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Flashcards in Human Performance Deck (181)
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1
Q

Pilots are judged on three things

A

Knowledge
Skills
Attitude

2
Q

8 core ICAO Competencies (CAALPAWS)

A
Communication
Aircraft flight path management in automation
Aircraft flight path management in manual process
Leadership and teamwork
Problem solving and decision making
Application of procedures
Workload management
Situational awareness
3
Q

3 types of safety culture

A

Open culture
Closed culture
National culture

4
Q

James Reason’s 5 components of a good safety culture

A

Informed culture - knowledge share
Just culture - encouraging honesty
Learning culture - willingness to learn from events
Reporting culture - promoting the integrity to report errors/near misses
Flexible culture - organisation is willing to stray from conventional modes

5
Q

Individual Aspects of a Good Safety Culture (x 3)

A

Leadership
Commitment
To set a good example

6
Q

Number of accidents per 1 million flights (including ALL aircraft)

A

1.2 accidents. Human error accounts for 73% of these.

7
Q

ICAO definition of Threat & Error Management (TEM)

A

Process of detecting and responding to threats or errors, with countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the consequence of threats or errors and mitigate the probability of errors, further errors or undesired states

8
Q

5 main causes of pilot error

A
Directional control loss (hence intro of GPWS in 1980s)
Poor judgement
Air speed not maintained
Poor pre-flight planning
Not maintaining ground clearance
9
Q

Most dangerous elements of flying

A

Approach
Landing
take off
Descent

10
Q

Three components of TEM

A

Threats
Errors
Undesired aircraft states

11
Q

Types of threat (LEO)

A

Latent - i.e. wrong way point built into system
Environmental - i.e. weather; ATC; Terrain
Organisational - i.e. poor aircraft design; operational

12
Q

Types of error (PAC)

A

Procedural - SOPs; poor briefings; incorrect documentation

Aircraft handling errors - manual handling; automation; ground navigation

Communication errors - crew to external; pilot 2 pilot

13
Q

Types of Undesired Aircraft State (AGI)

A

Aircraft handling - vertical/lateral or speed deviations; unstable approach

Ground Navigation - wrong taxi/hold point

Incorrect aircraft configuration - incorrect flight controls configuration

14
Q

Error management strategies

A
Error Prevention
Error reduction
Error detection
Error recovery
Error tolerance
15
Q

Error management countermeasures (x 5)

A

Ground proximity warning system (GPWS)
Traffic collision avoidance system (TCAS)
Planning countermeasures
Execution countermeasures - i.e. ground briefings
Review countermeasures

16
Q

Safety Management Systems (SMS)

A

An approach to managing safety which includes the organisational structures accountabilities, responsibilities, policies and procedures.

17
Q

4 key components of SMS

A

Safety policy
Safety assurance
Safety promotion
Safety risk management

18
Q

3 areas of Safety Risk Management (which itself is a component of SMS)

A

Hazard ID process - reactive/proactive/predictive
Risk assessment and mitigation
Internal safety investigation

19
Q

Lung partial pressure at 10,000ft

A

Approx half of MSL: 55mmHg

20
Q

Volume % in lungs of o2 and C02

A

Oxygen: 14

Carbon dioxide: 5.3%

21
Q

Blood oxygen saturation levels of haemoglobin (MSL/10,000ft/20,000ft)

A

MSL: 97.5%
10,000ft: 87%
20,000ft: falls rapidly to 65%

22
Q

3 roles of the breathing system (nose)

A

Moistens
Filters
Warms

…the air.

23
Q

Parts of the breathing system (x 6)

A
Nasal cavity
Trachea
Left/right bronchus
Bronchioles 
Alveoli
Diaphragm (helps breathing system)
24
Q

Role of alveoli

A

Diffuse 02 and C02 through capillaries to/from the bloodstream.

25
Q

External respiration (3 points)

A

Transfer of oxygen between environment and lungs
Breathe out c02 and water vapour
Average between 12-16 breaths per minute

26
Q

Internal respiration (aka metabolism)

A

Occurs between blood and cells. A chemical reaction converts oxygen, glucose and other nutrients into energy (metabolisation).

27
Q

Two waste products of internal respiration

A

Carbon dioxide c02

Water h20

28
Q

Carbonic acid:

A

Mixture of c02 and o2 combined. Controls breathing rate.

29
Q

Lung volumes (x 4)

A

Tidal volume: 500ml

Inspirationary Reserve Volume (inhale ability over tidal volume): 3100ml

Expiratory Reserve Volume (exhale ability over tidal volume): 1200ml

Residual Volume (left in lungs after exhalation): 1200ml

30
Q

Lung capacities (x 4)

A

Total (Tidal + Insp + Exp + Resid): 6000ml

Vital Capacity: (Tidal + Insp + Exp): 4800ml

Inspiratory Capacity: (Insp + Tidal): 3600ml

Functional Residual Capacity (Exp + Residual): 2400ml

31
Q

Hypoxia:

A

A deficient amount of oxygen for the body’s needs

32
Q

Anaemic hypoxia:

A

Inability of blood to carry oxygen. caused by e.g. smoking, carbon monoxide inhalation, rapid blood loss.

33
Q

Hypoxic hypoxia

A

Caused by shortage of oxygen to the body.

34
Q

Factors affecting hypoxia (x 4)

A

Altitude
Rate and time of decompression
Smoking
Fitness

35
Q

Symptoms of hypoxia ( x 11)

A
Cyanosis
Euphoria
Loss of basic colour/night vision
Pallor
Tingling of extremities
Loss of judgement
Headache
Tunnel vision
Impaired motor skills
Increased breathing rate
Unconsciousness and death
36
Q

If hypoxia is suspected (x 3)

A

Apply oxygen
Request descent to 10,000ft or minimum safety altitude (MSA)
Seek medical attention

37
Q

3 thresholds of hypoxic hypoxia

A

Reaction threshold: 0ft-7000ft: night vision affected

Disturbance threshold: 7000ft-12000ft: homeostasis affected

Critical threshold: 12000ft-22000ft: incapacitation with loss of consciousness.

38
Q

Definition: Time of Useful Consciousness (TUC)

A

Amount of time an individual has to act with both mental and physical efficiency, measured from time at which adequate oxygen supply is lost.

39
Q

TUC altitude rates

A

20,000ft: Seated/activity: 30 mins/5 mins
30,000ft: 1-2mins/0 mins
35,000ft: 30-90 seconds/0 mins
40,000ft: 15-20 seconds/0 mins

People already short of o2 (i.e. smokers) will have 1/2 the TUC

40
Q

Definition: effective performance time (EPT)

A

This is equal to/less than TUC. At 40,000ft, EPT = 4-5 seconds.

41
Q

O2 requirements (unpressurised aircraft):

A

MSL-10,000ft: air only
10,000ft-33,700ft: o2 and air mix (keeps body at MSL)
33,700ft-40,000ft: 100% o2 (keeps body at 10,000ft)
40,000ft+: 100% o2 under pressure (keeps body at 10,000ft)

42
Q

Definition: hyperventilation

A

Breathing in excess o2. Leads to a reduction in co2 which creates less carbonic acid.

43
Q

Respiratory alkosis.

A

Causes by lack of co2. Causes increased alkaline in blood. (Created by hyperventilation).

44
Q

Symptoms of hyperventilation

A
Tingling of extremities 
Poor judgement
Increased breathing rate
Distress
Anxiety
Unconsciousness
45
Q

Treatment of hyperventilation

A

Breathe into a bag

Slow breathing rate down

46
Q

Definition: decompression sickness

A

Removal of pressure on cells, allowing nitrogen bubbles to leave cells into bones.

47
Q

Symptoms of decompression sickness (DCS) (x 4)

A

Bends: bubbles on joints
Creeps: bubbles in cells
Chokes: bubbles in lungs
Staggers: bubbles in brain

48
Q

When DCS occurs?

A

18,000ft-25,000ft. Unlikely below 14,000ft.

49
Q

Factors affecting DCS (x 5)

A

Scuba diving (using compressed air) at depths below 30ft/10m (24hr wait period)

Scuba diving above 30ft/10m (12 hours)

Age

Altitude

Excess weight/obesity

Duration of exposure

50
Q

Prevention of DCS:

A

By pre-oxygenation; this can mitigate DCS.

51
Q

Cabin pressurisation levels?

A

Between 6000ft-8000ft.

52
Q

Boyles Law

A

Volume is inversely proportional to pressure.

Affects barotrauma

53
Q

Charles’ Law

A

Volume is proportional to temperature

54
Q

Daltons Law

A

Total pressure is the sum of all partial-pressures.

Relates to hypoxia

55
Q

Henry’s Law

A

Amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to the pressure on it.

Relates to decompression sickness.

56
Q

Fick’s Law

A

Law of diffusion.

Relates of diffusion within alveoli.

57
Q

Three parts of the circulatory system

A

Heart
Blood vessels
Blood

58
Q

What is vasodilation?

A

Where the blood vessels widen to cool us down

59
Q

What is vasoconstriction?

A

Where blood vessels constrict to heat us up

60
Q

What are the two types of circulatory system?

A

Pulmonary: carrying deoxygenated blood to the lungs and oxygenated blood to the heart.

Systemic: carry oxygenated blood to the body and deoxygenated blood back to the heart.

61
Q

What is the composition of blood?

A

Red blood cells
White blood cells
Platelets
Plasma

62
Q

Where is blood made?

A

In bone marrow

63
Q

What do coronary arteries do?

A

They supply the heart with o2 and glucose

64
Q

What do the coronary veins do?

A

They remove waste products (carbonic acid) from the heart

65
Q

What is the pulse rate for an average healthy adult?

A

70-75 beats per minute

66
Q

What are the four main factors that affect heart rate?

A

Carbon dioxide
Adrenaline
Glucose
Exercise

67
Q

What is stroke volume?

A

The volume of blood pumped by the left ventricle in one beat. The average is 70ml.

68
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

The volume of blood pumped by the left ventricle in beat per minute.

It is measured by Pulse Rate x Stroke Volume. Average is 5040ml per min.

69
Q

What is coronary heart disease?

A

It is caused by a restriction of blood (o2 and glucose) to the heart. Coronary arteries become blocked.

70
Q

What is angina?

A

Pain associated with coronary heart issues.

71
Q

What is a heart attack?

A

Caused by a total blockage of a coronary artery, which starves the muscle of oxygen.

72
Q

What are symptoms of a heart attack?

A
Pale
Pain in chest
Pain down left side of body
Cold/clammy
Shortness of breath.
73
Q

What are heart attack statistics for men?

A

Most likely cause of death of males over 40yrs

80% survival rate if admitted to hospital on time

74
Q

What are the factors likely to affect a heart attack (in order)?

A
Hereditary
Smoking
Hypertension
High blood cholesterol 
Lack of exercise
Diabetes
75
Q

What is anemia?

A

A lack of iron and therefore oxygen in the blood.

76
Q

What is haemorrhaging?

A

The mass loss of blood.

77
Q

What is carbon monoxide?

A

It is formed by the incomplete combustion of carbon. It can be a byproduct of piston engine combustion.

As pilots we need to ensure heaters are well maintained and that a CO identifier is present on flight deck.

78
Q

How does CO combine with haemoglobin?

A

It combines between 210-250 times more easily than o2.

79
Q

What factors affect CO susceptibility (x4)?

A

Smoking
Altitude
Obesity
Age

80
Q

What are the intuitively symptoms of CO poisoning?

A
Headaches and dizziness
Nausea and vomiting
Shortness of breath
Flush, red cherry skin
Lethargy
Stomach pain
81
Q

What are the latter symptoms of CO poisoning?

A

Impaired balance
Impaired vision and hearing
Impaired mental state
Vertigo
Loss of muscular power
Ataxia (loss of physical co-ordination - leads to brain damage)
Breathlessness and tachycardia (HR + 10P BPM)

Chest pain caused by angina/heart attack
Seizures
Loss of consciousness
Death

82
Q

What are the three main products of tobacco?

A

Carbon monoxide
Tar
Nicotine

83
Q

What is carboxyhaemoglobin?

A

When CO liaises with haemoglobin. Smoking 20 cigarettes per day increases carboxyhaemoglobin levels by 7%.

84
Q

What is emphysema?

A

Damage of alveoli caused by tobacco

85
Q

What does blood pressure depend on?

A
Elasticity of arterial walls
Cardiac output (stroke output x pulse rate)
Peripheral resistance (ease of blood flow)
86
Q

What are the two measurements of blood flow?

A

Diastolic - no pressure added. (80mmhg)

Systolic - when heart is contracting (120mmhg)

87
Q

What is hypertension?

A

Blood pressure above 140/90mmhg

Hereditary 
Obesity
Smoking
Lack of sleep
Stress age
88
Q

What are symptoms of hypertension?

A

Coronary heart disorder
Aortic aneurism
Stroke
Kidney failure

89
Q

What are the causes and symptoms of hypotension?

A

Causes - dehydration/haemorrhaging

Symptoms:
Lethargy, dizziness, pale, syncope (fainting), reduced g force tolerance

Less than 90/60mmhg

90
Q

What is a baroreceptor/pressoreceptor?

A

It is within the body (carotid sinus) in the next and measure blood pressure. It is upstream of the brain.

91
Q

What is the primary function of the baroreceptor?

A

To maintain homeostasis

92
Q

What is the body’s response to hypertension?

A

Blood vessels relax
Heart rate reduces
Stroke rate reduces

93
Q

What is the body’s response to hypotension?

A

Blood vessels tighten

Heart rate increases

94
Q

What rules are there around blood donation for flight crew?

A

Flight crew must wait 24hrs to operate after giving blood

95
Q

What are the three parts of the visual system?

A

Eye
Optic nerve
Primary nerve

96
Q

What is the role of the cornea?

A

It is a transparent layer at the front of the eye.

Responsible for 70-80% of focus

97
Q

What is aquaes humour

A

It is a watery liquid that keeps the eye moist

98
Q

What is the iris?

A

The coloured part of the eye. It contains muscles which control the pupil

99
Q

What is the pupil?

A

The hole in the middle of the iris. It allows light to pass through as it enters the eye.

100
Q

What is the lens, as part of the eye?

A

It is the disc behind the pupil. Responsible for 20-30% of focussing.

101
Q

What is the retina?

A

A light sensitive membrane lining the back of the eye.

Contains rods and cones

102
Q

What is the fovea?

A

Most sensitive part of the retina. It is located at the centre of the retina and only contains cones.

103
Q

What is vitreous humour?

A

Liquid within the eyeball, keeping its shape.

104
Q

What is the optic nerve?

A

It carries impulses from the retina to the visual cortex

105
Q

Define saccade.

A

A series of jerks moving the eye. An average period of a saccade followed by a period of rest = 0.3 secs.

106
Q

What are cones?

A

Light sensitive cells. They’re responsible for coloured (photo pic) vision.

We have red, blue and green cones.

Cones are very sensitive to light.

Cones are located at the fovea and represent an area of 150,000 cones per mm

Cones cover an area 1deg wide from centre of fovea.

107
Q

What are rods?

A

Rods are responsible for black and white vision.

Rods contain a protein called rhodsopin ( visual purple)

If rods are exposed to bright light then they can become affected.

Rods cover an area of 10deg wide fr9m centre of fovea.

Rods are responsible for peripheral vision.

108
Q

How long does it take rods and cones to adapt from dark to light?

A

Both approx 10 seconds.

109
Q

How long does it take rods and cones to adapt from light to dark?

A

Rods: 30 mins

Cones: 7 mins.

110
Q

What part of the eye is used for night vision?

A

Rods - these use peripheral vision.

111
Q

What is the normal visual acuity?

A

20/20 or 6/6.

112
Q

What is visual field?

A

Combination of both central and peripheral vision. Each eye can see vertically by 150deg and horizontally by 120deg.

113
Q

What is binocular vision?

A

A 60deg overlap, regardless of which direction you’re looking.

114
Q

What is parallax?

A

Parallax occurs with monocular vision. It is when stationary objects appear closer

115
Q

How does a blind spot occur?

A

Where the optic nerve leaves the retina and no cones or rods are present.

To mitigate: LOOKOUT. Break horizon into 10deg sections, looking up and down for approx 2 secs in each section

116
Q

What is myopia?

A

Myopia is short sightedness. It occurs when the eyeball is longer than usual and therefore images converge short of retina.

117
Q

What is hypermetropia?

A

Hypermetropia is longsightedness. It occurs when images converge behind the retina.

It is corrected by a converging/convex lenses.

118
Q

What is presbyopia?

A

Long sightedness caused by old age

119
Q

What is flash blindness?

A

Temporary blindness caused by bright light. To reduce flash blindness, increase cabin light.

120
Q

What is glaucoma?

A

Glaucoma is caused by an increase in introcular pressure. It is a build up virtuous humour.

121
Q

What are the two parts of the outer ear?

A

The pinna and the auditory canal.

122
Q

What are the parts of the middle ear (tympanic membrane) called?

A

The ossicles (malleus/hammer, incus/anvil, stirrup/stape)

The Eustachian tube which connects the nose to the ear and balances pressure on the ear drum.

123
Q

What is the main part within the inner ear?

A

The cochlea is within the inner ear. It is snail shaped and filled with fluid. Vibrations are received through either the outer & middle ear or via skull to skull conduction.

The auditory nerve. Info from the cochlea is detected here and passed back to the cortex of the brain.

124
Q

What is the auditory range for an adult human?

A

The auditory range for an adult is between 20hz and 20khz.

125
Q

What type of noise can lead to NIHL?

A

80-90DB for 8hrs +

120DB for a sudden exposure

126
Q

At what noise level is: discomfort/pain/rupture experienced within the ear?

A

Discomfort at 120db

Pain at 140db

Possible rupture at 160db

127
Q

How is conductive hearing loss caused?

A

Conductive hearing loss can be caused by:

Damage to the ossicles

Damage to the cochlea

Excessive wax in the ear canal

Ruptured ear drum

128
Q

What is presbycusis?

A

Presbycusis is age related hearing loss. Higher frequencies are affected first.

129
Q

What is the purpose of the 3 semi-circular canals within the vestibular system?

A

The 3 semi circles within the vestibular system are responsible for sensing angular acceleration.

The canals are at 90deg (orthogonal) to each other and are filled with liquid and hair.

130
Q

What is the purpose of the otoliths within the vestibular system?

A

The otoliths are responsible detecting linear acceleration. They contain the utricle (horizontal; fore/aft) and the saccule (horizontal).

Otoliths contain liquid and hairs and have a calcium/chalky deposit.

131
Q

What part of the brain is responsible for balance?

A

The cerebellum is responsible for balance.

132
Q

What are vestibular illusions?

A

The vestibular only detects initial movement and only detects movement once the sensory threshold has been met.

It assumes all linear acceleration of 1g is the effect of gravity.

133
Q

What is the somatogravic illusion?

A

The somatogravic illusion creates the picture that when we accelerate, we are pitching up. When we decelerate it makes the assumption that we are pitching down.

134
Q

How is Gz measured on the body?

A

Gz is measured on the vertical plane (up and down)

135
Q

How is Gy measured?

A

Gy is measured on the horizontal plane

136
Q

How is Gx measured?

A

Gx is the foreword and backwards movement on the body.

137
Q

What are the long term (1 second or more) body tolerances to G?

A

If the body is relaxed: +3.5g. If wearing suits/using techniques: +7 to +8g.

Unaided for negative G: -3G.

138
Q

What are the body’s short term tolerances to G? (<1 second).

A
\+Gx = +25Gz
\+Gx = +45G
139
Q

What is the Frenzel effect?

A

A stifling sneeze - a way of combatting barotrauma.

140
Q

When is barotrauma at its worst?

A

During descending.

141
Q

What is the valsalva method?

A

Closing your nose and mouth, and blowing. It is a method to help combat barotrauma.

142
Q

What are the initial symptoms of ozone poisoning?

A

The initial symptoms of ozone poisoning are dry eyes/nose/throat.

143
Q

What is cosmic/galactic radiation?

A

Cosmic or galactic radiation originates from outside the solar system. It is steady and predictable and can cause birth defects and cancer.

144
Q

What is solar radiation and is it predictable?

A

Solar radiation is unpredictable. Solar radiation consists of low energy particles, affecting the CNS.

Solar radiation can damage internal organs and cause melanoma.

Solar flares can reduce the amount of galactic radiation.

145
Q

What two things affect the amount of radiation?

A

Altitude and latitude. In that order.

146
Q

How does gasto enteritis differ from gastritis?

A

Gastroenteritis is linked with food poisoning whereas gastritis is more likely to be experienced with increased age.

147
Q

How long does it take to feel the effects of gastroenteritis?

A

It takes approximately 90minutes to feel the effects of gastroenteritis.

148
Q

What are the biggest causes of incapacitation in flight?

A

Tropical disease, gastroenteritis, heart attack.

149
Q

What causes motion sickness?

A

Motion sickness is caused by a mismatch between visual, vestibular and proprioreceptive sensors.

150
Q

What is lumbago?

A

Lumbago is the most common form of back pain and it occurs at the lower back.

151
Q

At what speed does the liver process alcohol?

A

The liver processes alcohol at 1 unit/per hour (15mgs alcohol/100ml of blood)

152
Q

What is the maximum allowed alcohol in a pilots blood?

A

A pilot can have a maximum of 20mgs/100ml or 0.2 promiles in their blood.

A pilot may not drink for 8 hours before a duty.

153
Q

How much caffeine can affect performance?

A

200mg/100ml of blood can reduce performance.

There is c60mg of caffeine per cup of coffee. It is recommended not to exceed 2-3 cups of coffee per day.

154
Q

What types of mosquito carry malaria?

A

Anopheles carry malaria.

155
Q

What types of mosquito carry dengue fever?

A

Aedes aegypti mosquitos carry dengue fever. I

156
Q

What causes typhoid and what is typhoid?

A

Typhoid is caused by salmonella typhi. It’s contracted when a person comes into. Intact with faeces infected food or drink.

157
Q

What can hepatitis cause, over other usual symptoms

A

Hepatitis can cause cirrhosis which is liver failure.

158
Q

Can hepatitis A be vaccinated against?

A

Yes. Hep A can be vaccinated against.

159
Q

What type of hepatitis symptoms are associated with Hep B?

A

Acute symptoms. Hey B is generally contracted through unprotected sex.

160
Q

What type of association can cause Hep C and what are its symptoms?

A

Hep C is contracted through use of needles. It is associated with flu like symptoms and can lead to death.

161
Q

What is tetanus caused by?

A

Tetanus is caused by clostridium tetanus, which is found in soil and animal manure.

162
Q

What are parasitic worms also known as?

A

Parasitic worms are also known as schistosomiasis or bilharzia.

163
Q

How is body mass index measured?

A

BMI = weight kg/height m squared.

164
Q

What are the 5 BMI categories? (Underweight, normal weight, overweight, obese, morbidly obese).

A
Underweight: < 18.5
Normal weight 18.5-24.9
Overweight: 24-29.9
Obese: 30-34.9
Morbidly obese: 35+
165
Q

What are the body’s most important minerals?

A

Calcium phosphorus and iron are the body’s most important minerals.

166
Q

What is glycocemia descibed as (mg/100ml)?

A

Glycocemia is described as having less than 50mg sugar/100ml blood.

167
Q

Why is hydration important?

A

Hydration is important as it helps to regulate body temperature.

168
Q

What are the two types of circadian rhythm?

A

Endogenous: based on a 24hr body cycle. This is influenced by external factors (zeitgebers).

Free running cycadian rhythm: based on a 25-28hr cycle and not influenced by external factors.

169
Q

What stage of sleep takes up most of our night sleep?

A

Stage 2. Also known as light sleep.

170
Q

What stages of sleep represent when tissue cell restoration takes place?

A

Stages 3 and 4 are used for cell tissue repair. Aka orthodox/slow wave sleep.

171
Q

What stage of sleep is responsible for mind/brain repair?

A

Paradoxical sleep (R.E.M., stage 5) is used for brain and mind repair. This is where dreaming occurs.

172
Q

What is an encephalogram used for?

A

An encephalogram is used to measure sleep.

173
Q

How can you recover from jet lag?

A

One day for every time zone crossed, or one day for every 90 mins of jet travel.

THERE IS NO SET FORMULA.

174
Q

What is sleep apnoea?

A

Where you temporarily stop breathing in your sleep.

175
Q

What are the two types of insomnia?

A

Clinical

Situational

176
Q

What is somnambulism?

A

Sleep walking

177
Q

What is somniloquism?

A

Sleep talking.

178
Q

What are the two types of fatigue?

A

Acute - short term. To fix = sleep.

Chronic - long term. Caused by relationships, stress etc. Can cause digestive problems.

179
Q

How long is your performance affected after a nap?

A

For 20 mins. Although it takes 5 mins to recover from a nap.

180
Q

What is sleep latency?

A

How long it takes to fall asleep

181
Q

What is sleep inertia?

A

The length of time it takes for your performance to be degraded from being awake.