icev final Flashcards
(181 cards)
1
Q
When should you arrive for a virtual interview?
A
5 minutes early
2
Q
Which of the following is UNIQUE to an in-person interview?
A
Arrive 15 minutes early.
3
Q
Which of the following is a best practice for an in-person interview?
A
Turn off and put away your devices.
4
Q
What does the acronym STAR stand for when answering interview questions?
A
Situation, Task, Action, Result
5
Q
Which are best practices for virtual interviews?
A
Test the technology and clean up your background.
6
Q
What are the four basic parts of an interview?
A
Introduction, employer questions, candidate questions, conclusion
7
Q
What kind of follow-up should you send after an interview?
A
A thank-you note
8
Q
Which is a good example of using an action verb in a resume?
A
Completed a customer service certification
9
Q
Which work experience is listed first on a resume?
A
The most recent
10
Q
Which is a benefit of a professional online presence?
A
It makes you visible to employers searching for candidates online.
11
Q
Why does an employer want to see your portfolio?
A
To see examples of your work
12
Q
What is a resume?
A
A formal document that introduces your qualifications to an employer
13
Q
Which of the following is a good example of an email address to use on a resume?
A
johnsmith57@gmail.com
14
Q
Why is it important to know your “why”?
A
To help find a job that meets your interests and motivations
15
Q
Which section of the resume should include complete sentences?
A
Objective
16
Q
Jobs provide both personal and community benefits.
A
True
17
Q
Which of the following should NOT be used as a professional reference?
A
A parent/guardian
18
Q
What is the first step in the job seeking process?
A
Prepare material and information
19
Q
If a field in an application doesn’t apply to you, is it acceptable to leave it blank?
A
No
20
Q
Which of the following is TRUE about cover letters?
A
You should always tailor your cover letter for the specific job.
21
Q
Which of the following should you do when filling out an online application?
A
Follow all instructions.
22
Q
Why is it important to know your job criteria before searching for a job?
A
It helps target your job search and filter the jobs you want.
23
Q
What is a similarity between a cover letter and an introduction statement?
A
Both use formal language.
24
Q
What is a tool you could use to organize your job search?
A
Use a notes application.
25
Which are sources to look for job openings?
Job-search websites, social media, and school
26
What is a resignation letter?
A formal letter telling the employer you are leaving your job
27
Why would an employer ask you to provide proof of your identity when filling out an I-9 form?
To prove that you are eligible to work in the United States
28
Under the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA), what is the minimum employment age?
14
29
Is a client's height considered PHI?
No
30
De-identification of medical records is the __________ of all identifying information.
removal
31
Technical safeguards of HIPAA's Security Rule are:
Technology, policies and procedures for its use that protect and control access to ePHI.
32
Is a client's photo considered PHI?
Yes
33
The goal of HIPAA is to safeguard hospitals and hospital staff from making errors in the care of a patient.
False
34
HIPAA stands for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
True
35
Administrative safeguards of HIPAA's Security Rule are:
Actions, policies, and procedures used to manage security measures.
36
There are 4 levels of fault for a HIPAA violation.
True
37
Select the definition for willful neglect.
Conscious or intentional failure to perform a duty due to negligence.
38
Raquel, a nurse in the neonatal unit, looked up her sister-in-laws medical history. Is this a purposeful violation?
Yes
39
How many people must be impacted for the Department of Health and Human Services to be notified immediately?
500
40
PHI is any health information regarding treatment which contains information that can __________ the client.
reasonably identify
41
The HITECH Act strengthens HIPAA by having __________ in privacy and security laws to assure compliance in keeping client's PHI safe and secure.
more rules and stricter penalties
42
HIPAA's Security Rule applies specifically to __________.
ePHI
43
The HITECH Act outlines the development and _______________ of Electronic Health Records in the healthcare field.
implementation
44
Which of the following is a care-related piece of information that can be found in an EHR?
Pharmacy notes
45
EHR stands for _______________.
Electronic Health Record
46
Providing better and easier accessibility to health records is a benefit of an EHR, according to the HITECH Act.
True
47
One of the program standards of Meaningful Use is preventing clients from participating in their own care through access to PHR systems.
False
48
What Act outlines the use of Electronic Health Records?
HITECH Act
49
An EHR system is used to create a ________ digital health record for each client.
single
50
Meaningful Use is _______________.
a financial incentive program to encourage national use of EHR technology in order to improve client care.
51
PHR is ________ maintained by the ________.
Health and medical information; client
52
PHR stands for ________.
Personal Health Record
53
HIT stands for ________.
Health Information Technology
54
Having access to tests, labs, surgery, and x-ray results is important because it helps staff to avoid delays and costs associated with re-testing.
True
55
Which group regulates each of the other groups to ensure they adhere to healthcare laws?
Governmental Agencies
56
One way HIT affects healthcare providers is by allowing them better ________ over who has access to client information.
control
57
In the healthcare industry, what is HIT?
The application of technology for the purpose of storing, retrieving, and sharing healthcare information
58
ePrescribing helps pharmacy staff spend ________ confirming new prescriptions and refill requests.
less time
59
Which of the following is a benefit of HIT?
It helps avoid unnecessary tests and procedures
60
Referral requests are difficult to handle when communicated electronically.
False
61
Which group provides care such as emergency care, outpatient surgery and hospital stays?
Healthcare Facility
62
ePriscribing helps pharmacy staff alert physicians about possible ________.
negative drug interactions
63
There is a fire on the second floor of the Community Rehabilitation Center. Tanisha is trying to lead her patients to safety, but the primary exit is blocked by fire. What should Tanisha try next?
Use the secondary exit.
64
Symptoms of foodborne illness resemble ____.
the flu
65
How can you confine a fire to an area?
Close doors and windows.
66
What is the most common type of injury experienced by healthcare workers?
Back injury
67
Which of the following situations is best handled by the Fowler's bed position?
An older patient in a hospital room has respiratory problems.
68
In what type of setting should a healthcare worker interview a victim of an accident?
In a private, confidential setting
69
What should a healthcare worker do immediately after a safety violation occurs?
Report it to the supervisor.
70
How often should high traffic areas in a healthcare facility be cleaned?
Daily
71
Two major aspects of healthcare that employees are responsible for are: 1) keeping patients and themselves safe and 2) providing the proper quality of care.
True
72
What is the purpose of safety data sheets?
To list information such as precautions and possible hazards of a chemical
73
Which of the following is NOT a way to prevent foodborne illness?
Leaving cooked food at room temperature for several hours
74
Which of the following acronyms can help you remember what steps to take if a fire should occur in your facility?
RACE
75
Where should you point the nozzle of a fire extinguisher when you are putting out a fire?
The base of the fire
76
How long does it typically take for symptoms of foodborne illness to occur?
4 to 48 hours
77
At what angle should you hold utensils while feeding patients at mealtime?
90-degree angle
78
What is a sickness that results from eating a food that is infected with bacteria?
Foodborne illness
79
In what position is a patient lying on the back?
Supine
80
Why must proper technique be followed for a patient transfer?
To prevent injury
81
Always bend at your ____.
hips and knees
82
Why should your feet be shoulder-width apart when lifting?
Helps you maintain balance
83
Which muscles are the strongest in your body?
Leg muscles
84
During a patient transfer from bed to wheelchair, where should the wheelchair be placed?
Beside the bed and against the wall
85
How should employees and patients move their feet when preparing to move in a different direction?
In short pivots until they point in the direction they want to travel
86
What is body mechanics?
Positioning the body in ways that prevent injury
87
Which of the following are internal factors that affect patient safety?
All of the above
88
Being legally responsible for causing harm is:
Liability
89
Which two items should be used to identify a patient?
Name and birth date
90
When should an incident be reported and to whom?
Immediately to a supervisor
91
Which of the following agencies is responsible for enforcing safety standards in the workplace?
Responses
OSHA
92
Which of the following agencies is responsible for protecting human health and the environment?
EPA
93
An average normal range of less than 120 mm Hg is the standard for which blood pressure measurement?
Systolic
94
When taking blood pressure, how should the patient's arm be positioned?
At heart level, supported, with palm facing up
95
An average normal range of less than 80 mm Hg is the standard for which blood pressure measurement?
Diastolic
96
How is respiration measured?
The number of breaths per minute
97
Your patient is having difficulty breathing and has a respiration rate of 5 breaths per minute. Which of the following describes your patient?
Bradypnea
98
Which of the following is a sign of cyanosis?
Skin and lips turn bluish in color
99
Which of the following respiration rates is normal for a six-year-old girl?
20
100
Which range is the average resting pulse rate for adults?
60 to 100
101
Where is radial pulse measured?
On the underside of the patient's wrist
102
While counting pulse, what must you also be aware of?
The volume and rhythm of the pulse
103
Where is the carotid pulse site?
On the side of the patient's neck
104
Which of these items INCREASES a person's pulse rate?
Fever
105
What does temperature measure?
The balance between heat produced and heat lost
106
Where should the thermometer be located in the patient's mouth for an oral reading?
Under the tongue, toward the side of the mouth
107
Which of the following temperatures is considered febrile and would likely prompt a physician to administer fever-reducing medications?
An oral temperature of 100.5°F
108
Which of the following describes the correct use of a tympanic thermometer?
Use plastic covers to prevent the spread of infection.
109
Which of the following is true of height and weight measurements?
They can be used to monitor growth, dose medication, and order lab tests.
110
Which of the following describes correct technique for measuring height and weight?
Read the weight when the balance bar is centered between the upper and lower guides.
111
In addition to height and weight, taking infant body measurements includes which of the following?
Head circumference
112
Which of the following is the most important indicator of health of the body?
Vital signs
113
How does aging affect the nervous system?
Neurons die at an increased rate
114
How is the cardiovascular system affected by aging?
Fibrous tissue replaces muscle tissue
115
In which stage of grief will a person reject the idea that they are dying, or insist that the doctor has made a mistake?
Denial
116
Mortuary care includes which of the following?
Care of the body after death, as well as emotional and ceremonial needs
117
Muscle atrophy can cause which of the following?
Decrease in strength
118
What is a terminal illness?
Incurable disease that results in death
119
Which of the following increases in middle adulthood?
Ability to solve problems
120
In late adulthood, people make up for the loss of many functions with what?
Wisdom
121
Which age group is at an increased risk of osteoporosis?
60 years of age and above
122
Which of the following is true of physical development in early adulthood?
Adults are physically in their prime.
123
What is puberty?
Biological changes resulting in reproductive maturity and an adult-sized body
124
Which of the following is NOT true of intellectual development in adolescence?
Not intellectually able to make wise decisions
125
Which of the following is true of emotional development in middle childhood?
Become more independent
126
Which of the following requires special attention from caregivers in the early childhood stage?
Proper nutrition
127
What can help prevent fatal accidents in infants and toddlers?
Adults should watch young children very closely.
128
According to the Apgar scale, what score represents the healthiest newborns?
7 to 10
129
When is blood Rh a problem in pregnancy?
Mother is Rh negative and baby is Rh positive
130
Which is true of the zygote period?
The placenta begins to develop to provide food and oxygen
131
What is the treatment for babies with respiratory distress syndrome?
The baby is placed on a respirator.
132
What is the earliest point where a fetus has a chance of surviving outside the womb?
25 weeks
133
What is fetal alcohol syndrome?
Serious birth defects caused by drinking alcohol during pregnancy
134
Which of the following is NOT true of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome?
Typically occurs between the ages of six months and one year.
135
Which of the following did Abram Maslow develop?
Hierarchy of human needs
136
Which of the following is true of human development?
People grow and develop in order to fulfill their basic needs.
137
What do scientists hope to accomplish using recombinant DNA?
Replacement of defective genes with normal genes
138
Which of the following is NOT considered a sharp?
Tongue depressor
139
Which patients should be considered infectious?
All patients should be considered infectious
140
When should healthcare workers wash their hands?
Before providing care and between patients
141
How is a used sharp disposed of?
Drop the entire sharp into a sharps container.
142
How does a pathogen get spread from one person to another person?
Through a mode of transmission
143
What causes infectious disease?
Pathogens
144
When should sterile gloves be worn?
When treating an open wound
145
How should a sterile package be handled?
Open with ungloved hands, but be careful not to touch the inside of the package.
146
How must you label an autoclave package?
Items contained, the date of sterilization, and your initials
147
Which of the following is NOT a guideline for working in a sterile field?
Only items that become contaminated must be replaced.
148
Which of the following is true of autoclaving?
Items for a specific procedure are often wrapped together.
149
What should be done with juice that a patient in isolation did not drink?
Poured down the sink in the patient's room
150
Which of the following is NOT standard practice for a patient with chickenpox?
Maintain a room temperature of 90 degrees.
151
Which of the following is an example of an infectious disease that is also a communicable disease?
All of the above
152
Which of the following is a droplet precaution?
Wearing a standard surgical mask
153
Why should transmission-based garments never be removed outside of an isolation room?
It would increase the risk of spreading infection.
154
How long can a single pair of gloves be used?
During care for one patient
155
Hand washing and routine cleaning are examples of what type of practice?
Medical asepsis
156
What is the best way to prevent the spread of infection?
Wash your hands.
157
What is the responsibility of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration?
Enforce safety and health standards in the workplace
158
Which of the following is NOT included in the Fair Labor Standards Act?
Dictates employers pay overtime pay for weekend hours
159
What is the purpose of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention?
Protect people from infectious, occupational, environmental, and terrorist threats
160
For what reason may an employer legally NOT hire an applicant?
The applicant is not a legal U.S. resident.
161
The Family and Medical Leave Act allows employees to take unpaid leave for which of the following reasons?
To recover from the birth of a child
162
In which case does the employer have just cause to fire an employee?
The employee was caught stealing medications from work.
163
Worker compensation laws do which of the following?
Require employers to insure employees in case they are injured at work
164
What are rules of proper conduct among a group of people, such as a profession?
Ethics
165
Liability can be defined as which of the following?
Legal responsibility for causing harm
166
Which of the following is TRUE of the Residents' Bill of Rights?
Promotes independence and self-determination
167
Which of the following is considered a civil right?
Freedom of speech
168
Which one of the following overrides the others?
Living will
169
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) included which of the following regulations?
Residents' Bill of Rights
170
What are legal documents that allow people to state what medical treatments they want or do not want in the event that they are unable to make decisions or communicate?
Advance directives
171
Which of the following terms means releasing, transferring, or providing access to protected health information?
Disclosure
172
As you walk past the nurses' station, you overhear a nurse on the phone with a patient discussing the patient's medication. Which of the following describes your knowledge of the situation according to HIPAA?
Incidental disclosure
173
Jim is a health care worker who must call Mr. Ortiz with the results of his blood tests. When Jim calls, no one picks up the phone and the answering machine plays. What should Jim do?
Leave a message with the name of the facility he is calling from and a phone number where he can be reached.
174
What is the best way to dispose of confidential information in a health care facility
Shred it.
175
Which of the following is a type of abuse that should be reported to the proper authorities?
All of the above
176
Which of the following is information that is shared within a protected relationship?
Privileged communication
177
What is professional negligence called?
Malpractice
178
Intentionally touching another person without permission is called what?
Battery
179
What is a case in which a person is harmed because of another person's actions or failure to act called?
Tort
180
Which of the following is included in informed consent?
An explanation of the test and permission from the patient
181
Which of the following is a purpose of HIPAA?
Ensure that a patient's medical information is private
