Hypersensitivity Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

What bacteria are associated with CRP?

A

Pneumococcus spp.

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2
Q

What type of biomolecule is CRP?

A

Protein

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3
Q

In which regions of the electrophoretic pattern does CRP appear?

A

β region

γ region

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4
Q

What is CRP classified as in the context of immune response?

A

Acute Phase Reactant

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5
Q

What are the possible results for a CRP test?

A

Positive (+)

Negative (-)

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6
Q

What conditions can a positive CRP result indicate?

A

CRP infection

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7
Q

What is a common protein that is often analyzed alongside CRP?

A

Albumin

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8
Q

What is the role of CRP as a marker in the body?

A

Nonspecific marker for infection

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9
Q

How sensitive is CRP as an inflammatory marker?

A

Very Sensitive but Non-specific

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10
Q

What other test is often used in hematology for inflammation assessment besides CRP?

A

ESR (Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate)

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11
Q

What is the definition of hypersensitivity?

A

Exaggerated or uncontrolled immune response to an antigen

Causes inflammation, cell destruction, or tissue injury

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12
Q

How is hypersensitivity classified?

A

Based on time after exposure to antigen

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13
Q

What are the types of hypersensitivity?

A

Immediate hypersensitivity: antibody mediated

Delayed hypersensitivity: cell mediated

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14
Q

What was the original meaning of allergy?

A

Altered reaction to external substances

Atopy: immediate hypersensitivity by IgE antibodies

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15
Q

What are the properties of IgE antibodies?

A

Specific for various allergens

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16
Q

What are some common allergens?

A

Animal dander

Pollens

Foods

etc.

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17
Q

Which types of hypersensitivity reactions are antibody dependent?

A

Types I, II, III

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18
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is cell mediated?

A

Type IV

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19
Q

What is a common characteristic among different types of hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Overlapping symptoms among types

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20
Q

What type of reaction is involved in Type I hypersensitivity?

A

Immediate reaction

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21
Q

What severe reaction can Type I hypersensitivity cause?

A

Anaphylaxis

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22
Q

What is the time lag for Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Short time lag (seconds to minutes)

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23
Q

Which antibody is the key reactant in Type I hypersensitivity?

A

IgE

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24
Q

What types of antigens trigger IgE in Type I hypersensitivity?

A

Atopic antigens or allergens

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25
What does the Skin Puncture Test (SPT) for Type I hypersensitivity involve?
Series of scratches or needle pricks
26
What indicates a positive reaction in the Skin Puncture Test (SPT) for Type I hypersensitivity?
Red, raised, itchy area
27
What does a positive reaction in the Skin Puncture Test (SPT) indicate?
Allergy to specific allergen
28
What does the Radioimmunosorbent Test (RIST) use?
Radiolabeled IgE
29
In RIST, what does the patient's IgE compete with?
Radiolabeled IgE for binding sites
30
What is the solid phase in RIST coated with?
Anti-IgE
31
Why has RIST been largely replaced by other methods?
Expense and difficulty of working with radioactivity
32
What was the original commercial testing method for specific IgE?
Radioallergosorbent Test (RAST)
33
What is the purpose of RAST?
Allergen-specific IgE detection
34
What do newer methods of specific IgE testing use instead of radioactive labels?
Enzyme or fluorescent labels
35
What radioactive labelled test measures total IgE level?
Radioimmunosorbent Test (RIST)
36
What radioactive labelled test measures specific IgE level?
Radioallergosorbent Test (RAST)
37
What are the key reactants involved in Type II hypersensitivity?
IgG IgM
38
Where are the antigens located in Type II hypersensitivity?
Cell surface antigens
39
What can cell surface antigens be in Type II hypersensitivity?
Altered self-antigens Heteroantigens
40
Type II hypersensitivity also known as?
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
41
What process involves antibody coating cellular surfaces in Type II hypersensitivity?
Opsonization
42
What immune system component is activated in Type II hypersensitivity?
Complement cascade
43
What is an example of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction?
Transfusion reactions
44
What is another name for the Coombs Test?
Antiglobulin test
45
What does the Coombs Test check for?
Antibodies causing red blood cells to die early
46
Who discovered the Coombs Test?
Coombs, Mourant, Race
47
What is the Coombs reagent made of?
Antihuman globulin
48
How is the Coombs reagent produced?
By injecting human globulin into animals
49
What happens to red cells with complement or IgG antibodies in the Coombs Test?
They don't agglutinate directly
50
What is necessary for agglutination in the Coombs Test?
Additional antibody needed for agglutination
51
What role does the additional antibody play in the Coombs Test?
Forms a "bridge" causing agglutination
52
What is another name for Direct Antiglobulin Testing (DAT)?
Direct Coombs test
53
What does the Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) detect?
Antibodies (IgG or C3) on red blood cells
54
What conditions can the DAT help diagnose?
Hemolytic anemia Jaundice in newborns
55
What does agglutination of RBCs indicate in the DAT?
Positive test
56
What conditions can be detected using DAT?
Rh incompatibility ABO incompatibility
57
What is another name for the Indirect Coombs Test?
Indirect Antiglobulin Test (IAT)
58
What does the Indirect Coombs Test look for?
Free-flowing antibodies against certain red blood cells
59
What is the primary purpose of the Indirect Coombs Test?
To determine if you may have a reaction to a blood transfusion
60
How is the Indirect Coombs Test used in prenatal labs?
As an "antibody screen" to identify minor antigens
61
What is obtained from the recipient in the first step of the Indirect Coombs Test?
Serum containing antibodies (Ig's)
62
What is added to the recipient's serum in the Indirect Coombs Test?
Donor's blood sample
63
What forms as a result of the recipient's antibodies targeting the donor's red blood cells?
Antibody-antigen complexes
64
What is added to the solution in the Indirect Coombs Test to cause agglutination?
Anti-human Ig's (Coombs' antibodies)
65
What indicates a positive test result in the Indirect Coombs Test?
Agglutination of red blood cells
66
What type of hemolysis occurs in the Reticuloendothelial System (RES) involving IgG?
Extravascular hemolysis
67
What type of hemolysis occurs in blood vessels involving IgM?
Intravascular hemolysis
68
What type of hypersensitivity is Type III hypersensitivity?
Immune complex-mediated
69
What antibodies are involved in Type III hypersensitivity reactions?
IgG or IgM
70
What mediates destruction in Type III hypersensitivity?
Complement
71
What type of antigen is involved in Type III hypersensitivity diseases?
Soluble antigen
72
What forms when soluble antigens combine with antibodies in Type III hypersensitivity?
Immune complexes
73
What disease that is associated with Type III hypersensitivity?
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
74
What test is used to detect antibodies in Type III hypersensitivity?
Agglutination reactions
75
What type of particles are used in agglutination reactions for Type III hypersensitivity?
Antigen-coated carrier particles (e.g., red blood cells or latex particles)
76
What is another method used to test for Type III hypersensitivity besides agglutination?
Enzyme immunoassays
77
What staining technique is used to determine immune complex deposition in tissues?
Fluorescent staining of tissue sections
78
What pathogen is associated with the Francis Skin Test?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
79
Why is the Mantoux & Vollmer's Patch Test performed?
To diagnose Tuberculosis
80
What pathogen is detected by the Frei Test?
Chlamydia pathogens (Bedsonia)
81
How does the Schick Test identify an infection?
By detecting Corynebacterium diphtheriae
82
What disease is diagnosed using the Dick's Test?
Erysipelothrix
83
What condition is identified with the Lepromin Test?
Leprosy
84
What type of disorder is associated with Type III hypersensitivity?
Autoimmune disorder
85
What forms in Type III hypersensitivity reactions?
Antigen-antibody (Ag-Ab) complexes
86
Where do the Ag-Ab complexes deposit in Type III hypersensitivity?
In tissues
87
What cells are activated in Type III hypersensitivity?
Macrophages and neutrophils
88
What is the result of macrophage and neutrophil activation in Type III hypersensitivity?
Tissue destruction
89
What is another name for Type IV hypersensitivity?
Delayed hypersensitivity
90
Who first described Type IV hypersensitivity in 1890?
Robert Koch
91
What pathogen was involved in Robert Koch's discovery of Type IV hypersensitivity?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Mtb)
92
What type of cells play a major role in Type IV hypersensitivity?
Sensitized T cells, usually Th1 cells
93
Are antibody and complement directly involved in Type IV hypersensitivity?
No
94
How long is the initial sensitization phase in Type IV hypersensitivity?
1 to 2 weeks
95
How long does it typically take for symptoms to develop upon subsequent exposure to the antigen in Type IV hypersensitivity?
Several hours to reach a peak 48 to 72 hours after exposure
96
What is a classic example of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction?
The skin test for exposure to tuberculosis (TB)
97
What principle is the TB skin test based on?
Soluble antigens from M. tuberculosis induce a reaction in individuals exposed to the tuberculosis microorganism or a related organism
98
What is observed at 48 and 72 hours after injecting a small amount of antigen under the skin in the TB skin test?
Presence of induration (lesion ≥10 mm in diameter)
99
How is the diagnosis of latex allergy determined?
By patient history and immunologic testing
100
What tests are available to measure latex-specific IgE?
FDA-approved in vitro tests