IFR Flashcards
1
Q
If the static ports were to be iced over, what would the VSI indicate?
A
ZERO! No indication!
2
Q
As air temperature increases, TAS and True Altitude will ____.
A
Increase!
3
Q
If the Remote compass is reading 120 and the Magnetic compass is reading 110, how do we adjust the gyro and OBS?
A
Select Free Gyro, and turn OBS CLOCKWISE
4
Q
What does the MACH meter indicate?
A
The ratio of an a/c’s TAS to the speed of sound
5
Q
How could you identify and SKIDDING turn on a ball and slip indicator?
A
The ball would be rolled to the OUTSIDE of the turn
6
Q
How many degrees are represented by full scale deflection off a VOR?
A
10-12 degrees
7
Q
When executing a VOR check, what should the needles be indicating?
A
TAIL should be pointing to the true radial, HEAD should be pointing to the reciprocal within +/- 4 degrees
8
Q
When executing a VOT check, what radial should the CDI align with?
A
360, meaning the TAIL should be pointing to 360 and the HEAD to 180
9
Q
What is the max tolerance for the VOR indication when the CDI is centered and the a/c is directly over the airborne checkpoint?
A
+/- 6 degrees of the designated radial
10
Q
Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because:
A
High AOA and High gross weight
HEAVY AND SLOW!
11
Q
What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior?
A
The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway!
12
Q
If both the ram air and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what airspeed indication can be expected if large power changes are made?
A
Remain CONSTANT in level flight, even during power changes!
13
Q
What does the mini a/c of the turn coordinator display?
A
First the rate of BANK, and once stable, the rate of TURN
14
Q
During normal flight with a vacuum driven attitude indicator, control pressures normally should not move the horizon bar more than:
A
One half bar width, with not more than an additional one half bar width from normal flight deviations
15
Q
What system has malfunctioned if your heading indicator is not moving?
A
Vacuum or electrical system
16
Q
The loss of an alternator or generator in an a/c with all electronic flight displays is considered to be:
A
An EMERGENCY!
17
Q
If the ADC is malfunctioning, which information becomes unreliable?
A
PFD ASI, Altimeter, and VSI
18
Q
When landing on a wet runway, you being to hydroplane. You should:
A
Raise the nose to increase aerodynamic drag
19
Q
When logging flight time as simulated instrument conditions, what information must be entered in you logbook?
A
- Location
- Types of IAPs
- Name of Safety Pilot
20
Q
What minimum conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches required for IFR currency?
A
The IAPs may be made in an a/c, approved instrument ground trainer, or any combination of these.
21
Q
When (where) are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?
A
Class A airspace
22
Q
A certified commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night OR in excess of 50 NM is required to have at least:
A
An instrument rating in the same category and class of a/c
23
Q
Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway? (In regards to centerline and traffic avoidance)
A
Climb on the center line of the airway except when maneuvering around traffic in VFR conditons
24
Q
What procedure do you follow if your DME fails at or above FL240
A
Notify ATC of the failure, and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made
25
You should maintain VFR cruising altitudes based on the direction of the:
MAGNETIC course
26
What weather minimums do you need in Class E, during the day, to operate on Special VFR under 1,200' AGL?
1 sm, Clear of Clouds!
27
For an IFR flight, if the airport of intended destination does NOT have an IAP, are you required to plan fuel for an alternate?
YES! Even if the weather is forecast to be VFR!
28
What is the minimum altitude for IFR flight?
2,000' above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous areas, and 1,000' above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere
29
Operating in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan?
Class E with IMC, and Class A
30
When departing uncontrolled airspace (G) in IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive clearance before entering:
ANY CONTROLLED AIRSPACE (A, B, C, D or E)
31
When making an IAP at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?
The PUBLISHED landing minimums for the procedure
32
A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action should the pilot take if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the VASI is in sight?
Continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the elctronic GS (minimums do not change)
33
In mountainous areas, no person may operate an a/c under IFR below 2,000' above the highest obstacle that is within a horizontal distance of __NM from the course flown.
4 NM from the course flown
34
In the US, an operable transponder equipped with with Mode C is required in all controlled airspace at and above ____
10,000' MSL
35
If an un-pressurized a/c is operated above 12,500' MSL and up to 14,000' MSL for a period of 2 hours and 20 minutes, how long during that time is the minimum flightcrew required to use supplemental O2?
1 hour and 50 minutes, because at that altitude the minimum flightcrew is required to be on O2 for flight lasting more than 30 minutes
36
A/c being operated under IFR are required to have, in addition to the equipment required for VFR and night, at least:
A slip-skid indicator
37
Where (what altitude) is DME required under IFR?
At or above FL240 if VOR navigation equipment is required
38
What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly without providing passengers with supplemental O2?
Up to and INCLUDING 15,000'
39
What minimum navigation equipment is required for IFR flight?
Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used
40
Which publication covers procedures required for a/c accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots
NTSB Part 830
41
Which substitution is permitted when an ILS component is inoperative?
A Compass Locator or Precision Radar may be substituted for an ILS outer or middle marker
42
If the glideslope were to become inoperative during an ILS approach, what minimums would be an appropriate substitution?
LOC minimums
43
When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other a/c?
When weather conditions premit
44
You are cleared VFR on Top with a course of 180. What altitude should you fly?
An EVEN thousand, plus 500' (0-179 = ODD, 180-359 = EVEN)
45
What is the rule prescribed regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an OFF AIRWAY IFR flight over non-mountainous terrain?
Remain 1,000' above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of your course
46
No person may operate an a/c in controlled airspace under IFR unless they file a flight plan, and:
Have received CLEARANCE prior to entering controlled airspace
47
In what airspace is your a/c required to be equipped with a transponder?
- Class A (a/c must be IFR equipped)
- Class B (Mode C capability, 4096 with auto pressure reporting)
- Class C
48
If you wish to fly into Class B without a transponder, what must you do?
Put in a request for the propsed flight to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight
49
Where are VFR on Top operations prohibited?
Class A
50
What airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?
Class E extending upward from 700'+ above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace
51
What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?
700' AGL or more to the base of the overlaying controlled airspace
52
What is the floor of Class E airspace when it has been designated in conjunction with an airway?
1,200' AGL!!!
| Federal Airways are generally Class E airspace areas that extend from 1,200' AGL up to but not including 18,000' MSL
53
What altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D? What are it's normal lateral limits?
- 2,500' AGL
| - 4 NM
54
What is the upper limit for Class A?
60,000' MSL
55
What altitude is normally the upper limit for Class B?
10,000' MSL
56
What does declaring "minimum fuel" to ATC imply?
An advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible
57
When ATC has not imposed any climb/descent restrictions and a/c are within 1,000' of assigned altitudes, both pilot's should attempt to climb/descend at a rate between:
500'-1,500' per minute
58
What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?
Maintain an optimum climb on the center line of the airway w/o intermediate level-offs until 1,000' below assigned altitude, then 500'-1,500' per minute
59
What clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
- Destination airport
- Altitude
- DP Name
- Number
- Transition if appropriate
60
When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though rules had not been violated?
When priority had been given
61
When can a VFR on Top clearance be assigned by ATC?
When requested by the pilot, and conditions are indicated to be suitable
62
What ATC clearance should instrument pilots request in order to climb through clouds/poor vis and continue the flight VFR?
VFR on Top
63
When on a VFR on Top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on:
MAGNETIC course
64
What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR on Top in a non-radar environment?
The same reports that are required for any IFR flight
65
When may a pilot file a composite flight plan? What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?
- Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR
| - Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance
66
Which equipment type determines the code entered into Block 3 as a suffix to the "a/c type/special equip" on the flight plan form?
DME, transponder and RNAV
67
For IFR planning, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?
Fixes selected to define the route
68
You are departing a non-towered airport with an IFR clearance containing a void time. If not off by the void time, you must:
Advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, or your intentions
69
When not in radar contact, you should ALWAYS report:
Departing the FAF inbound
70
What should you do if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?
Report the malfunction to ATC immediately
71
Unless otherwise specified, the minimum en route altitude along a Jet Route is:
18,000' MSL
72
During the en route phase of flight, ATC says "Radar service terminated." What action is appropriate?
Resume normal position reporting
73
In what situation will ATC issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight?
When the pilot requests it!
74
When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?
Automatically when ATC instructs you to contact tower
75
You are in IMC and have 2-way radio communication failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?
Squawk 7600, continue flight on ASSIGNED route, and fly the last ASSIGNED altitude of the MEA, whichever is higher!!
76
Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix, indicate that departing a/c will normally be routed to the fix by:
An Instrument Departure Procedure, or radar vectors
77
Which source of info would provide the latest status of airport conditions, like runway closures, lighting, and snow?
(D) NOTAMs
78
What airspace exists from the surface to 1,200' AGL, BELOW the Federal Airways
Uncontrolled airspace, making it Class G (Federal Airways are Class E)
79
How can a pilot determine if a GPS is approved for IFR flight?
Flight Manual Supplement!
80
To operate under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to:
Entering controlled airspace, including Class A.
81
When filling out a flight plan for a composite flight plan, you should:
Check both VFR and IFR
82
What is the maximum cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly w/o using supplemental O2 after 30 minutes?
12,500'
83
What are the supplemental O2 requirements of an un-pressurized a/c AT 15,000'?
The CREW must use O2 for the entire time above 14,000'
84
It has been a month since you flew as PIC in IFR. Assuming you do not fly anymore, how long until you need to have an IPC to act as PIC in IFR?
5 CALENDAR MONTHS***
85
On an IFR flight plan from KDAL to KSAT (2 hour ETE), the weather requires you to file an alternate that is 20 minutes from KSAT. You require a minimum fuel supply of _:__
3:05
86
When operating under IFR, you must track the centerline of an ATC assigned airway except for when you are:
Executing shallow clearing turns while climbing in VMC
87
Immediate changes in flight data affecting IAPs, aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions are provided by:
FDC NOTAMs
88
You are given "CRUISE 7,000 FT" in you ATC clearance. The IFR route in your clearance has an MEA of 5,000' so this clearance authorizes you to:
- Cruise at any intermediate altitude between 7,000' and the MEA
- The term "Cruise" may be used instead of "Maintain" to assign a block of airspace
89
If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological values should you substitute for 2,400 RVR?
Ground vis of 1/2 SM
90
1/2 SM ground vis = ____ RVR
2,400
91
How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000?
Set the altimeter to 29.92
92
What altitude is indicated when altimeter is set to 29.92?
PRESSURE altitude
93
Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicated height above:
The standard datum plane
94
What is the normal glidepath for a 2-bar and 3-bar VASI?
3.00 degrees
95
The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will:
Constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath
96
The Tricolor Visual Approach Indicators normally consist of:
A single unit, projecting a three color visual approach path (red, green, and amber)
97
When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the NEAR bar as:
WHITE, and the far bar as red
98
If an a/c is on a glidepath higher than 3.5 degrees, what will the PAPI look like?
ALL WHITE (normal glidepath = 3 degrees)
99
If an a/c is on a glidepath lower than 2.5 degrees, what will the PAPI look like?
ALL RED (normal glidepath = 3 degrees)
100
Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?
REIL
101
Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?
Arrows leading to the threshold mark
102
What night operations are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights?
Taxi and takeoff operations, provided the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights
103
Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes above 1,500'?
IFR LOW Altitude En Route Charts
104
A "CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET" clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to:
Vacate 4,000' w/o notifying ATC
105
How many degrees are represented by each "clock" direction?
30 degrees.....12 x 30 = 360
106
ATC advises "Traffic 2 o'clock," while you are holding a 20 crosswind correction to the right. Where do you look for the traffic?
40 degrees to the right of the a/c's nose
107
How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and no control tower/FSS station?
By radio or telephone to any FSS or ATC facility once you're on the ground
108
When may a pilot cancel IFR prior to completing the flight?
Only in VFR conditions when not in Class A
109
Which types of airspace are depicted on En Route LOW Altitude Charts?
Limitations of controlled airspace, military training routes, and special use airspace
110
For IFR operations off established airways below FL180, VOR navaids used to define the "route of flight" should be no more than ___ NM apart
80 NM
111
At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding patter?
When over OR abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs LATER
112
When a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within:
The 1 minute time limit or specified DME distance
113
When more than 1 circuit of the holding pattern is needed to prepare for the IAP, additional circuits can be executed only if:
The pilot advises ATC and they approve
114
Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?
When they deem it appropriate, unless the pilot requests "No STAR"
115
While you are flying at FL250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92 in your area. At what PRESSURE altitude are you flying?
25,000' (When your altimeter is set to 29.92, it is already indicating PRESSURE altitude!)
116
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?
Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for shot intervals
117
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic and terrain?
Makes them look FARTHER than they actually are
118
What does "resume own navigation" imply
You should navigate as filed or cleared/resume responsibility for you own navigation
119
The MEA ensures:
Acceptable navigation signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements
120
Acceptable navigation signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance of only ___ NM from the VOR
22 NM
121
What does an inverted H in the corner of a nav box indicate?
That HIWAS is available
122
What is the function of RCO?
Provide a Remote communications outlet for that FSS station
123
Within a/c movement areas, 'destination signs' identify the:
Direction to specified destinations
124
The 'runway threshold bar' marking indicates:
Beginning of runway available for landing
125
In IFR, and abrupt head movement during a turn can trigger what illusion?
Coriolis Illusion
126
Roll upsets caused by ice accumulations forward of the ailerons can be remedied by:
Reducing AOA by reducing airspeed or extending flaps with level wings
127
If you experience icing during an approach, you should:
Retract flap as needed and disengage autopilot
128
How can you be sure the wing is free of ice?
Conduct a tactile and visual inspection
129
During or after flight in icing conditions, you experience vibrating/buffeting following flap deployment. This is most likely due to:
Incipient tail plane stall as a result of negative tail plane angle after flap deployment
130
What is true regarding Supercooled Liquid Droplets?
- SLD can occur aloft w/o any precipitation
| - They Splash and Splatter below +5 degrees C
131
Residual ice, after cycling of the deicing boots, will:
INCREASE as ASI or temperature DECREASE
132
What is true regarding ice accumulation and its characteristics?
Ice on the wings is undetectable and will reduce lift/performance
133
Where will the pilot first notice ice accumulations?
Air temp probe .... pitot tube
134
Which NOTAMs are included in the FAA Notice to Airman Publications (NTAP)?
All permanent NOTAMs
135
In a/c equipped with an MFD, the substitute display or the backup instrument mode is known as the:
Faildown or Standby instrument
136
What type of emergency represents an "urgency" condition?
Poor weather at primary destination and a concern about not having enough fuel to reach the alternate
137
When ATC clears you for a descent, you should:
Begin the descent at an optimum rate consistent with a/c performance
138
What does an * symbol next to a tower frequency represent?
Part-time tower operations
139
In low visibility conditions, why are certain intersections circled in color?
To indicate well known hazardous spots on airport
140
How would you properly report level at 21,000' MSL to ATC?
"level at two one zero"
141
Who may update an installed GPS device?
A pilot
142
A displaced threshold will:
Decrease available landing distance
143
When VFR on Top, what altitude can you select?
Any altitude
144
What is the purpose of Class E airspace transitions from en route to the terminal area for IFR operations?
Provides controlled airspace to contain IAPs
145
Oh what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360 turn with a bank of approx. 15 degrees?
90 and 270
146
If RVR is inoperative for the runway in use, you must:
Covert RVR minimums and use the value as ground visibility
147
What point should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?
The point of 1st intended landing
148
A VOR receiver with normal 5-dot course sensitivity shows a 3-dot deflection at 30 NM from the station. How far off course is the a/c?
```
3 NM
(60-1 rule....@ 60 NM from the station each dot = 2 degrees, so @ 30 NM from the station, each dot = 1 degree)
```
149
What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?
The pull of the vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field
150
When an a/c is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precedes and incorrectly indicate a:
Climb! (And deceleration would indicate a descent)
151
What pretakeoff check should be made of the attitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
The horizon bar should erect and become stable within 5 minutes
152
What pretakeoff check should be made of a vacuum driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
After 5 mins, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the a/c and check for proper alignment after taxi turns
153
As power is reduced to change airspeed from high to low cruise in level flight, what instruments are primary for pitch, bank and power respectively?
Pitch: Altimeter
Bank: Heading Indicator
Power: Manifold/Tachometer
154
For maintaining level flight at a constant thrust, which instrument would be the LEAST appropriate for determining the need for pitch change?
Attitude indicator
155
The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?
Power only
156
What instruments are primary for pitch, bank and power when TRANSITIONING/ENTERING into a constant airspeed climb from straight and level?
Pitch: ATTITUDE
Bank: Heading
Power: Manifold/Tachometer
157
What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed?
Airspeed!
158
What percent of the VSI should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level off from a climb/descent?
10 percent!!
159
To level off at a higher airspeed than the descent speeds, when should additional power be added?
100-150 feet above the desired altitude to be leveled off at
160
To MAINTAIN the airspeed from a descent once leveled off, the pilot should lead the desire altitude by ___ feet.
50 feet
161
What is the primary BANK instrument once a standard rate turn is established?
Turn coordinator
162
What is the primary PITCH instrument when establishing a constant altitude standard rate turn?
ALTIMETER
163
What is the initial primary and supporting bank instrument when establishing a level standard rate turn?
Primary: Attitude indicator
Supporting: Turn Coordinator
164
While recovering from unusual flight attitudes w/o the authorize indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reach when:
ASI and ALTIMETER stop their movement prior to reversal, and VSI trend is reversed
165
If an a/c's attitude indicator tumbles while in unusual flight attitudes, what instrument should be relied on to determine pitch?
ASI and Altimeter
166
During standard rate turns, which instrument is considered to be primary for bank?
Turn slip indicator or turn coordinator
167
What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by full scale deflection of the CDI?
10 degrees
168
When using VOR navigation what is considered to indicate the passage of the station?
The first positive, complete reversal of the TO/FR indicator
169
What angular deflection from a VOR is represented by 1/2 scale CDI deflection?
5 degrees!
170
After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale defection. What is the indication if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?
The a/c is flying away from the radial
171
As a guide in making range corrections, how many degrees of relative bearing change should be used for each one half mile deviation from the desired arc?
10-20 degrees
172
DME is usable:
1 or more miles away from each 1,000' above the facility
173
When tracking inbound on the localizer, what is the proper procedure regarding drift correction?
Drift correction should be established before the OM, followed by heading corrections no greater than 2 degrees
174
Why is it best to avoid thunderstorms in the dissipating stage?
Downdrafts
175
Frontal waves normally form on:
Slow moving cold fronts and stationary fronts?
176
Which is a characteristics of LLWS as it relates to low level temp inversions?
Allow airspeed to go above normal climb and approach speed??
177
When are severe weather watch (WW) bulletins issued?
Unscheduled and issued as required??
178
You're navigating on an IFR flight using GPS with RAIM. You lose RAIM, what do you do?
Report loss of RAIM to ATC and continue navigating while actively monitoring alternate means of nav????
179
What weather phenomenon poses the greatest hazards to a/c when operating near thunderstorms?
Lightning??
180
The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on:
Air temperature!!!
181
Weather variations result from:
Heating over the Earth's surface???
182
If while on an IAP, approach control advises you of inop equipment, you must:
Increase minimums to that of the inoperative equipment
183
What is the relationship between winds at 2,000' AGL and winds at the surface?
The winds at 2,000' tend to parallel the isobars, while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker
184
Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate:
Turbulence at and below the cloud level???
185
Which feature is associated with the tropopause?
Abrupt change in temp lapse rate??
186
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?
It changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil??
Causes early airflow desperation and loss of lift?
187
While airborne, what is the max variation between the 2 indicated bearings when checking 1 VOR system against another?
Idk
188
Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?
Slant range distance in NM
189
Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between ground distances to the VORTAC
High altitudes close to the VORTAC
190
For operations off established airways at 17,000' MSL H class VORTAC facilities used to define the route should be no farther than ____ NM
200 NM
191
What is the meaning of a single coded ID received only once every 30 seconds (1350 Hz) from a VORTAC?
The DME component is operative and the VOR component is INoperative
192
DME may be used in lieu of ___ on an ILS
OM
193
What is the difference between the SDF and LDA facility? (width)
```
SDF = course width 6 OR 12 degrees
LDA = course width approx. 5 degrees
```
194
What is the difference between LDA/SDF and an ILS localizer?
LDA/SDF are not aligned with the runway
195
What range facility on an ILS is identified by the LAST 2 letters of the localizer ID group?
MIDDLE compass locator (just 2 letter coded signal = Compass Locator)
196
What height is the glideslope at the MM on an ILS?
200'
197
Unauthorized IFR GPS may be used in IFR flight to:
Aid in situational awareness
198
During IFR en route and terminal operations using GPS for navigation, ground based navigation facilities:
Must be operational only if RAIM predicts an outage
199
If there is a control tower and an FSS located at the airport, what service does FSS provide when the tower is closed?
Airport Advisory Service
200
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
When departing from a runway intersection
201
What is one condition required before "timed approaches from a holding fix" may be conducted?
If more than 1 missed approach procedure is available, none may require a course reversal
202
What is true regarding STARs
They are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures
203
If you execute the missed approach before reaching the DA/MDA, you must:
Fly to the MAP at or above DA/MDA before making any turns
204
How much separation between a/c is provided on Parallel ILS approaches
1 1/2 miles
205
Where may you use a surveillance approach?
At airports for which civil radar IAP minimums have been published
206
What are the weather minimums to request a Contact Approach?
1sm flight vis, Clear of Clouds
207
At what point is a pilot expected to execute a sidestep maneuver?
As soon as possible after the runway/rwy environment is in sight
208
Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude?
Attitude Indicator, Altimeter and VSI
209
Failure of the Attitude Indicator and Heading would indicate:
A vacuum system system failure
210
To remain on the ILS glidepath, the rate of descent must be:
Increased if the ground speed is increased??
211
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that:
The ceiling is more than 5,000 ft and visibility is 5 miles or more
212
Where can wind shear associated with thunderstorms be found?
On all sides of the thunderstorm and directly under??
213
Hazardous weather meeting AIRMET or SIGMET criteria:
Must be used in conjunction with the FA to dermine hazardous weather info for the flight???
214
'VRB' indicates winds are:
6 knots of less
215
"WND" in the categorical outlook in the Aviation Area Forecast means that the wind during that period is forecast to be:
Sustained surface wind speed of 20 knots or stonger
216
In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter!
217
Your gyroscopic heading indicator has failed. You are flying heading 180 and you turn right to heading 270. As you begin the turn, you can expect the magnetic compass to:
Indicate a turn to the right!
218
What conditions are favorable for the formation of radiation fog?
Clear skies, little/no wind, small temperature/dew point spread over land
219
Which is true concerning airplane structural icing?
Airplane tailplane is a better ice collector than the wings??
220
A/c operating under IFR with TSO-C129/C196 GPS for en route navigation must also have:
The required navigation equipment for the flight
221
When using a TSO-C129/C196 GPS for en route navigation and IAPs, any required ALTERNATE airports must have:
An approved operational IAP other than GPS
222
Structural icing will most likely form on the:
TAIL
223
Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?
REIL!!!!!
224
A characteristic of the stratosphere is:
Relatively small changes in temp with an increase in altitude??
225
Why is there a note stating a temp limitation for executing this approach with Baro-VNAV equpment?
The decision altitude and final approach segment height above obstacles or terrain is unsafe when temps are lower than charter
226
The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate:
Vis less than 3 miles and/or ceiling less than 1,000'
227
Prior to using a GPS procedure or waypoint, the pilot should verify the validity of the database by:
Determining that the waypoints and transition names coincide with the names found on the procedure chart
228
When approach a fly-by waypoint/fix, you must:
Use turn anticipation to avoid over-flying the fix
229
Which condition is favorable when you experience supercooled large droplet icing?
Ice can splash on structure below +5 degrees C
230
Under which condition should a missed approach procedure be initiated if the runway environment is not in sight?
When you reach the established approach point and determine visibility is less than 1/2 mile
231
Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for pitch control in straight and level flight?
ALTIMETER
232
The 'runway hold position' sign denotes:
An entrance to a runway from a taxiway
233
A Contact Approach is an approach procedure that may be used in lieu of:
Conducting a SIAP
234
In the 2 months predeing your IFR flight you have logged 3 IAPs, intercepting and tracking courses and holding in an aviation training device. What else is required?
3 IAPs and UNUSUAL ATTITUDES in an aviation training device
235
If RAIM is not available when setting up a GPS approach, the pilot should:
Select another type of navigation and approach system
236
If only one missed approach procedure is available, which of the following conditions is required when conducting "timed approaches from a holding fix"?
The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP
237
What information, in addition to headings, does the radar controller provide w/o request during an ASR approach?
When to commence descent to MDA, the a/c's position each mile on final from the runway, and arrival at the MAP
238
When may a pilot make a straight-in landing if using an IAP having only circling minimums?
A straight in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land!
239
During a "no-gyro" approach and PRIOR to being handed off to the final approach controller, the pilot should make all turns:
Standard rate unless otherwise advised
240
After being handed off to the final approach controller during a "no-gyro" approach, the pilot should make all turns:
One half standard rate
241
How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in Class E airspace below 18,000'?
ATC periodically advises the proper altimeter setting
242
What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower than usual runway?
UPsloping runways!!
243
An abrupt change from climb to straight-and-level flight can create the illusion of:
Tumbling backwards
244
What does the RVR value depicted on some straight in IAP charts represent?
The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving a/c
245
What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?
A procedure turn is not authorized
246
How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?
IAP indicate DME/TACAN channel in LOC frequency box
247
Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?
Use the highest minimum required by any SINGLE component that is unusable
248
Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn/slip indicator to determine if the:
Needle is approximately centered and the tube is full of fluid
249
What indications should you observe on the turn/slip indicator during taxi?
The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the DIRECTION of the turn
250
An a/c that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microbust of:
90 knots
251
If squalls are reported at you destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate?
Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 15 knots to a sustained wind speed of 20 knots, lasting at least 1 minutes
252
The Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of:
SIGMETs, Convective SIGMETs, AIRMETs, AWW, and Center Weather Advisories
253
Distance from the TDZ marker to the FIxed Marker (1,000' Marker) is:
1,000'
254
The general charcteristic of the Troposphere is:
Temp DECREASES as altitude INCREASES
255
What is a characteristic of stable air?
Stratiform Clouds
256
Winds at 5,000' on a particular flight are southwesterly while surface winds are southerly. This difference in direction is due to:
Friction between the wind and the surface
257
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
STANDARD AIR TEMPERATURE
258
What should be the indication on the MC when you roll into a turn to the left from a southerly heading?
Compass will indicate a large change to an easterly heading AHEAD of the a/c's heading
