Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Immunology Block 2 > Hypersensitivity > Flashcards

Hypersensitivity Flashcards

1
Q

Type I hypersensitivity is ____-mediated. What is the time frame?

A

IgE mediated; usually arises within minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the mediators of Type I hypersensitivity?

A

Vasoactive mediators, lipid mediators, cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Examples of Type I hypersensitivities?

A

Allergic diseases (e.g. anaphylaxis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by antibodies?

A

I, II, and III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Type II hypersensitivity is ___-mediated

A

IgG and IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Goodpasture Syndrome:

A

An example of Type II hypersensitivity; Abs against basement membrane in kidney and lung activate Fc receptors, fix complement, resulting in inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

Autoantibodies against platelets (–> opsonization). Type II.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia:

A

Autoantibodies against RBC membrane proteins - type II hypersensitivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Myasthenia Gravis is an example of what type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Graves disease is an example of what type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Acute rheumatic fever is an example of what type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type II (against myocardial Ags)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris is an example of what type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type II (against desmosomes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pernicious anemia is an example of what type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type II (against intrinsic factor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the classic example of Type III hypersensitivity?

A

Serum sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the time frame of Type III hypersensitivity?

A

Generally the first encounter will take 1-2 weeks (antibodies need to develop), followed by rapid (3-10 hours) with subsequent exposures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is Lupus?

A

Type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is an example of ?

A

Type III hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Polyarteritis nodosa is an example of what?

A

Type III hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are ___-mediated

A

T-cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Poison ivy is an example of ?

A

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A food allergy is an adverse health effect arising from a specific _______ that occurs ______ on exposure to a given food

A

immune response; reproducibly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What mediates the immediate Type I hypersensitivity reaction vs. the late-phase reaction?

A

Immediate is mediated by vasoactive amines and lipid mediators. Delayed is mediated by cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What cytokine is important for IgE class switching?

A

IL-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

_____ is the receptor that IgE binds to on mast cells and basophils

A

High affinity Fc epsilon receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Describe the structure of Fc epsilon receptors:
Composed of 1 alpha chain (IgE binding) and 1 beta and 2 gamma chains (signal transduction)
26
What cytokine stimulates mast cell development/growth?
IL-3
27
What cytokine stimulates basophil development/growth?
IL-3
28
Mature mast cells are found in _____. Mature basophils are found ____.
Mast cells - Mucosa (and connective tissues). Basophils - Blood.
29
What is the cytokine that promotes eosinophil growth?
IL-5
30
Allergen-triggered cross-linking of __-____ complexes results in mast cell ____ and _____
IgE-FceRI; mast cell activation and degranulation
31
Immunologic tolerance:
unresponsiveness to self-antigens
32
Tolerogens:
Antigens that induce tolerance
33
Immunogens:
antigens that induce an immune response
34
Autoimmunity:
Failure of self-tolerance and resulting immune reaction to self-antigens
35
Central tolerance occurs in the:
thymus and bone marrow
36
Peripheral tolerance occurs in the:
peripheral tissues
37
Explain central tolerance:
In primary lymphoid organs, if a B or T cells is found to recognize a self-antigen strongly, it can either undergo apoptosis, undergo receptor editing (B cells only), or develop into regulatory T lymphocytes (CD4+ T cells only).
38
Explain peripheral tolerance:
Mature B or T cells that encounter and bind a self-antigen in the periphery can be controlled via anergy, apoptosis, or suppression via regulatory T cells.
39
B cells can be controlled in central tolerance via:
Receptor editing, deletion, or anergy
40
T cells can be controlled in central tolerance via:
Deletion, regulatory T lymphocytes
41
T cells can be controlled in peripheral tolerance via:
anergy, suppression, or deletion (apoptosis)
42
B cells can be controlled in peripheral tolerance via:
anergy, suppression, deletion
43
During development in the thymus, positive selection occurs in the ____ and negative selection occurs in the _____
Positive selection - cortex. Negative selection - medulla.
44
Positive T cell selection occurs in the ____ with the help of _____
Occurs in the cortex, with the help of cortical epithelium (cTEC)
45
Negative T cell selection occurs in the ____ with the help of ____
Occurs in the medulla, with the help of medullary epithelium (mTEC)
46
AIRE is a ____ that resides in _____ and controls expression of ____, playing a critical role in ______
AIRE is a TRANSCRIPTION FACTOR that resides in mTECs and controls expression of PERIPHERAL TISSUE SELF-ANTIGENS, playing a critical role in NEGATIVE SELECTION AND SELF TOLERANCE
47
APECED stands for:
Autoimmune PolyEndocrinopathy Candidiasis Ectodermal Dystrophy
48
What is the classic triad of APECED?
Mucocutaneous candidiasis, adrenal insufficiency, and hypothyroidism
49
Regulatory T cells can be identified by what cell surface markers?
CD3+CD4+CD25high and FoxP3+
50
What cytokines are produced by regulatory T cells?
TGF-B and IL-10
51
CTLA-4:
a co-receptor that exists on regulatory T cells
52
What processes result in anergy?
If a signaling block occurs during APC/T cell binding or there is an engagement of APC receptors with CTLA-4
53
Ipilimumab:
Blocks CTLA-4, resulting in T cell activation. This is used to boost immune response to certain cancers, but can cause autoimmune disease
54
Abatacept:
A recombinant CTLA-4 fused to an Fc portion of an IgG molecule. Given to people with arthritis, because the CTLA-4 mimickers engage the CD80/86, which prevents engagement of CD28 (and thus prevents activation)
55
Name 3 ways that regulatory T cells suppress the immune response:
Produce inhibitory cytokines, express CTLA-4, and expression IL-32 receptors, capturing IL-2.
56
IPEX stands for:
Immune Dysregulation, Polyendocrinopathy, Enteropathy, X-linked syndrome
57
IPEX is caused by what mutation?
Mutation in Fox-P3 gene (X-linked recessive)
58
How is apoptosis initiated in Peripheral T lymphocyte deletion?
1. If antigen is presented with out co-signal, inducers of apoptosis are released from mitochondria. 2. Fas and FasL act as co-stimulators and induce death.
59
ALPS stands for:
Autoimmune Lympho-Proliferation Syndrome
60
ALPS is a disorder of ___
apoptosis
61
ALPS can arise due to a mutation in what?
Fas, FasL, caspase 8, or caspase 10
62
Describe the clinical presentation of a patient with ALPS
Lymphoproliferation, exhibited by splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, and/or hepatomegaly
63
AIRE gene defects are associated with:
Autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome (APS-1)
64
FOXP3 gene defects are associated with:
X-linked polyendocrinopathy and enteropathy (IPEX)
65
FAS gene defects are associated with:
Autoimmune lymphoprolierative syndrome (ALPS)
66
SLE is associated with defective ___ lymphocyte tolerance
B and T
67
Direct Coomb's autoimmune hemolytic anemia is an example of what type of hypersensitivity?
Type II
68
Immunological self tolerance is unresponsiveness to specific antigens ____ by exposure of lymphocytes to that antigen
induced
69
What environmental factors can make a person more susceptible to autoimmunity?
Infection, UV radiation, Drugs and chemicals
70
Autograft:
A graft between different sites on the same individual. "autologous transplantation"
71
Isograft:
Between the same inbred strain of animals or between monozygotic twins
72
Allograft:
One between non-identical animals/humans of the same species
73
Xenograft:
between different species
74
Allogenic hematopoietic stem cell grafts contain ______ that can target cancer
donor-derived immune cells
75
_____ is not the goal of SCT
Complete donor/recipient tolerance
76
T cell depletion of donor stem cell graft increases _____
relapse
77
If a cancer patient treated with stem cells relapses, what is the best way to treat them?
These patients can be successfully treated with more T cells from the donor.
78
Syngenic transplants are associated with a higher rate of ______
relapse
79
Removing T cells from a stem cell graft ______ change of relapse by 3x (increases or decreases)
INCREASES
80
Using a genetically identical (syngenic) donor _____ relapse risk by 3x (increases or decreases)
INCREASES
81
The odds of any sibling being an HLA match is:
1/4
82
Haplo-identical:
Half HLA matches (parents and children of patient - usually these need to be T cell depleted and risk of relapse is high)
83
SCT can/can't be performed across ABO incompatibilities (explain)
CAN be performed, because hematopoiesis will be provided by the donor's stem cells.
84
GFVD:
Graft Vs. Host Disease; where donor-derived, T cell mediated reactivity occurs against recipient tissues.
85
How is GVDH treated?
immunosuppressive drugs
86
acute GCHD attacks what tissues?
skin, colon, liver
87
chronic GVHD affects:
skin, eyes, GI tract, liver, lung
88
miHA:
minor histocompatibility antigens
89
miHA are ____-specific
tissue
90
Hyperacute graft rejection:
Occurs within hours (antibodies must be preformed), such as anti-A or anti-B blood group antibodies or anti-HLA antibodies. Results in complement fixation, vascular damage, and thrombosis
91
Direct allorecognition:
Recipient T cells recognise peptide/HLA complexes presented by donor (graft) APC. T cell reactivity depends on donor APCs, which decrease over time.
92
Indirect allorecognition:
Recipient APC processes donor proteins and present on recipient HLA.
93
Acute Rejection:
7-21 days after transplant. Recipient derived cell-mediated cytotoxicity. Humoral graft rejection (antibodies are not preformed)
94
Chronic Rejection:
>21 days after transplant. Interstitial fibrosis. Mononuclear cell infiltration. Leads to organ ischemia.

Immunology Block 2 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions