnar
can be found in:
-male urethra
-pharynx
190
Describe transitional epithelium and where can it be found?
-has the ability to resist stretching forces
can be found in:
-urinary organs
191
What are endocrine glands
-ductless
-produce hormones
-multicellular
192
What are exocrine glands
-more numerous
-secrete products onto body surface/body cavities
193
what are the 8 different types of exocrine glands
-simple alveolar
-simple branched alveolar
-simple tubular
-simple coiled tubular
-simple branched tubular
-compound alveolar
-compound tubuloalveolar
-compound tubular
194
What are the 3 modes of glandular secretion
-merocrine
-apocrine
-holocrine
195
What is merocrine secretion
the cell remains intact
196
what is apocrine secretion
the apical portion of the cell is released
197
what is holocrine secretion
the cell is destroyed as it releases it product and the cell itself becomes part of the secretion
198
What kind of tissue is found everywhere and most widely distributed and abundant
connective tissue
199
What are the 4 classes of connective tissue and their purposes
-connective tissue proper: binding and support
-cartilage: protection/rigidity to structures
-bone: insulation/protection
-blood: transportation
200
Describe Loose connective tissue/adipose tissue
-made up of fat cells/adipocytes
-provides reserve food fuel
-insulates against heat loss
-protects organs
201
What kind of tissue is this?
Loose connective tissue/ adipose tissue
202
Describe loose connective reticular connective tissue
-resembles areolar connective tissue
-fibers for a soft internal skeleton that supports other cell types
-supports free blood cells in lymph nodes, bone marrow, spleen
203
what kind of tissue is this
Loose connective tissue/reticular connective tissue
204
Describe dense connective tissue dense regular
-contains closely packed bundles of collagen fibers
-fibers run in the same direction
-parallel to the direction of pull
-flexible structures, resistance to tension
-found in tendons, ligaments, aponeuroses, fascia
205
What kind of tissue is this
Dense connective tissue: dense regular
206
Describe dense connective tissue: dense irregular
-collagen fibers are more dense
-arranged irregularly; run in more than one plane
-resists tension in variety of directions
-found in skin (dermis), joint capsules
207
What kind of tissue is this
Dense connective: dense irregular
208
what are the structural elements of cartilage
-resists both tension and compression forces
-properties of dense connective tissue and bone
-tough but flexible
-avascular, lacks nerve fibers
209
Describe hyaline cartilage
-most abundant in body
-provides firm support with some pliability
-covers the end of long bones
-supports the tip of the nose
-connects the ribs to sternum
-skeletal hyaline cartilage persists during childhood as epiphyseal plates
210
what kind of cartilage is this
hyaline cartilage
211
Describe elastic cartilage
-nearly identical to hyaline cartilage but contains more elastin fibers
-provides greater tolerance for repeated bending
-found in external ear and epiglottis
212
what kind of cartilage is this?
elastic cartilage
213
Describe fibrocartilage
-able to withstand compressive and tensile forces
-found in intervertebral discs
-found in the meniscus of the knee
214
What kind of cartilage is this
fibrocartilage
215
What kind of tissue is this?
blood, a fluid connective tissue
216
what kind of tissue is this
skeletal muscle tissue
217
What kind of tissue is this
smooth muscle tissue
218
What kind of tissue is this
cardiac muscle tissue
219
what kind of tissue is this
nervous tissue
220
What are the 3 major regions of the skin from the outter to innermost
-epidermis
-dermis
-hypodermis
221
What cells are in the epidermis
-keratinocytes
-melanocytes
-epidermal dendritic cells
-merkel/tactile cells
222
What is the function or keratinocytes
-produce fibrous protein keratin
-gives the dermis its protective properties
223
What is the function of melanocytes
-produce melanin, gives skin color
224
What is the function of epidermal dendritic (langerhans) cells
-macrophages that help activate immune system
225
What is the function of tactile (merkel) cells
-function as sesory receptor or touch
226
What are the 5 layer of the epidermis from the outer to innermost
-stratum corneum
-stratum lucidum
-stratum granulosum
-stratum spinosum
-stratum basale
227
What are the two layers of the dermis from outer to innermost
papillary and reticular
228
what are the three pigments that contribute to skin color
-melanin
-carotene
-hemoglobin
229
What are the 4 structures of a nail
-nail matrix (thickened proximal portion of nail bed/for nail growth)
-nail fold (proximal and lateral borders of nail)
-cuticle (eponychium) (proximal nail fold projects onto nail body)
-hyponychium (region where dirt and debris accumulate)
230
What is this skin disease
basal cell carcinoma
231
What is this skin disease
squamous cell carcinoma
232
what is this skin disease
squamous cell carcinoma
233
what skin disease is this
Eczema
234
What causes acne
it is the result of over-productive sebaceous glands, which leads to formation of blackheads and inflammation of the skin
235
What is peristalsis
when muscles of the intenstines/canals in the body involuntarily contract and relax creating wave-like movements that push contents forward
236
what are the 4 parts of the muscle fiber
-sarcolemma
-sarcoplasm
-sarcoplasmic reticulum
-sarcomere`
237
what is a triad
-one t-tubule
-two sarcoplasmic reticulum
238
Describe cardiac muscle tissue
-one or two nuclei and striated
-electrically connected to each other
-involuntary
239
describe the smooth muscle tissue
-nonstriated
-in the walls of blood vessels
-involuntary
240
Describe skeletal muscle tissue
-multinucleated and striated
-voluntary
240
Describe skeletal muscle tissue
-multinucleated and striated
-voluntary
241
What are the 3 parts of thin filament
-actin
-tropomyosin
-troponin
242
what are the 3 parts of thick filament
-myosin
-heads
-tails
243
what is acetylcholine
a neurotransmitter for the PNS and CNS
244
what are the 3 layers of skeletal connective tissue (mysia)
-epimysium
-perimysium
-endomysium
245
What is the purpose of epimysium
-wraps each muscle
-made of dense irregular connective tissue
246
What is the perimysium (fascicle)
-muscle fibers in bundles
247
What is the endomysium
-each muscle fiber
-connective tissue of collagen and reticular fibers
248
What is the sarcolemma
-plasma membrane of muscle fiber
249
what is sarcoplasm
cytoplasm of muscle fiber
250
what is sarcoplasmic reticulum
-specialized smooth endoplasmic reticulum
-stores, release, and retrieves calcium
251
what is a sarcomere
-packet of microfilaments ad regulatory proteins, tropinin, and tropomyosin
-functional unit of a muscle
252
What is the difference between striated, unstriated, and cardiac muscles
-striated muscles are involuntary
-unstriated muscles are voluntary
-cardiac muscles are involuntary
253
What is neuromuscular junction and what are the 3 parts
-where a motor neuron's terminal meets the muscle fiber
-presynaptic part (nerve terminal)
-postsynaptic part (motor endplate)
-synaptic cleft
254
What are three types of muscle fibers
1.Slow oxidative
-uses aerobic respiration
2.Fast oxidative
-uses aerobic respiration
-can switch to glycolytic (anaerobic respiration)
-fatigues faster than slow fibers
3.Fast glycolytic
-primarily uses anaerobic respiration
255
What are the 4 muscles that move the tongue
-genioglossus
-styloglossus
-palatoglossus
-hyoglosssus
256
What muscles move the back
-iliocostalis cervicis
-iliocostalis thoracis
-iliocostalis lumborum
-longissimus cervicis
-longissimus capitis
-longissimus thoracis
-semispinalis capitis
-semispinalis cervicis
-semispinalis thoracis
-multifidus
-trapezius
-splenius capitis
-splenius cervicis
-rhomboides minor
-rhomboides major
257
What are the 5 muscles of the chest
-diaphram
-intercostal muscles
-subclavius
-pectoralis minor
-serratus anterior
258
What are the patterns of Fascicle Organization
-parallel muscles
-Circular muscles
-convergent
-pennate
259
What are parallel muscles
-they have fascicles that are arranged in the same direction as the long axis of the muscle
260
What are circular muscles
sphincters
261
What does convergent mean
-a widespread expansion over a sizable area, but then the fascicles come to a single, common attachment point
262
what does pennate mean
-"feathers"
-blend into a tendon that runs through the central region of the muscle
-unipennate, bipennate, multipennate
263
What are the 6 muscles for respiration
-external obliques
-internal obliques
-transverse abdominis
-rectus abdominis
-diaphragm
-intercostal muscles
264
What are the 5 interactions of skeletal muscles
-insertion
-origin
-prime mover (agonist)
-synergist
-antagonist
265
What is insertion
-moveable end of muscle that attaches to bone being pulled
266
what is origin
-end of the muscle attached to a fixed (stabilized) bone
267
what is a prime mover (agonist)
-principle muscle involved in action
268
what is a synergist
assist the agonist muscle
269
what is an antagonist
-opposite action of agonist
-maintain body/limb position
-control rapid movement
270
What are the 5 quadricep muscles
-rectus femoris
-vastus lateralis
-vastus medialis
-vastus intermedius
-sartorius
271
What are the 3 hamstring muscles
-bicep femoris
-semitendinosus
-semimembranous
272
Where are the origins of the facial muscles
the surface of the skull
273
Where do the eye muscles originate and insert
-originate outside the eye
-insert onto the outer surface of the white of eye
274
What are the 4 rotator cuff muscles
-subscapularis
-infraspinatus
-teres minor
-supraspinatus
275
what are the 3 compartments of the leg
-anterior
-lateral
-posterior
276
What are the 3 anterior compartment muscles of the leg
-tibialis anterior
-extensor hallucis longus
-extensor digitorum longus
277
what are the 2 lateral compartment muscles of the leg
-fibularis longus
-fibularis brevis
278
what are the 3 posterior compartment muscles of the leg
-gastronemius
-soleus
-plantaris
279
What is the difference between ganglia and tracts
-ganglia are neuron cell bodies
-tracts are a group of fibers in the CNS
280
What are the 4 muscles of mastication
-masseter
-temporalis
-medial pterygoid
-lateral pterygoid
281
What are the muscles that insert to calcaneus
-gastronemius
-soleus
-plantaris
282
What are the muscles for swallowing and speech
-suprahyoid
-infahyoid
-digastric
-stylohyoid
-mylohyoid
-geniohyoid
-omohyoid
-thyrohyoid
-sternothyroid
283
What is the perineum
-diamond shaped space between the pubic symphysis,coccyx, ischial tuberisites
-divided transversely into triangles (urogenital triangle and anal triangle)
284
What are the triangles of the perineum
-urogenital triangle
-anal triangle
285
What muscles are used during strenuous exercise
-diaphragm
-external/internal intercostals
-sternocleidomastoid
-abdominal muscles
286
What are the parts of a neuron
-axon hillock
-axoplasm
-cell membrane
-dendrites
-cell body (soma)
-oligodendrocytes
-node of ranvier
-myelin sheath
-axon
-synapse
287
What are 3 types of neurons
-unipolar
-bipolar
-multipolar
288
what are unipolar neurons
-have only one process emerging from the cell
-found in spinal or cranial nerve ganglia
289
what are bipolar neurons
-have two processes, which extend from each end of the cell body, opposite to eachother
-one is the axon and one is the dendrite
-found in olfactory epithelium, retina of eye, and ganglia of vestibulocochlear nerve
290
what are multipolar neurons
-one axon and two or more dedrites
-Found in CNS and ANS
291
what are the two regions of the brain and what are they made of
-white matter:a xons
-gray matter: cell bodies and dendrites
292
What are the 4 glial cells in the CNS
-Astrocytes
-Oligodendrocytes
-Microglia
-Ependymal Cell
293
What are astrocytes
-provide support to neurons of CNS
-contributes to BBB
294
What are oligodendrocytes
-insulates axons in the CNS
295
What are microglia
-referred to as CNS
-resident microphages
296
What are Ependymal cells
-Filter blood to make CSF
-Choroid plexus (in ventricles, ependymal cells come in contact with blood vessels and filter and absorb components of blood to produce CSF)
297
What are the 2 glial cells of the PNS
-satellite cells
-schwann cells
298
What are satellite cells
-found in sensory and autonomic ganglia
-where surround the cell bodies of neurons
299
what are schwann cells
-insulate axons with myelin in periphery
300
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium ciliated variety ________.
A.lines most of the respiratory tract
B.possesses no goblet cells
C.aids in digestion
D.is not an epithelial classification
A. lines most of the respiratory tract
301
The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength, which allows them to absorb shock, is because they possess ________.
A. hydroxyapatite crystals
B. collagen fibers
C. reticular fibers
D. elastic fibers
B. collagen fibers
302
What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels?
A. osseous tissue
B. cartilage tissue
C. fibrocartilaginous tissue
D. areolar tissue
A. osseous tissue
303
Groups of cells that are similar in structure and perform a common or related function form a(n) ________.
A. tissue
B. organ system
C. organism
D. organ
A. tissue
304
Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch?
A. Ruffini body
B. free nerve ending
C. Pacinian corpuscle
D. tactile corpuscle
D. Tactile corpuscle
305
Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands?
A. sebaceous and merocrine
B. mammary and ceruminous
C. holocrine and mammary
D. eccrine and apocrine
D. eccrine and apocrine
306
The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The superficial surface has structures called:
A. hair follicles.
B. ceruminous glands.
C. dermal papillae.
D. reticular papillae.
C. dermal papillae
307
Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes ________.
A. maintain the appropriate pH in order for the melanocyte to synthesize melanin granules
B. maintain the appropriate temperature so the product of the melanocyte will not denature
C. accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer
D.provide the melanocyte with nutrients necessary for melanin synthesis
C. accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer
308
Match the following bones in the figure:
Long
Irregular
Sesamoid
Flat
Short
1. flat
2. long
4. irregular
6. sesamoid
7. short
309
Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood?
A. epiphyseal plate
B. Haversian system
C. lacunae
D. epiphyseal line
A. epiphyseal plate
310
The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (the Haversian canal) is the site of ________.
A. blood vessels and nerve fibers
B. yellow marrow and spicules
C. cartilage and interstitial lamellae
D. adipose tissue and nerve fibers
A. blood vessels and nerve fibers
311
Osteogenesis is the process of ________.
A. making a cartilage model of the fetal bone
B. making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage
C. bone formation
D. bone destruction to liberate calcium
C. bone formation
312
Which of the following is an abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column often seen in the thoracic region?
A. scoliosis
B. lordosis
C. swayback
D. kyphosis
A. scoliosis
313
Which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by bearing most of the weight of the body?
A. the sacral promontory
B. the lumbar region
C. the sacrum
D. the cervical region
B. the lumbar region
314
Which bone acts as a moveable base for the tongue?
A.hyoid bone
B. zygomatic bone
C. palatine
D. mandible
A.hyoid bone
315
The antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones?
A. the radius and the ulna
B. the humerus and the clavicle
C. the humerus and the radius
D. the scapula and the clavicle
A. the radius and the ulna
316
Which bone contains areas of diaphysis and epiphysis areas, a tuberosity near its middle, and is proportionally more compact than spongy bone?
A. cervical vertebra
B. talus
C. humerus
D. parietal bone
C. humerus
317
Which portion of the fibula articulates with the talus?
A. head
B. lateral malleolus
C. medial malleolus
D. calcaneus
B. lateral malleolus
318
The tubercle of a rib articulates with the transverse process of a vertebra.
True
False
true
319
The fibula is the major weight-bearing bone of the leg.
True
False
false
320
Which of the following systems does adrenal glands, pancreas and pituitary belong to?
A. Digestive
B. Respiratory
C.Urinary
D. Endocrine
E. Cardiovascular
D. Endocrine
321
Which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity?
A. spinal cord
B. thoracic cavity
C. vertebral cavity
D. cranial cavity
B. thoracic cavity
322
Help prevent molecules from passing through the extracellular space between adjacent cells.
A. Gap junctions
B. Desmosomes
C. Both Desmosomes and Gap Junctions
D. Tight junctions
E. No answer text provided.
F. Both Gap and Tight Junctions
D. Tight junctions
323
Chromosomes align on the spindle equator
A. telophase
B. interphase
C. prophase
D. metaphase
E. anaphase
D. metaphase
324
Which of the following describes the plasma membrane?
A. a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma
B. a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae
C. a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell
D. a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
D. a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
325
The epithelial membrane that lines the closed ventral cavities of the body.
A. Cutaneous
B. Mucous membrane
C. Endothelium
D. Serous membrane
D. Serous membrane
326
The type of cartilage that is most abundant in the body is the hyaline cartilage.
True
False
true
327
Moves blood through the body
A. Smooth muscle
B. Skin epidermis
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Tendon
E. Cardiac muscle
E. Cardiac muscle
328
The shock-absorbing pads between the vertebrae are formed of fibrocartilage.
True
False
true
329
Epithelial tissues always exhibit polarity; that is, they have a free surface and a basal surface.
True
False
true
330
Cartilage has good regenerative capacity, while most epithelial tissues do not.
True
False
false
331
Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch?
A. Ruffini body
B. free nerve ending
C.Pacinian corpuscle
D. tactile corpuscle
D. tactile corpuscle
332
The dense fibrous connective tissue portion of the skin is located in the reticular region of the dermis.
True
False
true
333
The reason that the nail bed appears pink is the presence of a large number of melanocytes in the underlying dermis.
True
False
false
334
Sweat glands continuously produce small amounts of sweat, even in cooler temperatures.
True
False
true
335
A hypodermic needle would penetrate the skin in which order?
A. epidermis, papillary layer, reticular layer
B. reticular layer, papillary layer, epidermis
C. epidermis, reticular layer, papillary layer
D. papillary layer, reticular layer, epidermis
A. epidermis, papillary layer, reticular layer
336
The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The superficial surface has structures called dermal papillae that contains 3 of these
A. Capillary loops
B. adipose cells
C. stratum basale
D. Meissner’s corpuscles
E. Free nerve endings
A. capillary loops
D. Meissner’s corpuscles
E. Free nerve endings
337
Acne is a disorder associated with ________.
A. ceruminous glands
B. sweat glands
C. Meibomian glands
D. sebaceous glands
D. sebaceous glands
338
A patient was complaining of an abdominal pain. Upon physical examination and lab works, the patient was determined to be suffering from fatty liver due to excessive amount of alcoholic beverage drinking. If the patient would point at the part of the body where the majority of the pain is, they would likely be pointing at the _____ of the abdomen.
A. right lower quadrant
B. left lower quadrant
C. left upper quadrant
D. hypogastric region
E. right upper quadrant
E. right upper quadrant
339
After taking the final exam and finding out that you got an "A" in the class, you and your friends went out to celebrate. You decided to drink as much alcoholic beverages as you like to the point of passing out. With your knowledge of the different functions of the organelles in the cell, which organelle will be "working overtime" in order to clear the alcohol that you consumed?
A. peroxisomes
B. golgi apparatus
C. nucleus
D. mitochondria
E. lysosomes
A. peroxisomes
340
Which of the following is the correct order/sequence of mitosis?
A. interphase - prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase
B. prophase - telophase - anaphase - metaphase
C. prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase
D.prophase - telophase - metaphase - anaphase
E. prophase - anaphase - metaphase - telophase
C. prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase
341
There are different modes of glandular secretions. Of these types of secretions, which secretion is where the cell is destroyed as it releases its product and the cell itself becomes part of the secretion.
A. merocrine secretion
B. apocrine secretion
C. endocrine secretion
D. exocrine secretion
E. holocrine secretion
E. holocrine secretion
342
Which of the following class connective tissues function is for transportation?
A. simple squamous epithelium
B. blood
C. bone
D. connective tissue proper
E. cartilage
B. blood
343
Eczema is a result of over-productive sebaceous glands, which leads to formation of blackheads and inflammation of the skin.
True
False
false
344
Which cell produces fibrous protein keratin
A. Keratinocytes
B. Melaocytes
C. Langerhans cells
D. Merkel cells
A. keratinocytes
345
which cell produces skin color
A. Keratinocytes
B. Melaoocytes
C. Langerhans cells
D. Merkel cells
B. melanocytes
346
Which cell helps activate immune system
A. Keratinocytes
B. Melaocytes
C. Langerhans cells
D. Merkel cells
C. langerhans cells
347
which cells help with sensory receptor for touch
A. Keratinocytes
B. Melaocytes
C. Langerhans cells
D. Merkel cells
D. merkel cells
348
Match the following letters on the figure with the correct name/parts of the nail. Choices are used once or not-at-all.
-nail
-lateral nail fold
-lanula
-eponychium
B. nail
C. lateral nail fold
D. lanula
E. eponychium
349
Match the following functions with the letter on the figure. Choices are used once only.
-Site of enzymatic breakdown of phagocytized material.
-Packages proteins for insertion in the cell membrane or for exocytosis.
-Site of synthesis of lipid and steroid molecules.
-Forms the mitotic spindle.
C. site of enzymatic breakdown of phagocytized material
E. packages proteins for insertion in the cell membrane or for exocytosis
A. site of synthesis of lipid and steriod molecules
D. forms the mitotic spindle
350
Match the following parts of the skin on the figure. Choices are once only.
-hypodermis
-epidermis
-reticular layer of the dermis
-papillary later of the dermis
D. hypodermis
A. epidermis
C. reticular layer of the dermis
B. papillary later of the dermis
351
Match the following with the letters on the figure. Choices are used once only.
-thoracic cavity
-cranial cavity
-abdominal cavity
-vertebral cavity
C. thoracic cavity
A. cranial cavity
D. abdominal cavity
B. vertebral cavity
352
Where is the eccrine gland found
-body
-palms
-soles
-forehead
353
where is the apocrine gland found
axillary and anogenital regions
354
Where is the ceruminous gland found
lining of external ear canal
355
where is the mammary gland found
breasts
