Identification and Avoidance Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What bus powers the IFF when the switch is at NORM?

A

The 28V DC ESB

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2
Q

State the locations of the upper and lower IFF antennae.

A

Upper: On top of the nose cone.
Lower: Below the jet pipe.

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3
Q

State the operation and function of the Crypto switch.

A

When held in the zero position for more than 2 seconds, the following are erased:
Modes 1, 3A and 4 codes.
Crypto material.

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4
Q

Explain the difference between the Single and Twin options of the rear cockpit IFF codes switch (inc. what happens during ejection as a result).

A

Single: Emergency mode set, CPI activates and IFF codes and crypto erased if front cockpit ejection seat operates.

Twin: These things only happen if both ejection seats operate.

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5
Q

How many digits does IFF mode 1 have?

A

2

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6
Q

What is the purpose of IFF mode C, and how does it work?

A

Uses data from the PDMC to provide an encoded pressure altitude (based off of 1013.25hPa).

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7
Q

Which of the following codes can you change in flight?
Mode 1
Mode 2
Mode 3(A)

A

Mode 1: Yes
Mode 2: No (set by engineers on ground)
Mode 3(A): Yes.

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8
Q

State how to squawk ident using the DEP and HUD scratchpad only (i.e. not using the CNI/ IFF formats).

A

Press IFF on the DEP.

With a flashing cursor on Opticator 2 (i.e. next to the 4 digit code), press mode.

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9
Q

State the maximum horizontal and vertical closure rates that TCAS is designed to protect against.

A

Horizontal: 1200kts
Vertical: 10,000fpm.

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10
Q

Within what time range must both the vertical and horizontal tau values fall in order for TCAS II to generate an RA?

A

15-35 seconds depending on the sensitivity level (altitude dependant).

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11
Q

State the order of priority of TCAS classifications (ascending), and how they are displayed on the TCAS display.

A

Other - Blue/ cyan open (unfilled) diamond.
Proximate - Blue/ cyan filled diamond.
Intruder - Yellow circle.
Threat - Red square.

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12
Q

What are the criteria required to activate a Threat on TCAS?

A

Range and vertical Taus both less than 15-35 seconds (depending on sensitivity level).

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13
Q

What are the criteria required to activate an Intruder on TCAS?

A

Range and vertical Taus both less than 20-48 seconds (depending on sensitivity level).

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14
Q

What are the criteria required to activate a Proximate on TCAS?

A

Contact within 6nm and 1200ft, but does not meet threat or intruder criteria.

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15
Q

What are the criteria required to activate an Other on TCAS?

A

Contact outside 6nm or 1200ft and does not meet the threat or intruder criteria.

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16
Q

How far above and below the aircraft does TCAS look for contacts?

A

+-12,700ft.

17
Q

What horizontal range does TCAS interrogate other transponders out to?

A

Nominally 30nm.

18
Q

Within what horizontal range will TCAS II start tracking contacts for possible RA actions?

A

14nm.

19
Q

Will RAs be generated for contacts not transmitting height information?

A

No.

20
Q

What speeds do the TCAS VSI markers represent?

A
500fpm
1000fpm
2000fpm
4000fpm
6000fpm
21
Q

How are TCAS contacts without azimuth information displayed?

A

As text.

22
Q

For a first time RA, what reaction time is factored into the RA?

How much G will it expect you to use to satisfy RA?

What about in response to a subsequent RA that is activated before you are clear of the initial contact?

A

5 seconds.

  1. 75g or 1.25g
  2. 5 seconds and 1+-1/3rd G.
23
Q

What TCAS modes will be turned on if the 3A/C text is boxed on the IFF format?

A

3A
C
S

24
Q

What is the vertical collision space (i.e. ALIM) range that TCAS II intends to protect?

A

+-300-700ft, depending on SL.

25
Q

What should you transmit to ATC if you have to respond to a TCAS RA?

A

“[Callsign], TCAS RA”

26
Q

What should you transmit to ATC once clear of a TCAS RA contact?

A

“[Callsign], Clear of Conflict, returning to FL…”

27
Q

Below what height are TCAS RAs not available?

A

1000ft (RadAlt)