IFR Knowledge Flashcards

Question

How are departure procedures categorized?

Answer 1

Categorized by required equipment: - Non RNAV DP (VOR, DME, NDB) - RNAV DP - RADAR DP (ATC vectors, NAVAID, or FIX)

Answer 2

Terminal Procedure Publication (TPP)

Answer 3

No, to avoid being assigned a SID, state "no SID" in remarks sections of flight plan. However you must accept an ODP if prescribed in order to comply with obstacle clearance.

Answer 4

A DDP allows an IFR pilot to depart an airport without a published SID or ODP

Answer 5

Proceed with standard departure procedures: - Crossed departure end of runway at least 35 feet AGL - Reaches 400 feet AGL before turning - Continue climbing until reaching minimum IFR altitude

Answer 6

A DVA allows ATC to vector aircraft below the minimum vectoring altitude (MVA) or minimum IFR altitude (MIA) while meeting obstacle clearance requirements. Can be found in the TPP.

Answer 7

A VCOA is a departure option that is designed to avoid obstacles beyond the departure end of the runway (DER). It involves an IFR aircraft in VMC where the pilot visually conducts climbing turns over the airport up to the published "climb to" altitude. Can be found in the TPP.

Answer 8

CRAFT - Clearance limit - Route - Altitude - Frequency for departure - Transponder code

Answer 9

The time at which your clearance is no longer valid and after which you may not takeoff. ATC must be notified within 30 minutes after the void time if you did not depart.

Answer 10

You may not takeoff until being released by ATC for IFR departure

Answer 11

The earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR

Answer 12

A release time where aircrafts are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the given time.

Answer 13

- An arrival procedure that serves as a transition between the enroute structure and an approach - Helps to: Reduce pilot/controller workload Minimize radio comms Simplify clearance delivery - Does NOT authorize the pilot to descend

Answer 14

A clearance issued by ATC that allocates an altitude block of airspace for an aircraft to cruise in.

Answer 15

An altitude in which no person may operate an aircraft below in IFR flight, except for takeoff and landing or otherwise authorized by ATC. - Standard Minimums: Non mountainous: 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM horizontal distance from the course Mountainous: 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM horizontal distance of the course

Answer 16

The altitude (MSL) or height (AGL above runway threshold) on a vertically guided, precision approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach to land or execute missed approach procedure

Answer 17

The maximum altitude authorized for IFR flight, annotated as MAA-#### on IFR charts

Answer 18

The lowest altitude at a fix that an airplane must cross when flying in the direction of the higher enroute altitude.

Answer 19

The lowest altitude (MSL) or height (AGL above runway threshold) to which descent is authorized on a non precision approach until the pilot sees the visual references required for landing

Answer 20

The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigation signal AND meets obstacle clearance requirements.

Answer 21

An area of loss of navigation coverage, annotated "MEA GAP" on IFR charts

Answer 22

The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage ONLY within 22 NM of a VOR

Answer 23

The lowest altitude that an aircraft can fly on a route that is not a designated airway, ensuring sufficient terrain and obstacle clearance. Types: - Route MORA (airways) - Grid MORA (latitude & longitude)

Answer 24

The lowest altitude on an airway segment where the aircraft can reliably receive navigation signals

Answer 25

Provides vertical and lateral obstacle clearance in turns over fixes. Annotated with the flag with an X icon and a note

Answer 26

The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller

Answer 27

The altitude that provides standard obstacle clearance but does not provide NAV or communication signal coverage. - Standard Minimums: Non mountainous: 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM horizontal distance from the course Mountainous: 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM horizontal distance of the course

Answer 28

- Rigidity in space: tendency to resist changes in direction due to external forces - Precession: a force applied to a gyroscope is felt approximately 90 degrees ahead in the direction of rotation

Answer 29

- Attitude indicator: an electrically or vacuum driven gyroscope that utilizes the principle of rigidity in space to show bank and pitch information. - Heading indicator: an electrically or vacuum driven gyroscope that utilizes the principle of rigidity in space to show changes in heading, calibrated with the magnetic compass for correct indication. - Turn indicator & Slip/Skid Indicator: an electrically or vacuum driven gyroscope that operates on the principle of precession to show the rate of turn and rate of roll

Answer 30

- Nose up following acceleration - Nose down following deceleration - Opposite indicated turn after leveling off following a 180 degree turn

Answer 31

Pitot Tube: measures ram air pressure Static Port: measures static air pressure Altimeter: - An aneroid barometer that shows the height above a given pressure level, based on standard pressure lapse rate of 1000 feet per in/Hg - Works via a stack of sealed aneroid wafers that expand and contract with changes in atmospheric pressure received from the static port - Altimeter setting is set via a altimeter setting knob and then displayed in the Kollsman window Vertical Speed Indicator: - Indicates rate-of-change of altitude in feet per minute (FPM) - Works via a diaphragm that is connected directly to the static source which measures the difference in static air pressure between itself and the case area outside the diaphragm which also receives static pressure via a calibrated leak - This calibrated leak causes a 6-9 second lag in the VSI indication Airspeed Indicator: - Measures the difference between impact (ram) air pressure from the pitot tube and the static pressure from the static port, the resulting dynamic pressure corresponds to indicated airspeed. - Works via a diaphragm in the instrument that receives the ram air pressure and compares it to the static air pressure is the case area surrounding it.

Answer 32

Static port blockage: - Airspeed indicator: Indicates correctly only at the altitude in which it was blocked Higher altitudes = lower IAS Lower altitudes = higher IAS - Altimeter: will freeze on the altitude in which it was blocked - VSI: air pressure will leak out causing the VSI to freeze on zero Pitot tube blockage (only ASI affected): Ram air block: Airspeed indicates zero Drain hole block: Inaccurate indications Both blocked: air pressure is trapped inside, thus the ASI will act as an altimeter

Answer 33

Initial indications: - ASI: faster than actual - Altimeter: higher than normal - VSI: momentarily climb

Answer 34

The altitude indicated on the altimeter when set to local pressure setting

Answer 35

The altitude above the standard datum plane (the theoretical level where atmospheric pressure is 29.92 in/Hg)

Answer 36

Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature, utilized mainly in performance calculations.

Answer 37

The actual altitude above mean sea level (MSL)

Answer 38

The height above ground level

Answer 39

Airspeed indicated on the ASI

Answer 40

Indicated airspeed corrected for instrument and position errors

Answer 41

Actual airspeed through the air, or calibrated airspeed corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure

Answer 42

Actual speed over the ground, or true airspeed corrected for wind conditions

Answer 43

Airspeed: 0 KIAS Turn coordinator: ball centered and wings level when stationary. Wings turn in direction of a turn and the ball deflects opposite in a turn Attitude: +- 5 degrees Heading indicator: Indicates known heading Altimeter: +- 75 feet of field elevation with correct altimeter setting VSI: 0 fpm Magnetic compass: swings freely, full of fluid, and indicates known heading Glass cockpit check

Answer 44

DV MONA - Deviation - Variation - Magnetic dip - Oscillation - North/South turn errors (UNOS) - Acceleration errors (ANDS)

Answer 45

Attitude heading reference system: System that provides our glass cockpit with more accurate and reliable attitude and heading data than traditional gyro systems

Answer 46

Air Data Computer: Receives input from the pitot, static, and outside temperature ports and computes airspeeds, vertical speed, altitude, and other critical information which is then displayed on the glass cockpit.

Answer 47

ATOMATOFLAMES - Altimeter - Tachometer - Oil pressure gauge - Manifold pressure gauge - Airspeed indicator - Temperature gauge for engine - Oil temperature gauge - Fuel quantity gauge - Landing gear position indicator - Anticollision lights - Magnetic compass - ELT - Safety belt GRABCARD - Generator / Alternator - Radios - Altimeter adjustable to barometric pressure - Ball (slip/skid indicator) - Clock (installed as part of aircraft) - Attitude indicator - Rate of turn indicator - Directional gyro (heading indicator)

Answer 48

ATOMATOFLAMES - Altimeter - Tachometer - Oil pressure gauge - Manifold pressure gauge - Airspeed indicator - Temperature gauge for engine - Oil temperature gauge - Fuel quantity gauge - Landing gear position lights - Anticollision lights - Magnetic compass - ELT - Safety belt FLAPS - Fuses - Landing lights - Anticollision lights - Position lights - Source of electricity GRABCARD - Generator / Alternator - Radios - Altimeter adjustable to barometric pressure - Ball (slip/skid indicator) - Clock (installed as part of aircraft) - Attitude indicator - Rate of turn indicator - Directional gyro (heading indicator)

Answer 49

Kinds of equipment list: Tells you what needs to be working to fly Minimum equipment list: Tells you what can be inoperative and still fly

Answer 50

Airworthiness directives: Notices that address unsafe or potentially hazardous conditions in a type of aircraft. They mandate specific actions to ensure continued airworthiness and safety.

Answer 51

Very high frequency omnidirectional range, a ground based radio navigation aid that emits radio beacons, radials, in all directions so that pilots can determine their position relative to the station.

Answer 52

Cone of confusion Reverse sensing Line-of-sight

Answer 53

10 degrees

Answer 54

VOT (VOR Testing facility): +- 4° VOR Ground Checkpoint: +- 4° VOR Air Checkpoint: +- 6° Dual VOR: Within 4° of one another Prominent landmark: +- 6°

Answer 55

DEPS (91.171) Date Error of bearing Place Signature

Answer 56

Distance measuring equipment, ground based radio navigation technology that allows pilots to determine their slant range distance relative to the station.

Answer 57

At least 1 NM away for each 1000 feet of altitude (AGL)

Answer 58

Instrument landing system, a precision runway approach that provides lateral and vertical navigation Components: - Localizer: provides Lateral course navigation via a localizer antenna on the far departure end of a runway that emits radio waves of 150 Hz and 90 Hz that defines that horizontal path aligned with the runway centerline by cutting it into halves. It extends to 35° on either side out to 10 miles and 10° on either side out to 18 miles. - Glideslope: Vertical course navigation via a glideslope antenna adjacent to the touchdown point on the runway that emits radio waves of 150 Hz and 90 Hz that defines that vertical path aligned with the touchdown point by cutting it into halves. It extends up to 10 miles and can emit false glide slopes much steeper than typical (3°) so it should be intercepted from below at a prescribed altitude. - Marker beacons: Provides distance navigation via specific points along the approach, typically: Outer marker (4-7 miles out, blue, ---) intercepts the glideslope Middle marker (3500 feet from runway, amber, -.-) is where glideslope intercepts DH Inner marker (white, ...) is where glideslope intercepts DH on a CAT II approach - Approach lighting system: Provides visible means to transition between instrument guided flight to a visual approach. Typically extends from the landing threshold into the approach area.

Answer 59

Area navigation, Allows navigation on any desired path without the need to overfly ground-based facilities because of the Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)

Answer 60

Global positioning system, a global navigation satellite system operated by the US consisting of 24-32 satellites orbiting above the earth and ground based stations.

Answer 61

The aircraft's GPS receiver calculates the distance to a GPS satellite based on the time lapse between the broadcasted and received signal then cross references that with other satellites and ground based facilities for more accurate and precise measurements.

Answer 62

2D- 3 satellites 3D- 4 satellites RAIM- 5 satellites, 6 for fault exclusion

Answer 63

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring, a function of some GPS receivers that monitors the integrity of satellite signals. RAIM requires a minimum of 5 satellites, but 6 satellites is needed for fault exclusion, or the ability to exclude a corrupted satellite’s data and keep RAIM capabilities.

Answer 64

Satellite Based Augmentation System: Known in the US as Wide Area Augmentation System, a system of ground stations (reference and master) that measure GPS errors and produce correction signals that are broadcasted back to geostationary satellites which send the data to aircraft GPS WAAS receivers to improve accuracy, integrity, and availability.

Answer 65

WAAS reference stations compare received GPS data to their known position, identifying any errors in the GPS data. WAAS master stations then collect this data from reference stations and then generate WAAS messages containing correction information. These messages are sent to geostationary satellites which broadcast the correction information to WAAS enabled GPS receivers in aircrafts.

Answer 66

Ground Based Augmentation System, operates very similarly to WAAS but in a much smaller geographical area compared to WAAS.

Answer 67

Performance Based Navigation, basis for navigation equipment standards

Answer 68

Required Navigation Performance, level of accuracy required by an aircraft while flying a particular route or approach.

Answer 69

RNP approach: 0.3 to 1.0 NM lateral accuracy RNP terminal: 1.0 NM lateral accuracy RNP enroute: 2.0 NM lateral accuracy

Answer 70

Cross check Instrument interpretation Aircraft control

Answer 71

Fixation Omission Emphasis

Answer 72

The concept of dividing the cockpit panel by control instruments and performance instruments. Control Instruments: - Power (throttle, tachometer, manifold pressure) - Attitude (attitude indicator) Performance Instruments - Pitch (altimeter, airspeed, VSI) - Bank (heading, turn coordinator, magnetic compass)

Answer 73

A PTA TEN R Aircraft ID Position Time Altitude Type of flight plan ETA and name of next fix Name of succeeding point Remarks

Answer 74

Altitude (MSL) and max airspeed: <6000 = 200 kts 6001 to 14000 = 230 kts >14001 = 265 kts

Answer 75

Direct: Upon crossing the fix turn to follow the holding pattern Parallel: Upon crossing the fix turn to a heading parallel to the outbound holding course for 1 minute then turn into the hold pattern to intercept the inbound course Teardrop: Upon crossing the fix, turn outbound to a heading 30° into the pattern, fly it for 1 minute then turn in the direction of the hold turns to intercept the inbound course

Answer 76

H LEDDR Holding fix Length of leg Expected further clearance time Direction of hold from fix Direction of turn Radial/Course

Answer 77

HED Holding fix Expect further clearance time Direction of hold

Answer 78

At the holding fix, report: "[callsign] over [place] [altitude] at [time]."

Answer 79

Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable

Answer 80

Fly the highest altitude of "MEA": - Minimum enroute altitude - Expected (from ATC clearance) - Assigned (from ATC clearance) Fly the route by this order "AVEF": - Assigned route - Vectors - Expected route (from ATC clearance) - Filed route When to leave the clearance limit: - Start descent and approach as close as possible to the EFC time or ETA (if no EFC) - At EFC or clearance limit (if no EFC), proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and start the approach

Answer 81

A maneuver that enables: - a course reversal - a descent from initial approach fix - inbound course interception While remaining within the charted distance and complying with published altitude

Answer 82

Precision: lateral and vertical guidance to a decision altitude Non-precision: lateral guide flown to a minimum decision altitude Approach with vertical guidance (APV): a precision-like approach flown to a decision altitude with lateral and vertical guidance but does not meet precision approach standards

Answer 83

- Instrument landing system (ILS) - Precision approach radar (PAR) - GBAS landing system (GLS)

Answer 84

Anything with an MDA - VOR - NDB - RNAV / RNP to LNAV or LP minima - Localizer type directional aid (LDA) - Simplified directional facility (SDF) - Approach surveillance radar (ASR)

Answer 85

- RNAV/GNSS (LNAV/VNAV and LPV minima) - LDA with glide slope

Answer 86

When cleared for the approach and established on a segment of a published approach or route

Answer 87

An approach requested by the pilot in lieu of an instrument approach that requires at least 1 SM ground visibility and to remain clear of clouds. Can only be done at airports with approved approach procedures. It essentially allows pilots to break out of cloud cover and land visually, even if they are still flying under IFR conditions.

Answer 88

A approach based on visual reference initiated by ATC or the pilot that requires: - at least 1000 foot ceiling - 3 SM visibility - airport or preceding traffic in sight

Answer 89

- Arrival at MAP or DA with insufficient visual references to runway environment - A safe or stable approach is not possible - When instructed to do so by ATC

Answer 90

You may descend below the minimum descent altitude / Decision altitude when these conditions are met: - Flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed - Aircraft is continuously in a stable position to land - Visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: Approach lighting system (but not within 100 ft of TDZE if ALS is sole reference) The threshold itself, its marking or lights Runway end identifier lights Visual glideslope indicator Touchdown zone, its markings, or lights Runway, its markings, or lights

Answer 91

- Visual descent point, a point on the final approach course (ONLY NON-PRECISION STRAIGHT IN APPROACHES) from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin if adequate visual reference is establish. - Identified by a "V" symbol on the descent profile - If not charted, can be calculated as distance in NM from runway threshold = MDH / 300

Answer 92

Visual descent angle, an ADVISORY glidepath from the FAF to the runway's threshold for non precision approaches, typically 3°. All published altitudes must still be complied with regardless of VDA.

Answer 93

- Controlled airspace designated for IFR use only - Extends from FL180 to FL600 - Airspace extends within the 48 contiguous states and Alaska

Answer 94

- Controlled airspace surrounding the nation's busiest towered airports - Shaped like an upside down wedding cake consisting of 2 or more layers - Extends from the surface up to 10,000 feet MSL with floors changing based on layer - 30 mile radius

Answer 95

- Establish and maintain 2 way radio communication - Receive ATC clearance prior to entry - Mode C transponder - ADS-B Out - private pilot certificate

Answer 96

3 SM visibility Clear of clouds

Answer 97

- Controlled airspace surrounding towered airports with a significant number of IFR operations or passenger volume - Shaped like an upside down wedding cake consisting of 2 layers - Extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet AGL with floor of 1200 feet AGL in shelf area - Inner radius is 5 NM - Combined radius is 10 NM

Answer 98

- Establish and maintain 2 way radio communication - Mode C transponder - ADS-B Out

Answer 99

3 SM visibility Distance from clouds: - 1000 feet above - 500 feet below - 2000 feet horizontal

Answer 100

- Controlled airspace surrounding towered airports - Shaped like a cylinder - Extends from surface to 2500 feet AGL - 4 NM radius

Answer 101

- Establish and maintain 2 way radio communications

Answer 102

3 SM visibility Distance from clouds: - 1000 feet above - 500 feet below - 2000 feet horizontal

Answer 103

- All controlled airspace not designated as A, B, C, D (everywhere else) - May or may not be associated with an airport (towered or untowered) - Can extend from the surface (untowered airports), 700 feet AGL (towered airports or transition areas), 1200 feet AGL up to 17,999 feet MSL

Answer 104

Below 10,000 feet MSL: None Above 10,000 feet MSL and not below 2500 feet AGL: - Mode C transponder - ADS-B Out

Answer 105

Below 10,000 feet MSL: 3 SM visibility Distance from clouds: - 1000 feet above - 500 feet below - 2000 feet horizontal Above 10,000 feet MSL: 5 SM visibility Distance from clouds: - 1000 feet above - 1000 feet below - 1 SM horizontal

Answer 106

- All uncontrolled airspace - No requirements for entry

Answer 107

Below 1200 feet AGL: 1. Day: 1 SM visibility and remain clear of clouds 2. Night: 3 SM visibility Distance from clouds: - 1000 feet above - 500 feet below - 2000 feet horizontal Above 1200 feet AGL to 10,000 feet MSL 1. Day: 1 SM visibility Distance from clouds: - 1000 feet above - 500 feet below - 2000 feet horizontal 2. Night: 3 SM visibility Distance from clouds: - 1000 feet above - 500 feet below - 2000 feet horizontal Above 10,000 feet MSL: 5 SM visibility Distance from clouds: - 1000 feet above - 1000 feet below - 1 SM horizontal

Answer 108

Above 10,000 feet MSL: Mach 1 Below 10,000 feet MSL: 250 knots Below class B or 2500 feet AGL within 4 NM of airport in class C or D: 200 knots

Answer 109

MCWRAPN Military operating area Controlled firing area Warning area Restricted area Alert area Prohibited area National security area

Answer 110

Military operating area, an area established for the purpose of separating military training activities and IFR traffic. - Pilots under VFR may enter while exercising extreme caution - Pilots under IFR may not enter without clearance

Answer 111

Controlled firing area, an area that contains potentially hazardous activities to nonparticipating aircrafts that should be ceased when a spotter identifies an aircraft, they are not charted.

Answer 112

Area that extends 3 NM outward from the coast of the U.S. or that contains activity that may be hazardous to aircrafts.

Answer 113

An area where flight is not completely prohibited but is subject to restrictions dude to hazards to aircraft thus no person may operate an aircraft in restricted area contrary to the imposed restrictions unless clearance otherwise states.

Answer 114

An area meant to inform pilots of a high volume of pilot training or other unusual type of aerial activity

Answer 115

An area where flight operations is completely prohibited unless permission is granted by an appropriate controlling agency. Exists as security to national welfare.

Answer 116

National security area, a designated airspace where flight is discouraged for national security reasons, but is not prohibited

Answer 117

Military training route, low altitude (typically below 10,000 feet) routes designated for military training operations in excess of 250 knots.

Answer 118

Air defense identification zone, an area of airspace in which the ready identification, location, and control of all aircraft is required in the interest of national security. Requirements to operate within: - Mode C transponder - 2 way radio communication - Filed IFR or DVFR flight plan and depart within 5 minutes of EDT

Answer 119

Temporary flight restriction, a temporary flight restriction to protect an area or provide a safe environment for an activity occurring. VANSS - VIP transport - Airshow - Natural disaster - Sporting event - Space operations

Answer 120

Special flight rules area, an airspace where special air traffic rules have been established

Answer 121

- Sufficient water vapor / moisture - Unstable temperature lapse rate (> 2° C per 1000 ft change in altitude) - Uplifting force

Answer 122

- Cumulus: (3-5 mile height) the lifting action in the air begins and clouds begin to vertically develop at a rate that can exceed 3000 fpm - Mature: (5-10 mile height) begins when precipitations tarts falling from the cloud base, up and down drafts occur, and thunderstorm hazards are at their greatest intensity - Dissipating: (5-7 mile height) cell rapidly starts dying and strong downdrafts occur

Answer 123

- Lightning - Turbulence - Up/down drafts - Wind shear - Icing - Hail - Heavy rain - Limited visibility

Answer 124

A cloud that begins within 50 feet of the surface

Answer 125

When the temperature and dew point converge near the surface: - Temperature near the ground reaches its dew point - Dew point is raised to the existing temperature by added moisture

Answer 126

USAIR Upslope: Moist, stable air is forced up terrain and cooled to dewpoint Steam: Cold, dry air moves over warm surface Advection: Warm, moist air moves over cold surface Ice: Temperature is below freezing and fog occurs Radiation: Calm, clear nights when ground rapidly cools

Answer 127

- Visible moisture - Surface of structure temperature below freezing

Answer 128

- Clear: solid sheet of clear ice that forms when water drops freeze slowly - Rime: opaque, white, rough ice crystals formed by small supercooled water droplets freezing rapidly - Mixed: combination of clear and rime Severities: - trace: noticeable but not significant - light: accumulation is problematic if prolonged exposure - moderate: short encounters can be hazardous, requires anti/de icing equipment - extreme: anti/de icing equipment fails to reduce or control hazard

Answer 129

Ice crystals caused by deposition when both the temperature and dew point are below freezing

Answer 130

The insufficient supply of oxygen to the body

Answer 131

3 H’S Hypoxic hypoxia: Insufficient supply of oxygen to the body Hypemic hypoxia: Inability for the body to carry sufficient oxygen molecules in the blood Histotoxic hypoxia: Inability of the body to affectively use supplied oxygen, typically induced by alcohol or drugs Stagnant hypoxia: Blood not flowing efficiently thus sufficient oxygen is not being supplied

Answer 132

A condition of rapid breathing cause by a lack of carbon dioxide in the body typically occurring in anxiety or stress inducing situations. Reintroducing carbon dioxide to the breath aids in recovery

Answer 133

Above 12500 feet MSL: minimum flight crew must be provided and must use supplemental oxygen for periods of flight over 30 minutes Above 14000 feet MSL: minimum flight crew must be provided and must use supplemental oxygen for entire duration Above 15000 feet MSL: each occupant of the aircraft must be supplied with supplemental oxygen

Answer 134

When air pressure in the middle ear gets trapped can cannot equalize normally during changes in altitude

Answer 135

Vestibular: organs in the inner ear that sense movement Somatosensory system: nerves, skin, muscles Visual system: eyes and brain

Answer 136

ICE FLAGS - Inversion: An abrupt change from a climb to straight and level can create the illusion of tumbling backwards - Coriolis: A head movement while in a prolonged turn can result in the false sensation of movement on a different axis - Elevator: An abrupt change in vertical acceleration, caused by an up or down draft, can create the illusion of climbing or descending - False horizon: An illusion in which the pilot may misidentify the horizon line due to sloping cloud formation, obscured horizon, or scattered lights at night - Leans: After leveling the wings following a prolonged turn, the pilot may feel the aircraft is banked in the opposite direction of the turn - Autokinesis: Staring at a stationary point of light in a dark featureless terrain for a prolonged period of time can cause the light to appear to be moving - Graveyard spiral: Following a pilot experiencing "the leans" they turn back to the original direction and apply back elevator to maintain altitude (since loss of vertical component of lift occurs in turns) and can induce a spin - Somatogravic: Rapid acceleration or deceleration can create the illusion of a nose up or nose low attitude respectively

Answer 137

Runway width: Narrower than typical: Creates the illusion of flying a higher than normal approach Wider than typical: Creates the illusion of flying a lower than normal approach Runway slope: Upslope: Creates the illusion of flying a higher than normal approach Downslope: Creates the illusion of flying a lower than normal approach

Answer 138

Legs are increased to one and a half minutes

Answer 139

1800WXBRIEF (standard, abbreviated, outlook) FSS AWC

Answer 140

NEXRAD (displayed on MFD): delayed 15-30 min FIS-B (displayed on MFD) FSS ATIS/AWOS/ASOS Your eyes / Other pilots / ATC

Answer 141

Severe weather observations hazardous to general aviation aircrafts. Valid for 6 hours. Types: - Sierra: Visibility/IFR conditions - Tango: Turbulence - Zulu: Icing

Answer 142

Severe non-convective weather observations hazardous to ALL aircrafts, basically more severe AIRMETs. Valid for 4 hours. Conditions: - Severe icing - Severe turbulence - Dust and sand storms - Volcanic ash - Hurricanes

Answer 143

A weather observation of convective activity spanning greater than 35 NM. Valid for 2 hours. Conditions: - Squall line thunderstorms - Embedded thunderstorms - Thunderstorms producing heavy precipitation - Tornados - Hail ( >3/4 inch diameter) - Surface winds ( >50 kts)

Answer 144

High pressure systems Atmosphere is resistant to vertical motion in the air - Smooth - Steady precipitation (associated with stratus clouds) - Low visibility

Answer 145

Low pressure systems Atmosphere is not resistant to vertical motion in the air - Turbulent - Showery precipitation (associated with cumulus clouds) - Good visibility

Answer 146

- Clockwise - Outward - Downward

Answer 147

- Counter clockwise - Inward - Upward

Answer 148

West to East

Answer 149

Lines on a prog chart that connect areas of equal pressure

Answer 150

There is a significant change in pressure in a short distance (strong pressure gradient) and indicates a potential change in wind direction and/or strength.

Answer 151

Cold front (plow): fast moving, unstable Warm front (blanket): slow moving, stable Stationary: does not move, characteristics of both Cold Occluded: a faster moving, colder cold front sandwiches a warm front in between another cold front Warm Occluded: a faster moving, warmer cold front sandwiches a warm front in between another cold front

Answer 152

An area of extended high pressure

Answer 153

An area of extended low pressure

Answer 154

Differences in temperature and pressure and their tendency to try to equalize

Answer 155

3° to - 30° C

Answer 156

If possible 180 turn and exit If possible descend to warmer altitude or climb out of visible moisture Declare emergency, land ASAP - Fly approach faster and do not use flaps

IFR Knowledge Flashcards

(182 cards)