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Year 6 Passmed > ID > Flashcards

ID Flashcards

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1
Q

What test is done to diagnose syphillitic chancre?

A

RPR/VDRL blood test

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2
Q

What does a urinary NAAT test look for?

A

Urethral gonorrhoea and chlamydia

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3
Q

What antibiotic should be prescribed in the event of an animal bite?

A

Co-amoxiclav

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4
Q

How does an Aspergilloma form?

A

A mass like fungal ball (mycetoma) colonises an existing lung cavity e.g. 2ary to TB, lung cancer, cystic fibrosis or emphysema

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5
Q

What is the commonest causative agent of malaria?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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6
Q

What are the features of falciparum malaria?

A 
Fever
HSM
Diarrhoea
Jaundice
Anaemia
Thrombocytopenia
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7
Q

What is the transmission risk following needle stick injury of:

HepB
HepC
HIV

A

HepB - 20-30%
HepC - 0.5-2%
HIV - 0.3%

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8
Q

What should be offered after an initial negative HIV test result in an asymptomatic patient?

A

Offer repeat test at 12 weeks

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9
Q

How is HIV diagnosed?

A

HIV antibodies and p24 antigen test

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10
Q

Which bacterial infection its associated with erythema multiform?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

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11
Q

What age group does mycoplasma pneumonia typically affect?

A

Younger patients

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12
Q

What are the classical features of mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

Long prodrome with insidious onset
Followed by dry cough
Bilateral consolidation

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13
Q

What are the complications of mycoplasma pneumonia?

A 
Haemolytic anaemia
Erythema multiform/nodosum
Meningoencephalitis
Pericarditis
Acute glomerulonephritis
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14
Q

What is the management of mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

Doxy or a macrolide

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15
Q

What is the incubation period of ebola virus?

A

2-21 days

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16
Q

What is the first line management of early Lyme disease?

A

Oral doxy for 14-21 days

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17
Q

What rash is seen in Lyme disease?

A

Erythema migrans

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18
Q

What are the presenting features of Lyme disease?

A

Early erythema migrans with systemic features
Cardio - HB, myocarditis
Neuro - CN7 palsy, meningitis

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19
Q

What organism causes bloody diarrhoea and hepatic abscesses?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

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20
Q

What is the presentation of cutaneous Leishmaniasis?

A

Crusted ulcerative lesions at the site of the bite

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21
Q

What is the presentation of visceral leishmaniasis?

A

Fevers sweats rigors
Massive HSM
Grey skin - kala azar

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22
Q

What is the management of acute simple cystitis in a man?

A

7 days PO Trimethoprim/Nitrofurantoin

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23
Q

Which antibiotic causes a disulfaram like reaction when mixed with alcohol?

A

Metronidazole

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24
Q

Which Strep causes tonsillitis/pharyngitis?

A

Pyogenes

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25
What should be given to patients with injuries high risk for Tetanus infection?
Tetanus vaccine booster AND tetanus IM Ig
26
Gastroenteritis with short incubation period and vomiting?
Staph a
27
Heat are the features of enteric typhoid fever/
Systemic upset initially Relative bradycardia Abdo pain + constipation Rose spots on trunk
28
Which class of antibiotics can cause black hairy tongue?
Tetracyclines
29
What are the adverse effects of tetracyclines?
Discolouration of the teeth Photosensitivity Angioedema Black hairy tongue
30
What might cause a falsely negative Mantoux test?
Immunosuppression (sarcoid, steroids, AIDs, lymphoma)
31
What are the features of Legionella pneumonia?
``` Flu like prodrome Dry cough Confusion Recent foreign travel Hyponatraemia Pleural effusion ```
32
What is the diagnosis and management of Legionella pneumonia?
Dx - urinary antigens | Rx - Macrolide
33
Which causes of gastroenteritis have the longest incubation period?
Giardiasis and amoebiasis - >7 days
34
What are the live attenuated vaccines and when should they be avoided?
``` BCG MMR Oral polio Yellow fever Oral typhoid ``` In immunosuppressed patients
35
What organisms cause the following LP picture? High protein Normal glucose Lots of mononuclear cells
HSV (Virus)
36
How does Kaposi's sarcoma present in children?
Usually no rash | Often only with generalised lymphadenopathy and enlarged tonsils
37
What is the first line management of syphilis?
IM BenPen
38
What is the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?
Seen sometimes following syphillis treatment Presents with fever rash tachycardia but no signs of anaphylaxis. Manage solely with antipyretics
39
What are clue cells seeing?
Bacterial vaginosis?
40
What is the management of bacterial vaginosis?
PO metronidazole
41
How does diphtheria present?
Sore throat with grey 'diphtheric membrane' covering to tonsils Cervical lymphadenopathy Cranial nerve palsies Heart block
42
What happens to TPHA and VDRL results post syphilis management?
TPHA - remains positive | VDRL - goes negative
43
What antibiotic is used for gonorrhoea?
IM Cef
44
What antibiotic is used for extensive otitis extern?
Flucloxacillin
45
What is the antibiotic management of PID?
Doxy + Met + Def
46
Which chest infection causes reactivation of herpes simplex virus?
S. pneumonia
47
Which antibiotics are commonly used to treats MRSA?
Vancomycin Teicoplanin Linezolid
48
What antibiotic is used fro Legionella?
Clarithromycin
49
What infection are sewage workers at risk of, why, and how does it present?
Leptospirosis Transmitted via rat urine ``` Fever Flu Renal failure Jaundice Subconjunctival haemorrhage ```
50
How long is HIV PEP?
4 weeks
51
What is the management of Toxoplasma gondii?
6 months of sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine
52
What are the causes of painful and painless penile ulcers?
Painless - Syphilis, Lymphogranuloma Venereum, Donovanosis Painful - Behcets, HSV, Chancroid
53
What causes a gram negative diplococci meningitis?
Neisseria meningitidis
54
Which pneumonia causes immune mediated neurological disease?
Mycoplasma pneumonia
55
Which antibiotic should not be given to patients on methotrexate?
Trimethoprim
56
Which vaccinations are offered routinely to pregnant women in the UK?
Influenza and pertussis
57
Fevers on alternating days?
Malaria
58
What agent might cause chronic opportunistic infection in immunosuppressed patients such as diabetics?
Pseudomonas
59
Which virus is associated with nasopharyngeal cancer?
EBV
60
What effect can trimethoprim have on the kidneys?
Can cause tubular dysfunction ->Hyperkalaemia and raised Cr
61
When should HAART be started?
At the time of diagnosis
62
What infection is common in renal transplant patients, and does it affect the lungs?
CMV - and yes, CMV pneumonitis
63
What lung infection famously causes desaturations on exercise?
PCP
64
What is the management of severe and non severe falciparum malaria, and non-falciparum malaria?
Severe - IV artesunate Non-severe - Oral artesunate non-falciparum - Chloroquine
65
What is the management of asymptomatic bacteruria in pregant women?
Amoxicillin
66
Which antimalarial is taken weekly and should be avoided in patients with depression?
Mefloquine
67
What is the incubation period of yellow fever?
2-14 day incubation period
68
What causes Chagas' disease?
Trypanosome cruzi
69
Chagas' disease features?
Myocarditis -> DCM | Megaoesophagus and megagolon

Year 6 Passmed (22 decks)

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