I-E Neurological disorders Flashcards

1
Q

A meningioma us usually
A) rapid growing
B) metastatic
C) encapsulated
D) infiltrating

A

encapsulated

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2
Q

What is the value of EEG in psychiatric disorders?
A) Rule out seizures
B) Evaluate effective
C) Diagnose psychiatric disorder
D) Rule out brain tumor

A

Rule out seizures

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3
Q

METABOLIC DISORDER
A) Pick’s Disease
B) Hepatic encephalopathy
C) Multiple Sclerosis
D) Sturge-Weber Syndrome

A

Hepatic encephalopathy (found in pts with advanced liver dysfunction)

Picks (frontotemporal dementia FTD)
MS (dysfunction if the metabolism of lipids)
SWS (vascular disorder, abnormal blood vessels in brain and eye such as: glaucoma)

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4
Q

During an absence seizure, the technologist should
A) test the patient’s level of consciousness
B) turn the patient’s head to the left
C) insert a tongue blade in the patient’s mouth
D) stop recording and go to the patient’s aid

A

test the patient’s level of consciousness.

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5
Q

The EEG of a patient with a tumor in the left frontal lobe would most likely show:
A) FIRDA
B) left frontal polymorphic delta activity
C) generalized slowing
D) TIRDA

A

left frontal polymorphic delta activity

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6
Q

“Jackknife” Seizure
A) West Syndrome
B) Alper’s Syndrome
C) Einstein Syndrome
D) Nephrotic Syndrome

A

West Syndrome

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7
Q

Atonic seizure
A) Loss of whole body muscle tone
B) Chewing mouth movements
C) Staring into space
D) Multiple rhythmic jerks

A

Loss of whole body muscle tone

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8
Q

FEBRILE SEIZURES
A) Life-threatening
B) Gender specific
C) Age-related
D) Body temperature over 101 degrees F

A

Age-related

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9
Q

Changes in personality are most likely associated with tumors of the:
A) parietal lobe
B) frontal lobe
C) temporal lobe
D) occipital lobe

A

frontal lobe

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10
Q

The most common form of focal or localization-related partial seizures in adults
A) Occipital
B) Parietal
C) Temporal
D) Frontal

A

Temporal

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11
Q

What clinical signs are expected to be seen if a patient has a stroke involving the left anterior cerebral artery?
A) Right homonymous hemianopsia
B) Left homonymous hemianopsia
C) Left lower extremity sensory loss
D) Right lower extremity sensory loss

A

Right lower extremity sensory loss

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12
Q

A lesion of the uncus may result in
A) olfactory hallucinations
B) hypersensitivity to odors
C) visual hallucinations
D) loss of sense of smell

A

olfactory hallucinations - Lesion of uncus: increased ICP. Headache, nausea, vomiting, altered mental status. In temporal lobe. Severe symptoms: LOC, pupillary dilation, hemiparesis: one side muscle weakness. Seizures preceded by halluncinations of disagreeable odors often orginate in the unus.

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13
Q

A childhood disorder characterized by acquired aphasia, multifocal epileptiform abnormalities, and focal or generalized seizures:
A) Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
B) Landau-Kleffner syndrome
C) West syndrome
D) Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

A

Landau-Kleffner syndrome - affects children between 3-9yrs. Aphasia, a slow or sudden loss of ability to use or understand spoken language. Some dely and social congitive deficits, learning, motor skills.

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14
Q

The most common site of brain tumors in children is the
A) meninges
B) posterior fossa
C) third ventricle
D) middle fossa

A

posterior fossa.

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15
Q

What is the difference between a classic migraine headache and a common migraine headache?
A) A classical migraine headache ALWAYS has an abnormal associated EEG
B) A classic migraine headache has an associated aura whereas a common migraine does not
C) A common migraine headache has an associated aura whereas a classical migraine does not
D) A common migraine headache ALWAYS has an abnormal associated EEG

A

A classic migraine headache has an associated aura whereas a common migraine does not

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16
Q

Which of the following is most characteristic of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
A) Bradykinesia
B) Tardive dyskinesia
C) Hemiparesis
D) Myoclonus

A

Myoclonus - abnormal jerking mvmt
(Bradykinesia - slow mvmt)
(Tardive dyskinesia - drug-induced mvmt disorder)
(Hemiparesis - One sided muscle weakness)

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17
Q

What is the most common low-grade tumor detected in adults with epilepsy?
A) Meningioma
B) Sarcoma
C) Carcinoma
D) Astrocytoma

A

Astrocytoma - brain tumor originate from astrocytes
(Meningioma - not technically brain tumor, form in the meninges)
(Sarcoma - rare cancer that develops in bones, soft tissue, fat, muscles, deep skin tissue)
(Carcinoma - found on skin, tissue lining organs, liver, kidneys.)

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18
Q

A disease that presents with an acoustic startle response within the first few months of life:
A) Huntington’s disease
B) West syndrome
C) Tay Sachs disease
D) Benign rolandic epilepsy

A

Tay Sachs disease - life expectancy 3-5 yrs if diagnosed young. Slow to meet development milestone, floppy, weakness leading to eventual paralysis. Startle to noise, loss of vision and hearing.
(Huntington’s - inherited disorder where brain neurons to break down and die.)
(West syndrome - (IS) infantile spasms of stiffening, severe mental disabilities.)
(Benign Rolandic E - likely grow out of. Sz involve twitching, numbness, tingling of face or tongue. Happen around wake and sleep transitions.)

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19
Q

Patient’s with Rett’s syndrome usually develop normally until what age?
A) 3-6 months
B) 2-4 years
C) 6-18 months
D) 18-24 months

A

6-18 months - at this time milestones not met are quantitative.

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20
Q

Beginning in adolescence, several members of the same family developed progressive instability, ataxia, and the inability to walk. Which of the following best describes this condition?
A) Rheumatic fever
B) Retinitis pigmentosa
C) Olivopontocerebellar atrophy
D) Cystic fibrosis

A

Cystic fibrosis - Inherited. Effected experience Ataxia (jerky uncoordinated mvmt) effects nervous system.
(Rheumatic fever- heart, joints, brain and skin hswell.)
(Retinitis pigmentosa - rare eye disease effects retina)
(OlivopontocerebellarAtrophy - degeneration of neurons in areas: cerebellum, pons, inferior olives)

21
Q

What is the inability to perform purposeful movement though no muscular or sensory disturbance is present?
A) Anosmia
B) Apraxia
C) Agnosia
D) Ataxia

A

Apraxia - loss of skilled mvmt. Impairment of motor involving speech. (Physically able, mentally unable?)
Anosmia - loss of smell.
Agnosia - inability to interpret sensations, ie. tell form from knife.
Ataxia - lacking coordination, loss of muscle control. Impairment of linguistics capabilities. (Damage of brain nerves and muscles) damage to cerebellum

22
Q

Subacute Panencephalitis SSPE is caused from what disease?
A) Lyme Disease
B) Herpes
C) Measles
D) Chicken Pox

A

Measles - SSPE caused by reactivation of measles virus
(Lyme disease- caused by bacteria Borrelia burgdorferi (ticks))
(Herpes- sexually transmitted, contact)
(Chicken pox- varicella-zoster virus)

23
Q

Which is not a risk factor for JME?
A) Sleep Deprivation
B) Patients ages 14-15
C) Patients ages 3-4
D) Absence seizures

A

Patients ages 3-4 (Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy effects Juveniles)

24
Q

Where do most brain tumors occur in children?
A) Anterior fossa
B) Temporal lobes
C) Posterior fossa
D) Frontal lobes

A

Posterior fossa

25
Q

Prion diseases are:
A) Reversible
B) Fatal
C) Treatable
D) Common in children

A

Fatal, most common is Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. An infectious pathogen with capacity to degenerate CNS. Not reversible, not treatable, common in children.

26
Q

The neurotransmitter that is lacking in the brain of patients with Parkinson’s disease is:
A) vasopressin
B) melatonin
C) acetylcholine
D) dopamine

A

dopamine

27
Q

THIAMINE DEFICIENCY
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Wernicke’s syndrome
C) Hyponatremia
D) Wilson’s disease

A

Wernicke’s syndrome
Hyperglycemia: High super in blood
Hyponatremia: Low salt in blood
Wilson’s: Build up copper in blood

28
Q

Which of the following tumors is LEAST likely to cause epileptiform activity in an EEG?
A) Astrocytoma
B) Metastic carcinoma
C) Pituitary adenoma
D) Glioblastoma multiforme

A

Pituitary adenoma: benign tumor of P gland.
Astrocytoma: growth of cells starts in brain or spinal cord.
Metastic carcinoma: cancer spread to another new part of body
Glioblastoma multiforme: fast growing aggressive brain cancer

29
Q

First clinical sign of Landau-Kleffner syndrome (LKS)
A) Dyspraxia
B) Aphasia
C) Dysarthria
D) Dysphasia

A

Aphasia: loss of ability to understand or express speech. (brain damage)
Dyspraxia: disorder affects mvmt & coordination. No brain damage.
Dysarthria: difficulty speak due to weak muscles.
Dysphasia: speech impairment from brain damage.

30
Q

Bell’s palsy is characterized by
A) facial paralysis
B) monoplegia
C) paraparesis
D) tinnitus

A

facial paralysis: mononeuropathy (involvement of single nerve) that damages seventh cranial (facial) nerve.
Monoplegia: paralysis of single limb
Paraparesis: partial paralysis of lower limbs
Tinnitus: ringing in ear cause from problem with brain processing sound, blood vessels, damaged hair cells.

31
Q

TODD’S PARALYSIS
A) seizure onset
B) Ictal-contralaterally
C) Ictal-ispislaterally
D) Post-ictal

A

Post-ictal (post-ictal paralysis)
Ictal: middle of sz
Contra-laterally: affected opposite side of body Ispis-laterally: same side

32
Q

GELASTIC EPILEPSY
A) Crying
B) Laughing
C) Talking
D) Readiing

A

Laughing

33
Q

The atrophy associated with Huntington’s disease involves the
A) thalamus
B) cerebellum
C) basal ganglia
D) midbrain

A

Basal ganglia: collection of nerve cells at base of cerebellum, deep within brain that help smooth out mvmt/coordination. Resulting in uncontrolled mvmt of limbs and decline in mental facilities (memory, judgement, concentration, plan & organize)

34
Q

What is the most common ictal correlate of tonic seizures?
A) Spike and slow wave
B) Paroxysmal fast activity
C) Rhythmic theta
D) Delta

A

Paroxysmal fast activity

35
Q

What type of seizure is NOT associated with Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome?
A) Complex seizure
B) Atypical seizure
C) Atonic seizure
D) Tonic seizure

A

Complex Seizure: “complex partial sz” “focal impaired awareness or psychomotor sz” absent awareness of surroundings. (Partial Sz simple or complex are controlled by the function of brain area in which they occur)

36
Q

In children, most intracranial tumors are found in
A) temporal lobes
B) posterior fossa
C) front lobes
D) optic chiasm

A

posterior fossa.

37
Q

Temporal Lobe Epilepsy accounts for what % of all patients with epilepsy?
A) 60
B) 20
C) 80
D) 40

A

60% Temporal Lobe epilepsy
Complex partial sz 35%
Generalized Sz 40%
Absence “petit-mal” 5%
Tonic-clonic “grand mal” 25%
75% of sz are idiopathic (unknown cause)

38
Q

What is the cause of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?
A) Acute intoxication
B) Thiamine deficiency
C) Trauma
D) Alcoholism

A

Thiamine deficiency: degenerative disease a lack vitamin B1. 1st Encephalopathy 2nd Ocular motor dysfunction 3rd Ataxia. Alcoholism can lead to poor absorption of vitamin B1 which leads to Wernicke’s encephalopathy but is not root cause of sickness.

39
Q

Sturge-Weber Syndrome
A) Cherry red spot in macula of the eye
B) VIII cranial nerve involvement
C) Neurocutaneous involvement
D) Basal nuclei degeneration

A

Neurocutaneous involvement

40
Q

If a patient has a stroke involving the basilar artery, what clinical signs are expected to be seen?
A) Apraxia
B) Diplopia
C) Quadriplegia
D) Global aphasia

A

Diplopia: double vision
Apraxia: may have desire and capability to act but unable to initiate.
Quadriplegic: four extremities are paralyzed.
Global aphasia: loss of ability to speak or understand language. (Note: A basilar artery stroke affects the back of the brain, occipital, where vision is processed.

41
Q

Which progression is considered rare?
A) West Syndrome to Lennox-Gastaut
B) Rolandic to absence
C) Complex partial to generalized
D) Absence to tonic clonic

A

Rolandic to absence - Rare but not impossible. rolandic usualy pt grows out of by 15years. benign epilepsy of childhood with centrotemporal spikes (BECCT) is the most common epilepsy syndrome in children. // Absence seizures - short period of “blanking out,” or behavioral arrest. (1/3 of those with West syndrome develop into Lennox-Gastaut) (Complex partial to generalized, common occurance. Complex partial is most common in adults) (Absence to tonic clonic - More common).

42
Q

A seizure characterized by turning of the head, eyes, and trunk in a single direction is usually caused by a focus in the
A) frontal lobe on the ipsilateral side to the direction the body turns
B) thalamus on the contralateral side to the direction the body turns
C) parietal lobe on the ipsilateral side to the direction the body turns
D) frontal lobe on the contralateral side to the direction the body turns

A

frontal lobe on the contralateral side to the direction the body turns.

43
Q

Clinical semiology is a way to describe
A) behaviors during patient events
B) changes seen in the EEG
C) condition causing seizures
D) electrographic seizures

A

behaviors during patient events

44
Q

The onset of West syndrome is most likely to occur at age:
A) 5 years
B) 4 months
C) 12 years
D) 18 years

A

4 months

45
Q

The neurological examination is most likely to be abnormal in patients with:
A) Rolandic epilepsy
B) Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
C) Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
D) Absence seizures

A

Lennox-Gastaut syndrome.

46
Q

A disease occurring only in females characterized by normal development until six to eighteen months of age, after which there is a quick deterioration of mental abilities:
A) Rasmussen’s encephalitis
B) Tay Sach’s disease
C) Rett syndrome
D) Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

A

Rett syndrome

47
Q

Precocious puberty is associated with pathology of the
A) hippocampus
B) fornix
C) lateral geniculate body
D) hypothalamus

A

hypothalamus.

48
Q

What clinical signs might be seen with a cerebellar hemorrhage?
A) Vertigo
B) Diplopia
C) Trunkal imbalance and poor coordination
D) Dysarthria

A

Trunkal imbalance and poor coordination

49
Q

Decorticate posturing is characterized by
A) bilateral flexion at the elbows
B) flexion of one upper extremity
C) bilateral extension at the elbows
D) dorsiflexion of both feeot

A

bilateral flexion at the elbows.