IFR Knowledge Flashcards
(160 cards)
1
Q
What are the required reports under IFR?
A
MARVELOUS VFR C500
Missed approach
Airspeed +- 10 knots or 5% change of TAS
Reaching a holding fix
VFR on top when an altitude change will be made
ETA change of +- 2 min
Leaving a holding fix
Outer marker
Unforecasted weather
Safety of flight
Vacating an altitude
Final approach fix
Radio/NAV/Equipment failure
Compulsory reporting point
500, unable to climb/descend 500 fpm
2
Q
When do we not fly a procedure turn?
A
SHARP TT
Straight in approach clearance
Holding in lieu of a PT
Arc (DME)
Radar vectors
NoPT depicted on chart
Timed approach from a hold fix
Teardrop course reversal
3
Q
When is an Instrument Rating required?
A
- When acting as PIC under instrument flight rules (IFR) or in weather conditions less than prescribed for VFR
- When carrying passengers for compensation or hire on XC flights in excess of 50 NM or at night
- For class A flight operations
- For special VFR operations between sunset and sunrise
4
Q
What is the minimum aeronautical experience to acquire an Instrument Rating?
A
- 50 hours XC as PIC
- 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time, 15 of which with a CFII (Max of 20 simulated hours not under part 142)
- One IFR filed XC flight covering 250 MN along airways or directed by ATC routing with 3 different kinds of instruments approaches (1 per airport)
- 3 hours instrument flight training in the last 2 calendar months prior to practical test
5
Q
What are the recency of experience requirements to act as PIC while under IFR (and to carry passengers)?
A
- To act as PIC conducting ANY flight operations:
Flight review consisting of 1 hour of flight training and 1 hour of ground training in the preceding 24 calendar months. - To act as PIC under IFR or below VFR minimums:
6 HITS are required to be performed and logged within the preceding 6 calendar months (6 instrument approaches, Holding procedures, Intercepting and Tracking courses using electronic NAV Systems). - To regain currency (grace period):
After 6 calendar months, you have 6 more months to regain currency by performing your 6 HITS with a safety pilot (PPL certificate, current medical, appropriate category and class rating). - If currency is not regained, an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) is required (administered by CFII, examiner, etc.)
- To carry passengers:
Day: 3 takeoff and landings in the category, class, and type in the last 90 days
Night: 3 takeoff and landings to a full stop between a time period of 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise in the category, class, and type in the last 90 days
6
Q
How do you log recent instrument experience requirements?
A
You must fly the entire approach solely by reference to instruments, either in actual or simulated instrument flight conditions. You must be establish on each required segment of the Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP) down to its published minimum (DA or MDA) unless being radar vectored by ATC to final
Log the:
- Location
- Type of instrument approach
- Name of safety pilot
7
Q
What is the preflight self assessment acronym?
A
IM SAFE
- Illness
- Medication
- Stress
- Alcohol (8/12 hours, BAC 0.04%, No side effects)
- Fatigue
- Emotion
8
Q
What is the risk management acronym?
A
PAVE
- Pilot
- Aircraft (airworthiness, equipment, performance)
- EnVironment (weather, terrain, airports)
- External pressure
9
Q
What is the decision making acronym?
A
DECIDE
- Detect a change has occurred
- Estimate the need to counter the change
- Choose a desirable outcome
- Identify solutions
- Do the necessary actions
- Evaluate
10
Q
What are the pilot’s personal documents required for flight?
A
- Current pilot certificate
- Current medical certificate
- Photo ID
11
Q
What are the aircraft’s documents required for flight?
A
ARROW
- Airworthiness certificate (Never expires)
- Registration certificate (Federal, 1 year expiration & State, 7 year expiration for IN)
- Radio station license (international flights)
- Operating limitations (AFM)
- Weight and balance data
12
Q
What are the aircraft maintenance inspections required for IFR?
A
AAV1ATES
- Airworthiness Directives (ADs)
- Annual inspection (12 calendar months)
- VOR check (every 30 days)
- 100 hour inspection (for hire)
- Altimeter / Pitot static inspection (91.411, 24 calendar months)
- Transponder inspection (91.413, 24 calendar months)
- ELT (12 calendar months, battery replaced after 1 hour continuous use or 50% of its useful battery life)
- Supplemental type certificate (KOEL, MOEL, TCDS)
13
Q
What preflight knowledge is required for an IFR flight?
A
NW KRAFT
- NOTAMS
- Weather reports and forecasts
- Known ATC delays
- Runway lengths
- Alternate airports (if applicable)
- Fuel requirements
- Takeoff and landing performance data
14
Q
When is a destination alternate required? (1-2-3 rule)
A
A destination alternate is ALWAYS required unless:
- An instrument approach is published and available for the destination AND
1. For 1 hour before and after ETA:
2. Ceiling will be at least 2000 feet above airport elevation
3. Visibility will be at least 3 SM
15
Q
What are the minimum weather conditions required at an alternate?
A
Use published minimums or
For precision approach:
- 600 foot ceiling
- 2 SM visibility
For Non precision approach:
- 800 foot ceiling
- 2 SM visibility
No instrument approach
- Ceiling and visibility must allow for decent from the MEA, approach, and landing under VFR
16
Q
What are the IFR cruising altitudes?
A
- 0° to 179°: Odd thousands (3000, 5000, 7000, etc.)
- 180° to 359°: Even thousands (4000, 6000, 8000, etc.)
17
Q
What are the IFR fuel requirements?
A
Add the following:
- Fuel from departure to destination
- Fuel from destination to farthest alternate (if alternate required)
- 45 minutes at normal cruise (1 hour for LIFT)
18
Q
What are the IFR takeoff minimums for 1-2 engine planes?
A
1 SM visibility (5000 feet runway visual range, RVR)
19
Q
What does the T in a black triangle symbol indicate?
A
Non standard T/O minimums or departure procedures exist
20
Q
What does the A in a black triangle symbol indicate?
A
Non standard IFR alternate minimums exist
21
Q
What does the A in a black triangle symbol followed by an NA indicate?
A
Alternate minimums not authorized
22
Q
What is the purpose of departure procedures? When should departure procedures be filed?
A
- Ensures obstacle clearance when standard procedures are followed:
Crossed departure end of runway at least 35 feet AGL
Reaches 400 feet AGL before turning
Climbs at least 200 feet per NM or as publish on the chart
They should be filed at night, in marginal, or IMC conditions
23
Q
How do you convert feet per nautical mile (FPNM) to feet per minute (FPM)?
A
FPM = FPNM * Ground speed / 60
24
Q
What are the types of departure procedures?
A
- Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP):
Provides obstacle clearance only
Printed either textually or graphically
Titled “OBSTACLE” - Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
Provides obstacle clearance and reduces pilot & controller workload
May include procedures for radio failures
Always published graphically
25
How are departure procedures categorized?
Categorized by required equipment:
- Non RNAV DP (VOR, DME, NDB)
- RNAV DP
- RADAR DP (ATC vectors, NAVAID, or FIX)
26
Where are departure procedures published?
DPs are published in Terminal Procedure Publication (TPP)
27
Are you required to accept a SID?
No, to avoid being assigned a SID, state "no SID" in remarks sections of flight plan
28
What is a diverse departure procedure (DDP)?
A DDP allows an IFR pilot to depart an airport without a published SID or ODP by maintaining a specific climb gradient and executing turns in any direction to clear obstacles.
29
When departing with no ODP published but the DDP criteria is met, what must a pilot do?
- Crossed departure end of runway at least 35 feet AGL
- Reaches 400 feet AGL before turning
- Continue climbing until reaching minimum IFR altitude
30
What is a diverse vector area (DVA)?
A DVA allows ATC to vector aircraft below the minimum vectoring altitude (MVA) or minimum IFR altitude (MIA) immediately after takeoff while meeting obstacle clearance requirements. Can be found in the TPP.
31
What is a visual climb over airport (VCOA)?
A VCOA is a departure option that is designed to avoid obstacles beyond the departure end of the runway (DER). It involves an IFR aircraft in VMC where the pilot visually conducts climbing turns over the airport up to the published "climb to" altitude. Can be found in the TPP.
32
What is the IFR departure checklist?
CRAFT
- Clearance limit
- Route
- Altitude
- Frequency for departure
- Transponder code
33
What is clearance void time?
The time at which your clearance is void and after which you may not takeoff. ATC must be notified within 30 minutes after the void time if you did not depart.
34
What does "hold for release" mean?
You may not takeoff until being released for IFR departure
35
What is release time?
The earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR
36
What is expect departure clearance time (EDCT)?
A runway release time given under traffic management programs at busy airports where aircrafts are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the given time.
37
What is a standard terminal arrival (STAR)?
- An ATC coded arrival procedure that serves as a transition between the enroute structure and a point from which an approach to land can be made. Can be based on conventional NAVAIDS or RNAV waypoints.
- Utilizes transition routes to connect enroute fixes to STAR procedures
- Helps to:
Reduce pilot/controller workload
Minimize radio comms
Simplify clearance delivery
- Does NOT authorize the pilot to descend
38
What is a cruise clearance?
A clearance issued by ATC that allocates an altitude block of airspace in which the pilot is free to climb and descend beginning at the minimum IFR altitude and extending to the specified altitude.
- Allows you to begin an approach without receiving "cleared for approach", but not into IMC below the minimum IFR altitudes
39
What are minimum IFR altitudes?
An altitude in which no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below, except for takeoff and landing or otherwise authorized by ATC.
- Standard Minimums:
Non mountainous: 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM horizontal distance from the course
Mountainous: 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM horizontal distance of the course
40
What is decision altitude / height (DA / DH)?
The altitude (MSL) or height (AGL above runway threshold) on a vertically guided, precision approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach to land or execute missed approach procedure
41
What is maximum authorized altitude (MAA)?
The maximum altitude authorized for IFR flight, annotated as MAA-#### on IFR charts
42
What is minimum crossing altitude (MCA)?
The lowest altitude at certain fixes that an airplane must cross when flying in the direction of the higher minimum enroute altitude (MEA)
43
What is minimum descent altitude / height (MDA / MDH)?
The lowest altitude (MSL) or height (AGL above runway threshold) to which descent is authorized on a non precision approach until the pilot sees the visual references required for landing
44
What is minimum enroute altitude (MEA)?
The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigation signal AND meets obstacle clearance requirements.
45
What is an MEA gap?
Established an area of loss of navigation coverage, annotated "MEA GAP" on IFR charts
46
What is minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA)?
The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage ONLY within 22 NM of a VOR
47
What is minimum off route altitude (MORA)?
The lowest altitude that an aircraft can fly on a route that is not a designated airway, ensuring sufficient terrain and obstacle clearance.
Types:
- Route MORA (airways)
- Grid MORA (latitude & longitude)
48
What is minimum reception altitude (MRA)?
The lowest altitude on an airway segment where intersection can be determined using radio NAV aids
49
What is minimum turning altitude (MTA)?
Provides vertical and lateral obstacle clearance in turns over fixes. Annotated with the flag with an X icon and a note
50
What is a minimum vectoring altitude (MVA)?
The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches.
51
What is off route obstacle clearance altitude (OROCA)?
The altitude that provides standard obstacle clearance but does not provide NAV or communication signal coverage.
- Standard Minimums:
Non mountainous: 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM horizontal distance from the course
Mountainous: 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM horizontal distance of the course
52
What are the 2 principles of gyroscopes?
- Rigidity in space: tendency to maintain its initial orientation, resisting changes in direction due to external forces
- Precession: a force applied to a gyroscope is felt approximately 90 degrees later in the direction of rotation
53
What are our gyroscopic instruments?
- Attitude indicator: an electrically or vacuum driven gyroscope that utilizes the principle of rigidity in space to show bank and pitch information.
- Heading indicator: an electrically or vacuum driven gyroscope that utilizes the principle of rigidity in space to show changes in heading, calibrated with the magnetic compass for correct indication.
- Turn indicator & Slip/Skid Indicator: an electrically or vacuum driven gyroscope that operates on the principle of precession to show the rate of turn and rate of roll
54
What are the errors associated with attitude indicators?
- Nose up following acceleration
- Nose down following deceleration
- Opposite indicated turn after leveling off following a 180 degree turn
55
What are our pitot static instruments?
Pitot Tube: measures the difference between ram air pressure and static air pressure
Static Port: measures static air pressure
Altimeter:
- An aneroid barometer that shows the height above a given pressure level, based on standard pressure lapse rate of 1000 feet per in/Hg
- Works via a stack of sealed aneroid wafers that expand and contract with changes in atmospheric pressure received from the static port
- Altimeter setting is set via a altimeter setting knob and then displayed in the Kollsman window
Vertical Speed Indicator:
- Indicates rate-of-change of altitude in feet per minute (FPM)
- Works via a diaphragm that is connected directly to the static source which measures the difference in static air pressure between itself and the case area outside the diaphragm which also receives static pressure via a calibrated leak
- This calibrated leak causes a 6-9 second lag in the VSI indication
Airspeed Indicator:
- Measures the difference between impact (ram) air pressure from the pitot tube and the static pressure from the static port, the resulting dynamic pressure corresponds to indicated airspeed.
- Works via a diaphragm in the instrument that receives the ram air pressure and compares it the static air pressure is the case area surrounding it.
56
What are the errors associated with the pitot-static system?
Static port blockage:
- Airspeed indicator: Indicates correctly only at the altitude in which it was blocked
Higher altitudes = lower IAS
Lower altitudes = higher IAS
- Altimeter: will freeze on the altitude in which it was blocked
- VSI: air pressure will leak out causing the VSI to freeze on zero
Pitot tube blockage (only ASI affected):
Ram air block: Airspeed indicates zero
Drain hole block: Inaccurate indications
Both blocked: air pressure is trapped inside, thus the ASI will act as an altimeter
57
What happens when an alternate static air source is used?
Initial indications:
- ASI: faster than actual
- Altimeter: higher than normal
- VSI: momentarily climb
58
What is indicated altitude?
The altitude indicated on the altimeter when set to local pressure setting
59
What is pressure altitude?
The altitude above the standard datum plane, or the theoretical level where atmospheric pressure is 29.92 in/Hg
60
What is density altitude?
Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature, utilized mainly in performance calculations.
61
What is true altitude?
The actual altitude above mean sea level (MSL)
62
What is absolute altitude?
The height above ground level
63
What is indicated airspeed?
Airspeed indicated on the ASI
64
What is calibrated airspeed?
Indicated airspeed corrected for instrument and position errors
65
What is true airspeed?
Actual airspeed through the air, or calibrated airspeed corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure
66
What is ground speed?
Actual speed over the ground, or true airspeed corrected for wind conditions
67
What does the instrument taxi check consist of?
Airspeed: 0 KIAS
Turn coordinator: ball centered and wings level when stationary. Wings turn in direction of a turn and the ball deflects opposite in a turn
Attitude: +- 5 degrees
Heading indicator: Indicates known heading
Altimeter: +- 75 feet of field elevation with correct altimeter setting
VSI: 0 fpm
Magnetic compass: swings freely, full of fluid, and indicates known heading
Glass cockpit check
68
What are the magnetic compass errors and limitations?
DV MONA
- Deviation
- Variation
- Magnetic dip
- Oscillation
- North/South turn errors (UNOS)
- Acceleration errors (ANDS)
69
What is the AHRS onboard our aircraft?
Attitude heading reference system:
System that provides our glass cockpit with more accurate and reliable attitude and heading data than traditional separate gyro systems
70
What is the ADC onboard our aircraft?
Air Data Computer:
Receives input from the pitot, static, and outside temperature ports and computes airspeeds, vertical speed, altitude, and other critical information which is then displayed on the glass cockpit.
71
What is the minimum equipment required for IFR day flight?
ATOMATOFLAMES
- Altimeter
- Tachometer
- Oil pressure gauge
- Manifold pressure gauge
- Airspeed indicator
- Temperature gauge for engine
- Oil temperature gauge
- Fuel quantity gauge
- Landing gear position lights
- Anticollision lights
- Magnetic compass
- ELT
- Safety belt
GRABCARD
- Generator / Alternator
- Radios
- Altimeter adjustable to barometric pressure
- Ball (slip/skid indicator)
- Clock (installed as part of aircraft)
- Attitude indicator
- Rate of turn indicator
- Directional gyro (heading indicator)
72
What is the minimum equipment required for IFR night flight?
ATOMATOFLAMES
- Altimeter
- Tachometer
- Oil pressure gauge
- Manifold pressure gauge
- Airspeed indicator
- Temperature gauge for engine
- Oil temperature gauge
- Fuel quantity gauge
- Landing gear position lights
- Anticollision lights
- Magnetic compass
- ELT
- Safety belt
FLAPS
- Fuses
- Landing lights
- Anticollision lights
- Position lights
- Source of electricity
GRABCARD
- Generator / Alternator
- Radios
- Altimeter adjustable to barometric pressure
- Ball (slip/skid indicator)
- Clock (installed as part of aircraft)
- Attitude indicator
- Rate of turn indicator
- Directional gyro (heading indicator)
73
What is an aircraft KOEL? What is an aircraft MEL?
Kinds of equipment list:
Tells you what needs to be working to fly
Minimum equipment list:
Tells you what can be inoperative and still fly
74
What are ADs?
Airworthiness directives:
Notices that address unsafe conditions in aircraft, engines, propellers, and appliances. They mandate specific actions to ensure continued airworthiness and safety.
75
What is a VOR
Very high frequency omnidirectional range, a ground based radio navigation aid that emits radio beacons, radials, in all directions so that pilots can determine their position relative to the station.
76
What are the limitations of a VOR?
Cone of confusion
Reverse sensing
Line-of-sight
77
What is full scale deflection of a VOR?
10 degrees
78
What are the types of VOR receiver checks?
VOT (VOR Testing facility): +- 4°
VOR Ground Checkpoint: +- 4°
VOR Air Checkpoint: +- 6°
Dual VOR: Within 4° of one another
Prominent landmark: +- 6°
79
What must be included when signing off for a VOR check?
DEPS (91.171)
Date
Error of bearing
Place
Signature
80
What is a DME?
Distance measuring equipment, ground based radio navigation technology that allows pilots to determine their slant range distance relative to the station.
81
What is the negligible slant range error for a DME?
At least 1 NM away for each 1000 feet of altitude (AGL)
82
What is an ILS and its components?
Instrument landing system, a precision runway approach that provides lateral and vertical navigation
Components:
- Localizer: provides Lateral course navigation via a localizer antenna on the far departure end of a runway that emits radio waves of 150 Hz and 90 Hz that defines that horizontal path aligned with the runway centerline by cutting it into halves. It extends to 35° on either side out to 10 miles and 10° on either side out to 18 miles.
- Glideslope: Vertical course navigation via a glideslope antenna adjacent to the touchdown point on the runway that emits radio waves of 150 Hz and 90 Hz that defines that vertical path aligned with the touchdown point by cutting it into halves. It extends up to 10 miles and can emit false glide slopes much steeper than typical (3°) so it should be intercepted from below at a prescribed altitude.
- Marker beacons: Provides distance navigation via specific points along the approach, typically:
Outer marker (4-7 miles out, blue, ---) intercepts the glideslope
Middle marker (3500 feet from runway, amber, -.-) is where glideslope intercepts DH
Inner marker (white, ...) is where glideslope intercepts DH on a CAT II approach
- Approach lighting system: Provides visible means to transition between instrument guided flight to a visual approach. Typically extends from the landing threshold into the approach area.
83
What is RNAV?
Area navigation, Allows navigation on any desired path without the need to overfly ground-based facilities because of the Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)
84
What is the GPS?
Global positioning system, a GNSS operated by the US consisting of 24-32 satellites orbiting above the earth and ground based stations.
85
How does the GPS work?
The aircraft's GPS receiver calculates the distance to a GPS satellite based on the time lapse since the broadcasted and received signal then cross references that with other satellites and ground based facilities for more accurate and precise measurements.
86
How many satellites are required for 2D, 3D, RAIM?
2D- 3 satellites
3D- 4 satellites
RAIM- 5 satellites
87
What is RAIM?
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring, a function of some GPS receivers that monitors the integrity of satellite signals. RAIM requires a minimum of 5 satellites, but 6 satellites is needed for fault exclusion, or the ability to eliminate a corrupted satellite and keep RAIM.
88
What is SBAS? What is WAAS?
Satellite Based Augmentation System:
Known in the US as Wide Area Augmentation System, a system of ground stations (reference and master) that measure GPS errors and produce correction signals which are then broadcasted back to satellites and aircraft GPS WAAS receivers to improve accuracy, integrity, and availability.
89
What is GBAS?
Ground Based Augmentation System, operates very similarly to WAAS: a system of ground stations that measure GPS errors and produce correction signals which are then broadcasted back to satellites and aircraft GPS receivers to improve accuracy, integrity, and availability but in a much smaller geographical area compared to WAAS.
90
What is PBN?
Performance Based Navigation, the general basis for navigation equipment standards for specific operation contexts.
91
What is RNP?
Required Navigation Performance, a statement of navigation equipment and service performance that specifies the level of accuracy an aircraft needs to maintain while flying a particular route or approach.
92
What are the basic attitude instrument flying skills?
Cross check
Instrument interpretation
Aircraft control
93
What are the common attitude instrument flying errors?
Fixation
Omission
Emphasis
94
What is the control and performance method?
The concept of dividing the cockpit panel by control instruments and performance instruments.
Control Instruments:
- Power (throttle, tachometer, manifold pressure)
- Attitude (attitude indicator)
Performance Instruments
- Pitch (altimeter, airspeed, VSI)
- Bank (heading, turn coordinator, magnetic compass)
95
What are the position report items required in a non-radar environment?
A PTA TEN R
Aircraft ID
Position
Time
Altitude
Type of flight plan
ETA and name of next fix
Name of succeeding point
Remarks
96
What are the holding speed restrictions?
Altitude (MSL) and max airspeed:
<6000 = 200 kts
6001 to 14000 = 230 kts
>14001 = 265 kts
97
What are the types of holding entries and how are they performed?
Direct: Upon crossing the fix turn to follow the holding pattern
Parallel: Upon crossing the fix turn to a heading parallel to the outbound holding course for 1 minute then turn into the hold pattern to intercept the inbound course
Teardrop: Upon crossing the fix, turn outbound to a heading 30° into the pattern, fly it for 1 minute then turn in the direction of the hold turns to intercept the inbound course
98
What are the non-charted holding clearance items?
Direction of hold from fix
Holding fix
Radial, course, airway, route
Leg length
Direction of turn (standard is right)
Expect further clearance time
99
What are the charted holding clearance items?
Holding fix
Direction of hold
Expect further clearance time
100
When and what do report to ATC in reference to holds?
At the holding fix, report:
"[callsign] over [place] [altitude] at [time]."
101
What are the lost communication procedures in VFR condition while on IFR flight plan?
Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable
102
What are the lost communication procedures in IMC while on IFR flight plan?
Fly the highest altitude of "MEA":
- Minimum enroute altitude
- Expected (from ATC clearance)
- Assigned (from ATC clearance)
Fly the route by this order "AVEF":
- Assigned route
- Vectors
- Expected route (from ATC clearance)
- Filed route
When to leave the clearance limit:
- Start descent and approach as close as possible to the EFC time or ETA (if no EFC)
- At EFC or clearance limit (if no EFC), proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and start the approach
103
What is a procedure turn?
A maneuver that enables:
- a course reversal
- a descent from initial approach fix
- inbound course interception
While remaining within the charted distance and complying with published altitude
104
What is the max airspeed in a procedure turn?
200 kts
105
What are the different types of instrument approaches?
Precision: lateral and vertical guidance to a decision altitude
Non-precision: lateral guide flown to a minimum decision altitude
Approach with vertical guidance (APV): a precision-like approach flown to a decision altitude with lateral and vertical guidance but does not meet precision approach standards
106
What are the types of precision approaches?
- Instrument landing system (ILS)
- Precision approach radar (PAR)
- GBAS landing system (GLS)
107
What are the types of non-precision approaches?
- VOR
- NDB
- RNAV / RNP to LNAV or LP minima
- Localizer type directional aid (LDA)
- Simplified directional facility (SDF)
- Approach surveillance radar (ASR)
108
What are the types of approaches with vertical guidance?
- RNAV/GNSS (LNAV/VNAV and LPV minima)
- LDA with glide slope
109
When can you descend to the next instrument approach segment?
When cleared for the approach and established on a segment of a published approach or route
110
What is a contact approach?
An approach requested by the pilot in lieu of an instrument approach that requires at least 1 SM ground visibility and to remain clear of clouds. Can only be done at airports with approved approach procedures. It essentially allows pilots to break out of cloud cover and land visually, even if they are still flying under IFR conditions.
111
What is a visual approach?
An approach initiated by ATC or the pilot that requires at least 1000 foot ceiling and 3 SM visibility and the pilot must have either the airport or preceding traffic in sight.
112
When should a missed approach be executed?
- Arrival at MAP or DH with insufficient visual references to runway environment
- A safe approach is not possible
- When instructed to do so by ATC
113
When can you descend below the MDA / DA?
You may descend below the minimum descent altitude/Decision altitude when these conditions are met:
- The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to landing on an intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers
- The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument procedure being used
- At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:
Approach lighting system
The threshold itself, its marking or lights
Runway end identifier lights
Visual glideslope indicator
Touchdown zone, its markings, or lights
Runway, its markings, or lights
114
What is a VDP?
- Visual descent point, a defined point on the final approach course only used for NON-PRECISION STRAIGHT IN APPROACHES from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin if adequate visual reference is establish.
- Identified by a "V" symbol on the descent profile
- If not charted, can be calculated as distance in NM from runway threshold = MDH / 300
115
What is VDA?
Visual descent angle, an ADVISORY computed glidepath from the FAF to the runway's threshold crossing height for non precision approaches, typically 3°. All published altitudes must still be complied with regardless of VDA.
116
What is class A airspace?
- Controlled airspace designated for IFR use only
- Extends from FL180 to FL600
- Airspace extends within the 48 contiguous states and Alaska
117
What is class B airspace?
- Controlled airspace surrounding the nation's busiest towered airports
- Shaped like an upside down wedding cake consisting of 2 or more layers
- Extends from the surface up to 10,000 feet MSL with floors changing based on layer
- 30 mile radius
118
What are the requirements to enter class B airspace?
- Establish and maintain 2 way radio communication
- Receive ATC clearance prior to entry
- Mode C transponder
- ADS-B Out
119
What are the VFR weather minimums for class B airspace?
3 SM visibility
Clear of clouds
120
What is class C airspace?
- Controlled airspace surrounding towered airports with a significant number of IFR operations or passenger volume
- Shaped like an upside down wedding cake consisting of 2 layers
- Extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet AGL with floor of 1200 feet AGL in shelf area
- Inner radius is 5 NM
- Combined radius is 10 NM
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What are the requirements to enter class C airspace?
- Establish and maintain 2 way radio communication
- Mode C transponder
- ADS-B Out
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What are the VFR weather minimums for class C airspace?
3 SM visibility
Distance from clouds:
- 1000 feet above
- 500 feet below
- 2000 feet horizontal
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What is class D airspace?
- Controlled airspace surrounding towered airports
- Shaped like a cylinder
- Extends from surface to 2500 feet AGL
- 4 NM radius
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What are the requirements to enter class D airspace?
- Establish and maintain 2 way radio communications
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What are the VFR weather minimums for class D airspace?
3 SM visibility
Distance from clouds:
- 1000 feet above
- 500 feet below
- 2000 feet horizontal
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What is class E airspace?
- All controlled airspace not designated as A, B, C, D (everywhere else)
- May or may not be associated with an airport (towered or untowered)
- Can extend from the surface (untowered airports), 700 feet AGL (towered airports or transition areas), 1200 feet AGL up to 17,999 feet MSL
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What are the requirements to enter class E airspace?
Below 10,000 feet MSL: None
Above 10,000 feet MSL and not below 2500 feet AGL:
- Mode C transponder
- ADS-B Out
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What are the VFR weather minimums for class E airspace?
Below 10,000 feet MSL:
3 SM visibility
Distance from clouds:
- 1000 feet above
- 500 feet below
- 2000 feet horizontal
Above 10,000 feet MSL:
5 SM visibility
Distance from clouds:
- 1000 feet above
- 1000 feet below
- 1 SM horizontal
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What is class G airspace?
- All uncontrolled airspace
- No requirements for entry
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What are the VFR weather minimums for class G airspace?
Below 1200 feet AGL:
1. Day: 1 SM visibility and remain clear of clouds
2. Night: 3 SM visibility
Distance from clouds:
- 1000 feet above
- 500 feet below
- 2000 feet horizontal
Above 1200 feet AGL to 10,000 feet MSL
1. Day: 1 SM visibility
Distance from clouds:
- 1000 feet above
- 500 feet below
- 2000 feet horizontal
2. Night: 3 SM visibility
Distance from clouds:
- 1000 feet above
- 500 feet below
- 2000 feet horizontal
Above 10,000 feet MSL:
5 SM visibility
Distance from clouds:
- 1000 feet above
- 1000 feet below
- 1 SM horizontal
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What are the maximum airspeeds in the U.S?
Above 10,000 feet MSL: Mach 1
Below 10,000 feet MSL: 250 knots
Below class B or 2500 feet AGL within 4 NM of airport in class C or D: 200 knots
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What are the special use airspaces acronym?
MCWRAPN
Military operating area
Controlled firing area
Warning area
Restricted area
Alert area
Prohibited area
National security area
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What is a MOA?
Military operating area, an area established for the purpose of separating military training activities and IFR traffic.
- Pilots under VFR may enter while exercising extreme caution
- Pilots under IFR may not enter without clearance
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What is a CFA?
Controlled firing area, an area that contains potentially hazardous activities to nonparticipating aircrafts that should be ceased when a spotter identifies an aircraft, they are not charted.
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What is a warning area?
Area that extends 3 NM outward from the coast of the U.S. or that contains activity that may be hazardous to aircrafts.
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What is a restricted area?
An area where flight is not completely prohibited but is subject to restrictions dude to hazards to aircraft thus no person may operate an aircraft in restricted area contrary to the imposed restrictions unless clearance otherwise states.
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What is an alert area?
An area meant to inform pilots of a high volume of pilot training or other unusual type of aerial activity
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What is a prohibited area?
An area where flight operations is completely prohibited unless permission is granted by an appropriate controlling agency. Exists as security to national welfare.
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What is an NSA?
National security area, a designated airspace where flight is discouraged for national security reasons, but is not prohibited
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What is an MTR?
Military training route, low altitude (typically below 10,000 feet) routes designated for military training operations in excess of 250 knots.
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What is an ADIZ?
Air defense identification zone, an area of airspace in which the ready identification, location, and control of all aircraft is required in the interest of national security.
Requirements to operate within:
- Mode C transponder
- 2 way radio communication
- Filed IFR or DVFR flight plan and depart within 5 minutes of EDT
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What is a TFR?
Temporary flight restriction, a temporary flight restriction to protect an area or provide a safe environment for an activity occurring.
VANSS
- VIP transport
- Airshow
- Natural disaster
- Sporting event
- Space operations
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What is an SFRA?
Special flight rules area, an airspace where special air traffic rules have been established
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What are the conditions required for the formation of a thunderstorm?
- Sufficient water vapor / moisture
- Unstable temperature lapse rate (atmosphere is not resistance vertical displacement)
- Uplifting force
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What are the stages of a thunderstorm lifecycle?
- Cumulus: (3-5 mile height) the lifting action in the air begins and clouds begin to vertically develop at a rate that can exceed 3000 fpm
- Mature: (5-10 mile height) begins when precipitations tarts falling from the cloud base, up and down drafts occur, and thunderstorm hazards are at their greatest intensity
- Dissipating: (5-7 mile height) cell rapidly starts dying and strong downdrafts occur
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What are some hazards of thunderstorms?
- Lightning
- Turbulence
- Up/down drafts
- Wind shear
- Icing
- Hail
- Heavy rain
- Limited visibility
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What is fog?
A cloud that begins within 50 feet of the surface
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When does fog occur?
When:
- Temperature near the ground reaches its dew point
- Dew point is raised to the existing temperature by added moisture
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What are the types of fog?
RAISU
Radiation: Calm, clear nights when ground rapidly cools
Advection: Warm, moist air moves over cold surface
Ice: Temperature is below freezing and fog occurs
Upslope: Moist, stable air is forced up terrain and cooled to dewpoint
Steam: Cold, dry air moves over warm surface
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What are the conditions necessary for structural icing to occur?
- Visible moisture
- Aircraft surface temperature below freezing
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What are the types of structural icing?
- Clear: solid sheet of clear ice that forms when water drops freeze slowly
- Rime: opaque, white, rough ice crystals formed by small supercooled water droplets freezing rapidly
- Mixed: combination of clear and rime
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What is frost and how does it form?
Ice crystals caused by deposition when both the temperature and dew point are below freezing
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What is hypoxia?
The insufficient supply of oxygen to the body cells
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What are the types of hypoxia?
Hypoxic hypoxia: Insufficient supply of oxygen to the body
Hypemic hypoxia: Inability for the body to carry sufficient oxygen molecules
Histotoxic hypoxia: Inability of the body to affectively use supplied oxygen, typically induced by alcohol or drugs
Stagnant hypoxia: Blood not flowing efficiently
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What is hyperventilation?
A condition of rapid breathing cause by a lack of carbon dioxide in the body typically occurring in anxiety or stress inducing situations. Reintroducing carbon dioxide to the breath aids in recovery
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What are the oxygen requirements for unpressurized cabins?
Above 12500 feet MSL: minimum flight crew must be provided and must use supplemental oxygen for periods of flight over 30 minutes
Above 14000 feet MSL: minimum flight crew must be provided and must use supplemental oxygen for entire duration
Above 15000 feet MSL: each occupant of the aircraft must be supplied with supplemental oxygen
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What is the middle ear and sinus blockage?
When air pressure in the middle ear gets trapped can cannot equalize normally during changes in altitude
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What are the 3 systems the body uses for spatial disorientation?
Vestibular: organs in the inner ear that sense movement
Somatosensory system: nerves, skin, muscles
Visual system: eyes and brain
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What are the most common vestibular and visual illusions
ICE FLAGS
- Inversion: An abrupt change from a climb to straight and level can create the illusion of tumbling backwards
- Coriolis: A head movement while in a prolonged turn can result in the false sensation of movement on a different axis
- Elevator: An abrupt change in vertical acceleration, caused by an up or down draft, can create the illusion of climbing or descending
- False horizon: An illusion in which the pilot may misidentify the horizon line due to sloping cloud formation, obscured horizon, or scattered lights at night
- Leans: After leveling the wings following a prolonged turn, the pilot may feel the aircraft is banked in the opposite direction of the turn
- Autokinesis: Staring at a stationary point of light in a dark featureless terrain for a prolonged period of time can cause the light to appear to be moving
- Graveyard spiral: Following a pilot experiencing "the leans" they turn back to the original direction and apply back elevator to maintain altitude (since loss of vertical component of lift occurs in turns) and can induce a spin
- Somatogravic: Rapid acceleration or deceleration can create the illusion of a nose up or nose low attitude respectively
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What are the optical illusions associated with flying?
Runway width:
Narrower than typical: Creates the illusion of flying a higher than normal approach
Wider than typical: Creates the illusion of flying a lower than normal approach
Runway slope:
Upslope: Creates the illusion of flying a higher than normal approach
Downslope: Creates the illusion of flying a lower than normal approach
