IFR Law Flashcards
(111 cards)
1
Q
What are the speed limitations in a holding pattern?
A
- up to and including FL140
– 230 kt, or
– 170 kt for holding where the approach is limited to Cat A and B aircraft only;
- above FL140 up to and including FL200, 240 kt; and
- above FL200, 265 kt.
NOTE: Above the highest MSA in turbulent conditions speeds may be increased to the lesser of 280 KIAS or Mach 0.8 subject to ATC approval in controlled areas (CTA
2
Q
When does timing begin in a hold?
A
Timing begins abeam the fix or on attaining the outbound heading, whichever comes later.
3
Q
How long must the outbound leg of a hold be?
A
The outbound leg must be no longer than:
- Up to and including FL140 – 1 minute or the time or distance limit specified on the chart.
- Above FL140 – 1.5 minutes or the time or distance limit specified on the chart.
4
Q
What angle of bank should be used in a hold?
A
All turns in nil wind should be at a bank angle of 25 degrees or Rate One, which-ever requires the lesser bank.
5
Q
To what extent must wind be compensated for in a hold?
A
Allowance should be made in heading and timing to compensate for the effects of wind to ensure the inbound track is regained before passing the holding fix inbound.
6
Q
What is the heading flexibility in a sector entry?
A
The entry into the holding pattern must be according to heading in relation to the three entry sectors shown below, recognizing a zone of flexibility of 5 degrees on either side of the sector boundaries. For holding on a VOR intersection, the entry track is limited to the radials forming the intersection.
7
Q
How long may an aircraft track outbound on a sector 2 entry for?
A
Track outbound for the appropriate period of time from the holding fix, where timing is specified, up to a maximum of 1 minute and 30 seconds; or, if earlier
- until the appropriate limiting DME distance is attained, where distance is specified
8
Q
Describe the privileges of an instrument rating
A
May pilot an aircraft under the IFR and NVFR for which you have a class rating.
9
Q
State the limitations of an instrument rating, including proficiency checks and recent experience requirements
A
May exercise the Privileges of an Instrument Rating if:
The aircraft is equipped for instrument operations
If single pilot, a flight test or IPC was completed in a single pilot aircraft
o Conducting a circling approach, has conducted a flight test or IPC (OPC under the IFR) in the last 12 months which included a circling approach
An IPC for the category & class of aircraft is valid if, in the last 12 months a pilot has passed:
o an IPC (if in last 3 months of validity then new expiry is twelve months from the end of the original month of expiry)
o Flight test for instrument endorsement if >6 months after pass month (IPC)
o Participate in cyclic training (only valid for operations with company {CASR 61.880[4B]}
o A flight test for an initial instrument rating
10
Q
State limitations for the conduct of a flight under the IFR in a type rated aircraft
A
Recent IFR experience is satisfied if:
If in the previous 3 months an OPC is carried out; or
3 IAP operations in 90 days
Single pilot IFR requires 1 IFR flight/sim ≥1hr + 1 approach as single pilot every 6 months
For conduct of an Instrument Approach in IMC;
o Have previously conducted an IAP on the navigation system of that kind.
o Have conducted an IAP at least once in the last 90 days of that type;
1 x 2D Approach in 90 days
1 x 3D Approach in 90 days
1 x CDI Approach in 90 days
1 x Azimuth Approach in 90 days
A pilot may pilot an aircraft under the IFR if in the previous 90 days if they have flown at least one instrument approach in that category of aircraft or approved flight simulator
11
Q
What are the NVFR Recency requirements
A
NVFR Recency
3 take off and landings in the last 90 days for passenger carrying flights (1 for PVT);
1 hour flown under the NVFR in the last 12 months
If NVFR rating is a condition of an instrument rating then all IFR currency must be met for it to be current
12
Q
What is the standard holding pattern direction?
A
Right
13
Q
List the documents that must be carried on an IFR flight
A
Aircraft: MR, Cert of airworthiness, AFM, Cert of registration.
Pilot: Licence, medical, charts for operation
14
Q
What four requirements must navigation aids meet?
A
Navigation systems have to meet these requirements for aviation:
Accuracy: the aircrafts position can be determined with a sufficient level of precision;
Integrity: timely warnings are provided when the system fails or becomes degraded;
Continuity: the ability of the system to function without unscheduled interruptions;
Availability: the proportion of time that the system can be expected to provide reliable navigation
15
Q
What is the radio failure procedure under the IFR?
A
IFR radio failure procedures in any airspace
Squawk 7600
Listen to ATIS
Transmit blind
(Unless strong reasons dictate otherwise):
In VMC:
o Remain in VMC and land at most suitable aerodrome
In IMC:
o Proceed in accordance with latest ATC route clearance acknowledged
If a restriction was acknowledged:
Maintain last assigned level, or MSA if higher, for 3 minutes; &/or
Hold at nominated location for 3 minutes; then
Proceed IAW last route clearance acknowledged and climb to planned level
If being vectored
Maintain last vector for 2 minutes; &
Climb to MSA; then
Proceed IAW last route clearance acknowledged
If holding
Fly one more complete holding pattern; then
Proceed IAW last route clearance acknowledged
Track to destination IAW flight plan
o Commence descent as normal to the initial approach altitude for the most suitable approach; &
o Carry out approach to the circling minima
If visual at the circling minima
circle to land; or
If cleared to land on a runway aligned approach, continue approach
If not visual at circling minima
Depart for a suitable aerodrome; or
If aerodrome information indicates runway approach is available, continue to appropriate minima.
If sufficient fuel is carried to divert, pilot may hold or carry out approaches until visual
16
Q
When must ATC be notified of a change in ETA?
A
When ETA changes by more than two minutes
17
Q
What are the reporting requirements for a departure, cruise, descent, approach and landing at an aerodrome outside controlled airspace?
A
Taxiing
Departure
Reaching cruising level
Position report at prescribed and nominated points
Before changing level
Changing frequency
When a report from an IFR flight is made to ATS via HF, a broadcast on the appropriate CTAF or
area VHF is also required.
Departure:
The pilot of an IFR aircraft operating from a non-controlled airport must attempt to contact ATS on VHF or HF when taxiing. If the pilot is unable to establish contact, the flight may proceed on a broadcast basis provided contact is established as soon as possible after take-off, and:
a. in the case of an RPT, CHTR or AWK flight, the pilot is assured of radio contact with his or her operator, or a representative of his or her operator who has immediate access to a serviceable telephone, until contact is made with ATS; or
b. for flights other than RPT, a SARTIME for departure has been established with a maximum of 30 minutes from EOBT
When established on the departure track, and clear of the circuit traffic, the pilot-in-command must report departure to ATC unless instructed otherwise.
- 4.3 This report must include the following information:
a. departure time;
b. outbound track in degrees magnetic;
c. intended cruising level; and
d. the estimate for the first enroute reporting point. - 4.3.1 The departure time must be reported as follows:
a. current time minus an adjustment for the distance from the airport; or
b. when over or abeam the airport.
NOTE: Outbound track is not required in surveillance environments where identification is expected from ATC on departure.
6.4.4 If the pilot transmits the departure report before intercepting the departure track the report must include advice that the pilot is manoeuvring to intercept departure track.
Cruise:
The pilot-in-command of an IFR flight MUST notify the intention to amend route, deviate from track or change level in sufficient time for ATS to advise traffic.
When a position estimate changes by more than two (2) minutes the pilot MUST advise ATS.
Pilots must give ATS notice of an impending position report by use of the word “position”; e.g., “MELBOURNE CENTER (call sign) POSITION”. Pilots MUST wait for the ATS instruction before reporting position.
Pilots MUST report maintaining an assigned level.
After any enroute frequency change, a pilot-in-command of an IFR flight MUST advise present level. If the aircraft is not at its planned cruising level, the pilot MUST also provide advice of the level to which the aircraft is being climbed.
Descent:
Before descending from controlled into Class G airspace and before separation with any aircraft operating near the base of controlled airspace can be compromised, the pilot in command of an IFR flight MUST report position, level, intentions and estimate for next position/destination to the ATS unit providing services in Class G airspace. If the report is made using HF radio, a broad-cast must be made on the appropriate area VHF frequency
A pilot of an IFR flight must report when changing to the CTAF when the ATS frequency will not, or cannot, be monitored. This report must include the aerodrome location and frequency.
6.6.3 Pilots of IFR flights conducting local training, an instrument approach or a holding pattern, may extend their SAR watch by an “OPERATIONS NORMAL” call at scheduled times.
Approach and Landing:
CTAF calls as necessary and should be by 10nm.
Cancel SARWATCH on Area VHF.
18
Q
What are the errors associated with altimeters?
A
Simple altimeters use a single evacuated capsule to determine static pressure. Sensitive altimeters use multiple capsules which gives greater sensitivity for small changes in pressure. Servo altimeters use electrically calibrated signals from an Air Data Computer and have increased accuracy at all levels.
Blockage: when static source is blocked pressure in instrument will remain constant at level blocked.
Instrument Error: Small irregularities in the mechanism which tend to increase in effect in height; unavoidable.
Pressure Error: Air flow over the static head creates a false static pressure. Not significant at low altitude and low speed especially when static vents are on the fuselage. At high speed static pitot systems are at the front so as the bow wave passes at about Mach 1.0 the error decreases to a small value. Air data computers compensate for pressure error.
Time Lag: the response between capsules and linkages is not instantaneous and therefore the altimeter needle lags when height (pressure) rapidly changes. A servo altimeter virtually eliminates time lag.
Hysteresis Error: under stress a capsule does not deflect correctly for a given pressure change. It occurs when an aircraft initiates a large, rapid altitude change or an abrupt level-off from a rapid climb or descent. It takes a period of time for the aneroids to catch up with the new pressure environment.
Barometric Error: the pressure on the subscale does not match that of the actual atmosphere.
Temperature Error: the temperature used to derive QNH setting does not match that of the actual temperature. Plus ISA under reads, Minus ISA over reads. E.g. Lapse rate is not 2⁰ per 1000‟.
Rule of Thumb for correction is 4% of indicated Height AGL on local QNH per 10⁰C of ISA variation; 4% of indicated Altitude AMSL on Area QNH per 10⁰C of ISA variation.
True Altitude worked accurately = PH against OAT to find Calibrated Altitude then minus ELV and read against True Altitude
19
Q
What is the Difference between the minimum altitude MDA and DA when published on an instrument approach chart and the pilot responsibilities.
A
Decision altitude (DA) is a specified altitude in an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to initiate an immediate missed approach if the pilot does not see the required visual reference, or to continue the approach. Decision altitude is expressed in feet above mean sea level.
Decision height (DH) is a specified height above the ground in an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to initiate an immediate missed approach if the pilot does not see the required visual reference, or to continue the approach. Decision height is expressed in feet above ground level.
Minimum descent altitude (MDA) is the lowest altitude specified in an instrument approach procedure, expressed in feet above mean sea level, to which descent is authorized on final approach or during circle-to-land maneuvering until the pilot sees the required visual references for the heliport or runway of intended landing
20
Q
How long is a flight plan valid for once submitted to ATC?
A
24 hours from EOBT
21
Q
What are the pilots responsibilities when cancelling SAR
A
When cancelling SARWATCH, pilots must include:
a. the aircraft radio call sign;
b. place of arrival or point from which SARWATCH services are no longer required;
c. the words “CANCEL SARWATCH”; and
d. when communicating with a unit other than that nominated, the name of the ATS unit to which the report shall be relayed.
6. 11.1.3 SARWATCH may be cancelled in combination with a pilot report of changing to the CTAF, or in the circuit area, or after landing.
6. 11.1.4 When the pilot of an IFR flight elects not to report in the circuit area to cancel SARWATCH and has not reported within 10 minutes of ETA, ATS will commence communications checks to obtain a landing report or an extension of SARWATCH
22
Q
When must a pilot conduct a missed approach?
A
Go around from a visual approach in VMC, the aircraft must initially climb on runway track, remain visual and await instructions from ATC
Missed Approach Procedure in VMC, the aircraft must carry out the published instrument missed approach procedure for the instrument approach being flown, unless ATC directs otherwise.
A missed approach must be executed if:
a. during the final segment of an instrument approach, the aircraft is not maintained within the applicable navigation tolerance for the aid in use; or
b. during an instrument approach and below the MSA (as specified on the approach chart), the performance of the radio aid becomes suspect or the radio aid fails;
b. i. loss of RAIM or RAIM warning is indicated at any time after passing the Initial Approach Fix; or
c. visual reference is not established at or before reaching the MAPT or DA/RA Height from which the missed approach procedure commences; or
d. a landing cannot be effected from a runway approach, unless a circling approach can be conducted in weather conditions equal to or better than those specified for circling; or
e. visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach.
NOTE 1: For the purpose of this paragraph “visual reference” means the runway threshold or approach lights or other markings identifiable with the landing runway clearly visible to the pilot, and either:
a. for circling approaches, clear of cloud, in sight of the ground or water and with a flight visibility not less than the minimum specified for circling; or
b. for runway approaches, a flight visibility or runway visual range not less than that specified for the procedure.
NOTE 2: The missed approach is designed to provide a minimum obstacle clearance of 100 ft to an aircraft climbing along the specified missed approach path at a gradient of 2.5% (152 ft/NM) from the MAPT or DA/RA Height from which the missed approach procedure commences. If this missed approach climb gradient cannot be achieved, the DA, MDA or RA Height should be increased, or other action taken, to achieve the required obstacle clearance along the specified missed approach flight path.
- 10.2 In executing a missed approach, pilots must follow the missed approach procedure specified for the instrument approach flown. In the event that a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the MAP, pilots must fly the aircraft to the MAP and then follow the missed approach procedure.
- 12.1 If a loss of RAIM or RAIM warning is indicated at any time after passing the Initial Approach Fix, the pilot must immediately carry out a missed approach in accordance with published procedures.
- 12.2 Provided the RAIM warning ceases when the missed approach is selected on the GPS receiver, the GPS may be used for missed approach guidance.
- 12.3 Should the RAIM warning remain when the missed approach is selected, or should there be any doubt about the accuracy of the GPS, then an alternative means of guidance or dead reckoning must be used to fly the missed approach.
23
Q
What are the procedures for operating PAL?
A
- Transmit pulse must be between 1 and 5 SECS.
- Three pulses must be transmitted within 25 SECS. Ensure that the third pulse ends before the 25th second.
- Break between transmissions can be more or less than 1 SEC – (no limit)
Lights to illuminate for a minimum of 30 MINS. If not
– keep transmitting 3 SEC pulses
– check frequency
AFRU PAL
Three pulses within 5 seconds
24
Q
What are the principles of operation and limitations of runway visual approach slope lighting systems used in Australia?
A
PAPI
A PAPI installation consists of a set of four light boxes placed in a line at right angles to the runway, abeam the touchdown point and usually on the left hand side. Each box radiates both red and white light. The transition between the white and red will appear instantaneous to the pilot (3 minutes of arc change); however, light changes between adjacent boxes will not occur unless the approach slope changes by about 0.25 deg. A one degree progressive incremental spread from the outermost 3.5* to the innermost 3.5* light unit about the standard approach angle 3*
25
What are the Pilot responsibilities for compliance with a SID?
SIDs (procedural and radar) are procedures to be followed until the aircraft reaches the LSALT for intercepting the flight planned route.
SIDs may be flown by aircraft already airborne provided that, before commencing a SID, the pilot visually positions the aircraft on the runway centerline so that all tracking and altitude requirements can be met.
SID procedures assume that pilots will not compensate for wind effects when being radar vectored, but will compensate for known or estimated wind effects when flying departure routes which are expressed as tracks.
Standard SID gradient is 3.3% and not designed for OEI performance. An additional gradient, indicated by a figure in brackets may be included. This additional gradient, based on an airspace requirement, should be flown by aircraft required to remain in controlled airspace.
SID diagrams are not drawn to scale, bearings are magnetic and altitude requirements are referenced to QNH
When a departure report is required during a SID, the SID identifier must be included in the report.
For a Radar SID, the direction of turn and assigned heading must be advised in the air-borne report.
Average bank angle is 15\* and max turning speed is 290kt
26
What are the pilot responsibilities for a STAR?
Prior to issuing a STAR clearance, ATC shall advise the pilot that “STAR clearance is availa-ble”, unless the pilot has been advised by the preceding controller to “Expect STAR clearance” on first contact.
STARs will normally be issued prior to commencement of descent to permit pilots to plan for any vertical navigation requirements or speed restrictions.
For flights that have included PBN/T1 in Field 18 of the flight notification form, ATC will auto-matically issue a STAR with an RN PAR termination where available (e.g., LIZZI ONE UNI-FORM), or an expectation of an RNP AR approach where there is no applicable STAR, except as follows:
a. The pilot requests an alternative approach.
b. Traffic sequencing requirements.
c. There is no RNP AR approach published for the particular runway or approach track.
Where there is more than one RNP AR approach for a particular runway, ATC will determine the approach to be used based on traffic sequencing and/or separation requirements.
A STAR may be commenced at any point from a transition fix to the arrival fix.
A pilot must read back to ATC the STAR identifier and any transition runway and termination procedure specified in the STAR clearance.
The pilot-in-command must advise ATC if cleared via a STAR which requires the use of navigation aids not available to the aircraft
Where a STAR incorporates circuit legs to a runway, pilots of aircraft not equipped with a flight management system may have difficulty with navigation on the STAR. Where this is the case, the pilot in command should accept the STAR clearance and request vectors when contact-ing Approach Control; e.g., “REQUEST VECTORS FROM [waypoint or fix]”.
The STAR speed requirement of 250 KIAS maximum below 10,000 ft must be complied with unless amended by ATC. A speed restriction greater than 250 KIAS issued above 10,000 ft does not vary this requirement. A speed less than 250 KIAS imposed above 10,000 ft must be com-plied with throughout the STAR procedure. ATC may cancel STAR speed requirements either by individual instructions; e.g., “CANCEL STAR SPEED RESTRICTIONS”, or by general advice on the ATIS; e.g., “STAR SPEED RESTRICTIONS DO NOT APPLY”.
ATC may hold or vector an aircraft after a STAR clearance has been issued
27
What are the pilot responsibilities for Noise abatement?
Noise Abatement Procedures shall normally apply to all jet propelled aircraft and other air-craft having a MTOW exceeding 5700kg
SID and STARS comply with noise abatement procedures.
Where noise abatement procedures are prescribed, and ATC traffic management permits, the runway nomination provisions published on NOISE charts will be applied. Not withstanding this, noise abatement will not be a determining factor in runway selection under the following cir-cumstances (unless required by Noise Abatement legislation):
a. In conditions of low cloud, thunderstorms and/or poor visibility;
b. For runway conditions that are completely dry:
1. when the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds 20 kt;
2. when the downwind component, including gusts, exceeds 5 kt;
c. For runway conditions that are not completely dry:
1. when the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds 20 kt;
2. when there is a downwind component;
d. When wind shear has been reported;
e. When, in the opinion of the pilot-in-command, safety would be prejudiced by runway condi-tions or any other operational consideration
The power settings to be used subsequent to the failure or shutdown of an engine or any other apparent loss of performance, at any stage in the take-off or noise abatement climb, are at the discretion of the pilot-in-command, and noise abatement considerations no longer apply.
28
What are the pilot responsibilities for a Missed approach?
In executing a missed approach, pilots must follow the missed approach procedure specified for the instrument approach flown. In the event that a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the MAP, pilots must fly the aircraft to the MAP and then follow the missed approach procedure. The MAP in a procedure may be:
a. the point of intersection of an electronic glide path with the applicable DA; or
b. a navigation facility; or
c. a fix; or
d. a specified distance from the Final Approach Fix (FAF)
A published missed approach procedure must not be flown unless commenced at the MAP. If a missed approach climb is initiated before the MAP, the aircraft must track to the MAP before commencing the missed approach procedure
When the instrument procedure is based on a radio navaid but the missed approach does not specify lateral guidance the expectation is that the pilot will use DR to achieve the nomi-nated track. Allowance for wind must be made to make-good this nominated track
A missed Approach Provides obstacle clearance of 100' at a gradient of 2.5%. If this missed approach climb gradient cannot be achieved, the DA, MDA or RA Height should be increased, or other action taken, to achieve the required obstacle clearance along the specified missed approach flight path.
Obstacle Clearance Altitude is the lowest altitude at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with obstacle clearance criteria.
Must be executed if:
Aircraft exceeds navigation tolerance during the final approach segment
o Jeppessen do not specify the tolerance. Tolerances are applied in a test or SOP
o GNSS, VOR, ILS/LOC or GLS - half scale deflection
o NDB - 5°; or
During the approach and below MSA the navigation aid becomes suspect or fails
o GNSS – loss of RAIM/RAIM warning after the IAF
GPS may be used for guidance in the missed approach if warning stops after selecting it, otherwise use DR; or
Visual reference is not established at or before MAP/DA/RH; or
A landing cannot be effected; or
Visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach
Missed Approach is complete once reaching the Published altitude
29
What are the pilot responsibilities for transponder operation?
The Aircraft Identification entered into the Mode S Transponder, or ADS–B Transmitter, must match the Aircraft Identification entered into Item 7 of the Flight Notification or, when no flight notification has been filed, the aircraft registration. Hyphens or symbols may not be used within the identification.
Pilots wishing to receive a SIS must be in direct VHF communications with ATC and equipped with a serviceable SSR transponder or ADS–B transmitter.
Aircraft may continue to operate with unserviceable DME and GNSS equipment in Class G. In controlled airspace, where ATC uses radar as the primary means of separating aircraft, operation with unserviceable DME and GNSS is permitted if the aircraft is fitted with a serviceable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Transponder.
VFR CLASS G: 1200
IFR CLASS G: 2000
IFR & VFR CTA: 3000
MAYDAY: 7700
RADIO OUT: 7600
Hijacking: 7500
Must be set to ON/ALT at all times.
30
What are the requirements for obtaining meteorological information to conduct a flight under the IFR?
flights away from the vicinity of an aerodrome, flights over water and all IFR flights, must make a careful study of current weather reports and forecasts for the route to be flown and the aerodromes to be used.
A forecast must be either:
a. a flight forecast;
b. an area forecast (below FL200); or
c. SIGWX forecast (above A100).
An aerodrome forecast for the destination is also needed and, when required, the alternate aerodrome. For a flight to a destination for which a prescribed instrument approach procedure does not exist, the minimum requirement is an Area Forecast.
For flights for which a forecast is required and cannot be obtained, the flight is permitted to depart provided the pilot is satisfied that the weather at the departure point will permit the safe return of the flight within one hour of departure. The flight is permitted to continue provided a suit-able forecast is obtained for the intended destination within 30 minutes after departure.
For flights to a destination for which an aerodrome forecast is required and cannot be obtained or is “provisional”, the flight is permitted to depart, provided an alternate aerodrome meeting all the requirements specified in Alternate Aerodromes paragraph is provided
Charter, Airwork and Private operations under VFR at night must not be conducted unless the forecast indicates that the flight can be conducted in VMC at not less than 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 10 NM either side of track.
A pilot-in-command must ensure that the forecasts cover the period of the flight and that the aerodrome forecasts for the destination and alternate aerodromes, to be nominated in the flight plan, are valid for a period of not less than 30 minutes before and 60 minutes after the planned ETA.
When a flight is delayed so that the meteorological and operational information does not cover the period of flight, updates must be obtained, as necessary, to allow the flight to be concluded safely
When preflight briefing is obtained more than one hour prior to EOBT, pilots should obtain an update before each departure to ensure that the latest information available can be used for the flight.
31
Given air temperature in clear air or in cloud, determine approximate height of freezing level, using a temperature lapse rate of 3°C per 1,000 ft in clear air and 1.5°C in cloud.
Elv 1500'
ISA -3
Cloud base 2000 AGL
5500 AMSL
32
Given pilot observations, either in clear air or in cloud, of the following phenomena — turbulence, precipitation, temperature, cloud type predict the probability and likely duration of the following:
(a) airframe icing;
(b) hail;
(c) micro bursts and wind shear;
(d) turbulence (including CAT
(a) airframe icing;
Rime ice - small droplets in stratiform (except nimbo) clouds between -10 & -20 C
Clear ice - large droplets in cumuliform and alto/nimbostratus between 0 & -15C
(b) hail; found in large Cb. Requires strong up draughts, ergo turbulence. Likely in TS at higher altitude.
(c) micro bursts; within the vicinity of TS, squalls and virga. Strong winds lasting about 15 minutes affecting aircraft low to the ground.
Wind shear; a change in wind velocity may occur when passing through an inversion.
Low level jet stream; when air circulating off a high hits a mountain range and is accelerated into a narrow stream along the range. A surface inversion must be present to eliminate surface friction.
(d) turbulence; Convective turbulence, caused by rising air, as found below cumuliform clouds.
Mechanical turbulence is created from wind blowing over surface obstructions. Worst in the rotor zone (beneath wave crests) in a stable atmosphere with fast wind and large features.
Frontal turbulence is wind shear at the boundary of two air masses at different temperature (density)
33
What sources are available for obtaining a forecast in flight?
AERIS, VOLMET, AWIS, ATIS, AVFAX, METBRIEF, HF, Area VHF,
34
What is Volmet?
Automated HF broadcast of METAR and TTF when available. Advice on SIGMET availability.
35
What are the minimum meteorological conditions required for take off?
6.3.2 The take-off minima for a qualifying multi-engine airplane are:
a. a ceiling of zero feet; and
b. visibility of:
1. 550m – but only if the following conditions are complied with:
– the runway must have illuminated edge lighting at spacing intervals not exceeding 60m, and centreline lighting or centreline markings; and
– if the airport is a non-controlled airport, or a controlled airport without ATC in operation – the take-off must be conducted by day only, and the airport must be one at which carriage of radio is mandatory; or
2. 800m.
6.4
TAKE-OFF MINIMA FOR OTHER IFR AEROPLANES
6. 4.2 The take-off minima for the airplane are:
a. a ceiling of 300 ft; and
b. visibility of 2000m.
It is a condition of the use of the take-off minima in this section that the pilot in command of the airplane must ensure that:
a. if a return to land at the departure airport will be necessary in the event of an engine failure –
the meteorological conditions must be at or above instrument approach and landing minima for the airport or such as to allow a visual approach; and
b. if engine failure occurs at any time after V1, lift-off, or encountering non-visual conditions –
terrain clearance is assured until reaching either enroute LSALT or departure airport MSA;
and
c. if a return to the departure airport is not possible – the airplane’s performance and fuel availability
must each be adequate to enable the airplane to proceed to a suitable airport, having regard to terrain, obstacles and route distance limitations.
For a qualifying multi engine aircraft;
1. 2 pilot operated; or
2. a single pilot operated jet airplane; or
3. a single pilot operated propeller airplane with operative auto feather; and
b. for an airplane with a MTOW exceeding 5700kg – the airplane is able to meet the relevant
obstacle clearance requirements of CAO 20.7.1B; and
c. for an airplane with a MTOW not exceeding 5700kg:
1. the gross climb gradient performance is at least 1.9% under ambient conditions with the loss of the most critical engine; and
2. the airplane engine-out climb gradient under ambient conditions specified in the manu-facturer’s data is at least 0.3% greater than the obstacle free gradient for the runwaylength required; and
3. the pilot in command uses published obstacle free gradients only if such gradients are surveyed to at least a distance of 7500m from end of TODA; and
NOTE: All runways with strip widths of 150m or greater are surveyed to 7500m unless otherwise annotated.
36
What are valid sources of QNH?
Actual - ATS, AWIS, ATIS, Approved Met Observer (valid for 15 mins)
Forecast - TAF3, TAF, ARFOR (+50' to MDA)
37
What are a pilots obligations for reporting variations to forecast meteorological conditions?
Whenever conditions experienced are significantly above or below those forecast, AIREP should be submitted. AIREP includes temperature, wind and turbulence and is made on request, climb-out, approach or on reporting points.
38
When is an alternate required?
Alternates (ATC Airports & Ground Aids: Alternates)
Alternates Could Very Well Prove Life Savers
Aids
Alternate isn't required if:
• Destination has an instrument approach procedure (Night & Day); OR,
arrival is by day &
o Forecast indicates ≤ SCT cloud below LSALT for the last route segment + 500’ &;
o Visibility is ≥8km
• For PVT & AWK: aircraft has a receiver for 1 approach at the destination
• For RPT & CHT: the aircraft can suffer the failure of 1 airborne receiver
o NB: a TSO 145/6a is considered a receiver if data base is current and no RAIM FDE outages are forecast
Airservices prediction is more accurate than a box check
NVFR flights must provide for an alternate within one hour flight time if the destination isn't served by an NDB/VOR
Cloud
Alternate is required if:
• Arrival is during the currency of, or within 30 min of forecast of \>SCT cloud below the alternate minimum
NB: Special Alternate Minima may be used provided the aircraft is equipped with two independent ILS/VOR receivers, a METAR/SPECI service is available and the tower is open
Visibility
Alternate is required if:
• Arrival is during the currency of, or within 30 min of forecast of visibility less than the alternate minima or weather phenomenon reducing the visibility below the alternate minima
NB: Special Alternate Minima may be used provided the aircraft is equipped with two independent ILS/VOR receivers, a METAR/SPECI service is available and the tower is open.
Wind
• Crosswind or downwind component more than the maximum for the aircraft (gusts to be considered)
Prov/Prob
Alternate is required if:
• a TAF is Provisional or not available for an aerodrome with a published approach
• If an INTER or TEMPO is affixed with a PROB then it is to be assumed that it will occur.
Lighting
Alternate isn’t required if:
• Portable with a responsible person; or
• Electric with standby power; or
• PAL with standby and a responsible person; or
• Fuel to hold until BOD + 10min
NB: the alternate for RPT passenger carrying aircraft ≥ 3500kg or aircraft with single VHF communication may only have PAL if there is a responsible person in attendance. In any other case PAL is acceptable without a responsible person provided the aircraft is equipped with two VHF’s or a VHF & HF plus 30min holding to alert ground staff of a VHF failure.
NB: at a controlled aerodrome with a partial lighting failure, pilots will be notified of a doubled spacing of runway edge lights. In less than VMC this imposes a requirement to apply a factor of 1.5 to the published minimum visibility being used.
Storms
• Any probability of Thunder Storms or their associated turbulence forecast for arrival will require an alternate
If a TAF3 is used then no buffer is required within the first 3 hours, nor is the requirement to consider a probability of TS or visibility reductions below the alternate minima.
39
Where can information on traffic holding be found?
Jeppesen Reference:
ATC - General Flight Procedures - Fuel Requirements - Holding Fuel - Traffic Holding
40
What is the latest diversion time to an alternate?
Must plan to land at the alternate with fixed reserve in tact as alternates mustn't require an alternate.
41
When flying under Night / Day VFR, what is the alternate minimum?
1500' AGL by day and night
8km vis
42
Determine the RNP requirements for an IFR flight
Under PBN, common Australian
operational navigation specifications
will be:
» RNP 2—en route
» RNP 1—for Standard Instrument
Departures (SIDs), and Standard Terminal
Arrival Routes (STARs)
» RNP–APCH—LNAV approach
(Under GNSS-RNAV, these were en route,
terminal, and non-precision approach.
In order to meet RNP an aircraft with a standalone GNSS must have RAIM. The GNSS must be TSO approved/installed and the pilot qualified to use it.
43
What is the minimum obstacle clearance criteria for a missed approach?
2.5% climb gradient with at least 100' obstacle clearance
44
What is the minimum obstacle clearance provided by the circling altitude for both day and night?
The OCA for Cat B is 300'.
The OCA for Cat C is 400'
The minimum MDA for a circling area is 492'
By day an aircraft may manoeuvre within the circling area at OCA.
By night it must remain at the MDA until it intercepts a constant profile to land.
OCA may not be descended below until established on final
The MDA is derived from the highest point in the circling area for the category plus the OCA
The circling area is defined by arcs around the thresholds of usable runways joined by tangential lines
The arcs are determined by the circling speed with +\-25 knot winds in the turn at the lesser of rate one or 20 degrees angle of bank. Circling TAS is at ISA+15 at 2000' MSL
45
When must an aircraft establish itself on track after departure?
5nm
46
How can an MDA be revised to ensure the missed approach gradient will be achieved in low performance operations?
height required to be gained from MDA to MSA x actual climb gradient / 2.5
47
When must an aircraft establish itself above MSA/LSALT after departure.
CASR 91.305 – Minimum heights – IFR flights AIP GEN 3.3 Para 4 – Calculation of Lowest Safe Altitude (Jepp ATC – Climb and Cruise 3.6.4)
1.3.6.1 Obstacle/terrain avoidance while below the LSALT or MSA, as applicable, is a pilot responsibility except when an aircraft has been assigned a level
using ATS surveillance service terrain clearance procedures until:
the pilot is assigned the responsibility for maintaining such clearance visually, or
a visual or instrument approach is commenced.
An aircraft may be flown along a route segment at a height less than the LSALT:
(a) during take-off or landing; or
(b) during arrival or departure, if the aircraft is being flown
(i) at a safe height above the terrain; and
(ii) in accordance with any instructions published in AIP; or
(c) during an authorised instrument departure procedure or authorised instrument approach procedure; or
(d) if the aircraft is being flown by day in V.M.C.; or
(e) if the aircraft is being flown in accordance with instructions from air traffic control.
48
What are the visual approach requirements?
| (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.19)
By Day:
• within 30nm
• Clear of cloud and in sight of ground or water
• IFR, remain not less than 500’ above CTA LL
• IFR & VFR, operate not below lowest permissible for VFR flight
By Night:
• Clear of cloud and in sight of ground or water
• Not less than 500’ above CTA LL unless under ATS surveillance, not below assigned altitude; until
o In the circling area; or
o 5 NM on/above slope on T-VASIS or PAPI (7 NM if runway equipped with ILS/GLS)
o 10 NM if established on/above ILS/GLS glide path with less than full scale azimuth deflection (14 NM on Sydney 34L/16L)
• VFR, not less than lowest permissible for VFR flight until within 3 NM of airport and airport is in sight
49
When can an aircraft descend below the circling MDA?
Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.16.6
Descent below MDA may occur when:
• Within the circling area
• Maintain specified visibility along flight path
• Maintain visual contact with runway environment
• By night or day (preferred); can complete a continuous decent from downwind, base or final from not below MDA in normal circuit to the threshold not below obstacle clearance until aligned with the runway; or
• By day only; remain visually clear of obstacles not below obstacle clearance until aligned with the runway
50
What are the position fixing requirements for IFR?
After making allowance for possible tracking errors of +/-9° from the last positive fix, the aircraft will come within the rated coverage of a radio aid which can be used to fix the position of the aircraft.
The maximum time interval between positive fixes must not exceed two (2) hours
May fix position between two Navigation aids not less than 45 degrees apart (if using two NDB's, they must both be no more than 30nm from aircraft.
Visual reference to the ground or water by day; or
GNSS position.
When operating VFR on top, position fixes must be made every 30 minutes.
51
How are aircraft categorised and what implications do they have under the IFR?
Categorised by their Vat speeds (Vso multiplied
by 1.3 ), they are limited to certain speeds in holding patterns, approaches and missed approaches.
Determines the obstacle clearance during a circling approach
Some approaches are Cat A and B only
An aircraft:
a. may not reduce category because of reduced operating weight, but
b. must increase category when actual handling speeds are in excess of those for category
(based on V) detailed
subject to CASA approval an aircraft may operate at a lower category
52
What requirements apply to the IAF?
Speed and tracking tolerances as per category
An aircraft which is not required to hold or to lose height in a holding pattern may commence the approach without entering the holding pattern if:
a. in controlled airspace, ATC has cleared the aircraft for the approach;
b. in any airspace, for procedures using radio navaids:
1. the reversal procedure entry requirements are satisfied; or
2. the DME arc entry requirements are satisfied; or
3. the enroute track to the procedures commencement fix or facility is within 30 degrees either side of the first track of the procedure; or
c. for procedures using GNSS:
1. in any airspace, the aircraft is tracking to an initial approach waypoint from within the capture region for that waypoint, or
NOTE: The first track of a GNSS procedure must be joined using the tracking guidance provided by the GNSS receiver.
2. in controlled airspace, the aircraft is being vectored to intercept the initial approach seg-ment or is tracking direct to the intermediate fix.
NOTE: “direct to” clearances may be requested to the intermediate fix (IF) provided that the resultant change at the IF does not exceed 45°
The initial approach fix is a fly by waypoint which marks the commencement of the initial approach segment. Reversal and racetrack procedures as well as holding pattern descents are considered initial segments until the aircraft is established on the intermediate approach track.
The angle of intersection between the initial approach track and the intermediate track should not exceed 120°. When the angle exceeds 70°, a radial, bearing, radar vector or DME information providing at least 4 km (2 NM) of lead shall be identified to assist in leading the turn onto the intermediate track.
The initial approach segment has no standard length. The length shall be sufficient to permit the altitude change required by the procedure. The width is divided into:
a) a primary area which extends laterally 4.6 km (2.5 NM) on each side of the track; and
b) a secondary area which adds an additional 4.6 km (2.5 NM) on each side of the primary area
The obstacle clearance in the initial approach primary area shall be a minimum of 300 m (984 ft). In the secondary area, 300 m (984 ft) of obstacle clearance shall be provided at the inner edge, reducing linearly to zero at the outer edge.
The optimum descent gradient in the initial approach is 4.0 % Where a higher descent gradient is necessary to avoid obstacles, the maximum permissible is 8.0%
Racetrack procedures are used where sufficient distance is not available in a straight segment to accommodate the required loss of altitude and when entry into a reversal procedure is not practical.
53
What requirements apply to the FAF?
On an ILS:
The final approach segment contains a fix at which the glide path/altimeter relationship should be verified. If the check indicates an unexplained discrepancy, the ILS/GLS approach should be discontinued.
Pilots must conform to:
a pilot should commence a missed approach if LOC/GLS is full scale deflection.
Speed and tracking tolerances as per category
54
How is PEC applied to a DA?
Pressure error is taken from the altimeter correction chart in section five of the AFM and applied to the DA.
In any event, all DA must be adjusted to determine an AOM which accounts for aircraft pressure error. Operators may apply aircraft Pressure Error Correction (PEC) or, alternatively, add at least 50 ft to the published DA. Compensation for aircraft pressure error is not required when determining AOM for non-precision approaches.
55
What is the normal gradient in each segment when designing an instrument approach procedure?
Initial - 4% OCA 968'
Intermediate - level segment up to 5.2% OCA 492'
Final - 5.2%
The OCA/H for a straight-in, non-precision approach where the angle between the track and the extended runway centre line does not exceed 5 degrees shall provide the following minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) over the obstacles in the final approach area:
a) 75 m (246 ft) with FAF; and
b) 90 m (295 ft) without FAF.
The OCA/H shall also ensure that missed approach obstacle clearance is provided.
56
What are the tracking tolerance requirements for avoiding CTA?
AVOIDING CONTROLLED AIRSPACE 5.11.1
Unless an appropriate clearance has been obtained, the pilot in command of an aircraft operating in Class “G” airspace, or a VFR aircraft operating in Class “E” airspace, must not allow the aircraft to enter:
a. airspace for which ATC clearance is required; or
b. an active restricted area.
NOTE 1: Aircraft within controlled airspace or a restricted area may be operating up to the boundary of the airspace.
NOTE 2: For aircraft operating in close proximity to an airspace boundary where there is a risk of an airspace infringement, the pilot in command should consider obtaining a clearance to enter the airspace or altering track to remain well clear.
57
What are the tracking tolerance requirements for utilising ground based navigation aids?
TRACK KEEPING
Tolerances are applied to tracks to assess containment areas for the purposes of ensuring navigational integrity, separation from other aircraft, terrain and obstacle clearance, and avoidance of specified airspaces. Although allowing for errors inherent in the navigation systems used, these tolerances are based on the assumption that the pilot will maintain track as closely as possible.
5.4.2 The pilot-in-command must, at all times, take positive action to regain track as soon as a deviation from the correct track is recognized.
58
What are the tracking tolerance requirements when navigation aids are not available?
Maintain track as closely as possible and notify ATS ASAP if more than 1nm off track.
59
What are the tracking deviation notification requirements?
In controlled airspace, separation standards are based on the pilot maintaining route or track as closely as possible at all times. Corrective action must be taken to regain route or track as soon as any deviation is observed.
5. 6.2 Additionally, the pilot must immediately notify ATC for any of the deviations described below
a. where route or track guidance is provided by a localizer or VOR – half-scale deflection or more of the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI);
b. where route or track guidance is provided by NDB – +/- 5° or more from the specified bearing;
c. where route or track guidance is provided by DME – +/- 2 NM or more from the required arc
d. where route or track guidance is provided by an area navigation system – when Navigation System Error (ANP, EPE, HPL/HAL depending on the system in use) plus Flight Technical Error (FTE) exceed the RNAV or RNP value for the route, track or procedure being flown, and
e. when navigating by visual reference to the ground or water – more than 1 NM from the cleared route or track.
NOTE: The values given above must not be interpreted as defining a sector within which the pilot is permitted to navigate.
60
What is the order of precision of navigation aids/systems for tracking?
The order of precision is Localizer, GNSS, VOR, then NDB
61
What are the speed limitations and restrictions below 10,000' AMSL?
All airspace classes below 10,000' MSL are limited to 250 KIAS
200 KIAS – at or below 2500 ft AAL within 4 NM of the primary Class D aerodrome
ATC may impose further restrictions or cancel speed restrictions
62
What are the speed limitations and restrictions during an approach?
Depending on the category,
For cat B:
Initial and intermediate segment: 180-120
Reversal: 140
Final: 130-85
Circling: 135
Missed approach: 150
63
What are the speed limitations and restrictions issued by ATS and when speed restrictions are cancelled?
Speed restrictions do not apply when ATC declare speed restrictions cancelled
64
Where in the Jeppesen AIP is rated coverage of nav aids?
Radio AIDS - Navaid limitations
65
Where in the Jeppesen AIP are pilot navigation tolerances?
In controlled airspace, separation standards are based on the pilot maintaining route or track as closely as possible at all times. Corrective action must be taken to regain route or track as soon as any deviation is observed.
ATC - RULES & PROCEDURES
66
When must reports on RAIM availability be given to ATC?
b. In controlled airspace, ATC must be advised if:
1. RAIM is lost for periods greater than 5 minutes, even if GPS is still providing position information; or
2. RAIM is not available when ATC requests GPS distance, or if an ATC clearance or requirement based on GPS distance is imposed; or
3. the GPS receiver is in DR mode, or experiences loss of navigation function, for more than one minute; or
4. indicated displacement from track centerline exceeds 2 NM
c. If valid position information is lost (2D or DR mode) or non-RAIM operation exceeds 5 minutes, the GPS information is to be considered unreliable and another means of navigation should be used until RAIM is restored and the aircraft is re-established on track.
d. Following re-establishment of RAIM, the appropriate ATS unit should be notified of RAIM restoration prior to using GPS information. This will allow ATC to reassess the appropriate separation standards.
e. When advising ATS of the status of GPS, the phrases “RAIM FAILURE” or “RAIM RESTORED” must be used
67
Describe the principle of operation of the NDB
Operates on MF/LF. Radio waves from the NDB consist of two types, electric field (E-Field) & magnetic field (H-Field). The fields are perpendicular & vary sinusoidally with time. The NDB transmits a vertically polarised wave, thus the E-field is Vertical & the H-Field is Horizontal. The loop antenna (flat antenna under fuselage) has two perpendicular windings into which a voltage is induced by the H-field. The ADF measures the phase difference between the two windings & determines two possible directions to the beacon 180 degrees apart. It uses a sense antenna (wire from tail to fuselage) to establish which direction is correct.
Modern aircraft have the antennas in one unit beneath it. The ADF needle points to the station. A fixed card ADF requires the pilot manually change the compass card; an RMI is slaved automatically via a flux valve to a remote magnetic compass.
When an ADF is collocated with the outer marker of an ILS it is known as a Location Outer Marker, LOM.
68
What are the four modes on an ADF?
ANT – loop antenna is disabled & sense antenna is active. Clearest audio thus used to identify stations.
ADF – needle points to station
BFO -beat freq. oscillator generates a tone to identify beacons.
TEST – needle slews 90⁰
69
What errors are associated with NDB's?
Errors - MINTCHAT
Mountain Effect: caused by reflections of the NDB signal from mountains, but decreases with increased height .
Interference (Co-Channel): interference caused by transmissions in the vicinity on the same or adjacent frequencies.
Night Effect: the ionosphere affects medium frequency sky waves by absorbing or reflecting them.
Thunderstorm Effect: radio signals produced by a thunderstorm affect the net signals received by the ADF.
Coastal Refraction: Ground waves travel best through water & worst through sand. When there is an abrupt meet between the two the ground wave bends as it passes from one medium to another. The ADF only indicates the direction from which the signal came from therefore the indication will be incorrect.
Height Effect: Reduced range at low altitude over non-conductive surfaces
Aircraft (Quadrantal) Error: interference by the structure of the aircraft interacting with the incoming signal.
Terrain Effect: signals attenuated over non-conductive surfaces (sand, rocks, etc.)
70
Describe the principle of operation of the DME
A UHF radio transmits uniquely spaced interrogation pulses; if a ground based transponder is within range & the frequency codes match, it will return a matching signal.
The time required to do this indicates the slant distance, GS & time to the ground station.
When the VOR/Localizer is tuned (108-118 MHz) the DME is automatically tuned to transmit & receive on a paired UHF (978-1213 MHz).
A 50 microsecond delay is applied by the ground station to eliminate the possibility of uncoordinated operation when the aircraft is close to the ground; this delay is subtracted by the aircraft DME.
When coupled with a VOR the ident audio is the same as the VOR only in a higher pitch & sent during the pause of the VORs.
71
What are the errors associated with the DME?
GS & time to are only accurate when flying directly to/from the station.
Limited to line of sight
Ground station desensitizes itself to weak signals when too many interrogations are present resulting in shorter range.
Slant range error – distance between aircraft & station includes height above station; increases closer to the ground station.
DOESN'T get affected by static build up from storms/precipitation unlike VOR‟s
72
Describe the principle of operation of the VOR
Reads in Magnetic. Each dot represents two degrees off track. The OBS tunes the radial to be followed. The VOR operates on the VHF/UHF range 112.0-118.0-MHz. The station transmits a 30-Hz reference signal which is constant throughout 360⁰ of the azimuth & a 30-Hz variable-phase signal which is transmitted in a rotating pattern at 1800RPM. The phase signal is orientated with magnetic north & the NAV receiver in the aircraft compares the phase of the two signals & establishes what radial the aircraft is on. This radial is compared with the one selected with the OBS & the CDI is deflected to show the difference
73
What errors are associated with the VOR?
Errors - AVGAS
Airborne Equipment Error: caused by various components of the VOR installation, less than 2⁰ in a good system.
Vertical Polarisation Effect: VOR transmissions are horizontally polarised however signals reflected from terrain can become vertically polarised. When the aircraft is banked the CDI or RMI can show abnormal movement.
Ground Station Error: systematic error of ±2⁰
Aggregate Error: the total error of all of the above, usually less than ±5⁰.
Site / Terrain Effect Error: topographical features surrounding the ground station affect the signal shown as oscillations on the CDI & must be
74
Explain the principles of operation of an ILS system
The Localizer uses the VHF band 108-111.9 Mhz. The LLZ beam is produced by two transmissions on the same frequency, modulated with different audio signals. The left transmission is 90Hz, the right at 150Hz; both are aligned to be of equal strength along the extended centerline. If the aircraft deviates the Nav receiver indicates which direction to turn depending on which signal is stronger, 90Hz-right turn, 150Hz-left turn. A VHF transmission about 300m past the upwind threshold of two overlapping lobes allows the cockpit receiver to distinguish the runway centerline. Fun facts, each dot on the CDI is half a degree & a LLZ has a range of 25nm within 10⁰ of the course line.
The Glideslope gives guidance for a 3⁰ approach path touching down 1000‟ down the runway. The antenna is abeam this point & radiates two UHF signals which overlap to provide vertical guidance in the same way as the LLZ only more sensitive with 0.7⁰ full scale deflections either side.
The Markers are low powered 75Mhz beacons. The Outer Marker (blue) signals at 4nm from the runway used to check the altimeter before the minima. The Middle Marker (amber) signals at/near the minima.
The LLZ & GP signals can be interfered with by aircraft departing over or passing close to the transmitters.
75
Describe the principles of operation of GNSS, including;
(a) GNSS system components;
(b) space segment;
(c) GNSS satellite signal;
(d) pseudo random code (C/A course acquisition code);
(e) control segment;
(f) user segment (the GNSS receiver);
(g) pseudo ranging;
(h) principle of position fixing/minimum satellites required for navigation functions;
(i) TSO/Performance limitations of various equipment types;
(j) RAIM;
(k) masking function;
(l) receiver displays of system integrity;
(m) operating modes – navigation with and without RAIM, DR;
(n) explain why GNSS use the WGS84 coordinate system;
(o) effect of PDOP/GDOP
(a) GNSS system components;
(b) space segment;
There are three constellations:
USA's GPS
Russia's GLONASS
Europe's Galileo
(c) GNSS satellite signal;
(d) pseudo random code (C/A course acquisition code);
Satellites and receivers send the same code at the same time and the receiver compares the code sent to its own and measures the time difference. They are complex for unambiguous comparison. Each sequence is repeated every millisecond and runs for a week. The code resembles the background noise of the earth however is weaker.
There are two codes, C/A for civil use and P for military use. C/A is transmitted at a higher frequency and is less accurate. P code can be encrypted for restricted access and almost impossible to jam. All satellites use a distinct pseudo random code and since all are low power they don’t overpower each other.
The satellites exact orbital position is measured every 12 hours as it passes over a station. The station relays the information to the satellite, which does the same to the GPS receiver which allows it to be precise in calculating position.
(e) control segment;
(f) user segment (the GNSS receiver);
(g) pseudo ranging;
The GPS receiver matches each satellite's
CA code with an identical copy of the code contained in the receiver's database. By shifting its copy of the satellite's code in a matching process, and by comparing this shift with its internal clock, the receiver can calculate how long it took the signal to travel from the satellite to the receiver. The distance derived from this method of computing distance is called a pseudo-range because it is not a direct measurement of distance, but a measurement based on time.
(h) principle of position fixing/minimum satellites required for navigation functions;
4 for a position (to solve X, Y, Z & time to remove ambiguity)
5 for RAIM
6 for FDE
RAIM
• RAIM mathematically compares the computed navigation solutions to provide an estimate of the accuracy of the final navigation solution.
• Detects the failure of a GNSS satellite
• Incorporated into TSO 129 and 145/6’s
o 129/145/6 modes:
Nav with RAIM
2D/3D nav without RAIM
DR
• A RAIM check is valid within 15 minutes either side of the ETA and should be checked whenever using GNSS below MSA.
RAIM warning
Five visible satellites of which one is faulty
FDE removes the faulty satellite from the solution but requires one more satellite (6)
Must be reported to ATC if lost for longer than 5 minutes or if RAIM isn't available when ATC request use of GPS distance.
RAIM Failure
•
76
What effects can reduce GNSS accuracy?
The most common causes of reduced accuracy are:
Ephemeris
Although the satellite orbits are extremely stable and predictable, some perturbations do exist. These are caused by gravitational effects of the Earth and Moon, and the pressure of solar radiation.
Clock
Timing errors due to inaccuracies in both the satellite and receiver clocks, as well as relativity effects, can result in position errors of up to 2m.
Receiver
Due to the low signal strength of GNSS transmissions, the receiver's pseudo-random noise codes are at a lower level than the receiver ambient noise. This results in a fuzzy correlation of receiver code to the satellite code, and produces some uncertainty in the relationship of one code to another. The position error that results from this effect is about 1m.
Ionosphere
One of the most significant errors in the pseudo-range measurements results from the passage of the satellite signal through the Earth's ionosphere, which varies depending on the time of day, solar activity and a range of other factors. Ionospheric delays can be predicted and an average correction applied to the GPS position, although there will still be some error introduced by this phenomenon.
Multipath
An error in the pseudo-range measurement results from the reflection and refraction of the satellite signal by objects and ground near the receiver. This is known as multipath error. Ghosting of television pictures is an example of multipath effect.
Because GNSS is a three-dimensional navigation system, the errors do not all lie along a line and therefore should not be added algebraically. Total system range error is calculated by the root-sum-square method, where the total is the square root of the sum of the squares of the individual errors.
Dilution of Precision
Geometric Dilution of Precision (GDOP) is an effect that degrades the accuracy of a position fix, due to the number and relative geometry of satellites in view at the time of calculation. The value given is the factor by which the system range errors are multiplied to give a total system error.
Position Dilution of Precision (PDOP) is a subset of GDOP that affects latitude, longitude and altitude. Many GPS receivers are able to provide an estimate of PDOP
77
In terms of GNSS, What is integrity?
Integrity
Integrity is the ability of a system to provide timely warnings to the user when the equipment is unreliable for navigation purposes. The concept of integrity includes both a failure to alarm and a false alarm. In Australia, conventional ground-based navigation aids incorporate monitoring equipment at the ground-site. Should the equipment detect an out-of-tolerance condition, the transmitter is shut down, and the user is alerted by means of a flag or loss of aural identification. GNSS integrity relates to the trust that can be placed in the correctness of the information supplied by the total system. This includes the ability of the system to notify the pilot if a satellite is radiating erroneous signals. Individual GNSS satellites are not continuously monitored, and several hours can elapse between the onset of a failure and the detection and correction of that failure. Without some additional integrity monitoring, a clock or ephemeris error, for example, can have a significant effect on any navigation system using that satellite. Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is the most common form of integrity monitoring
78
In terms of GNSS, what is availability?
Availability is the percentage of time the navigation services are available.
It is a function of both the physical characteristics of the environment and the technical capabilities of the transmitter facilities. GNSS availability is the system's capacity to provide the number of satellites required for position fixing within the specified coverage area. At least three satellites need to be in view to determine a two-dimensional (2D) position, while four are required to establish an accurate 3D position.
Selective Availability (SA) was a technique used by the US Department of Defense to limit the accuracy of GPS to other than approved users. It was achieved by artificially creating a significant clock or ephemeris error. With growing reliance upon GPS in civil applications, SA was discontinued by Presidential decree in 2000
79
In terms of GNSS, what is continuity?
Continuity of service is the ability of the total navigation system to continue to perform its function during the intended operation
80
What is ABAS?
ABAS
Aircraft-based augmentation is achieved by features of the onboard equipment designed to overcome performance limitations of the GNSS constellations. ABAS equipment to date has been designed to resolve integrity deficiencies, although future systems may address other aspects. The two systems currently in use are Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and the Aircraft Autonomous Integrity Monitor (AAIM).
RAIM
RAIM provides integrity by detecting the failure of a GNSS satellite. It is a software function incorporated into GPS receivers designed to meet TSO-C129, C129a, C145a, C146a or later versions of these standards. GNSS avionics with RAIM normally provide three modes of operation: Navigation solution with RAIM;
* 2D or 3D navigation solution without RAIM; and
* Dead Reckoning (DR), or loss of navigation solution.
RAIM may be either Fault Detection (FD) or Fault Detection & Exclusion (FDE).
RAIM (FD)
FD compares position and time information derived from combinations of four inputs from a set of at least five satellites, or four satellites and a barometric source. In this way, a faulty satellite can be detected and the pilot provided with a warning that the system should no longer be used for navigation. RAIM messages vary between receivers, but there are generally two types. One type indicates that there are not sufficient satellites available to provide RAIM integrity monitoring and another type indicates that the RAIM integrity monitor has detected a potential error that exceeds the limit for the current phase of flight (en-route, terminal or approach). Without RAIM capability, the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GNSS-derived position.
RAIM (FDE)
FDE needs six inputs and, like FD, may use barometric aiding as a data source. With six or more visible satellites FDE will not only detect a faulty satellite but also remove it from the navigational solution and continue to provide FDE or FD with the remaining satellites. FDE is required for Oceanic RNAV approvals and mandated in the 'new generation' TSO-C145a and C146a standards.
RAIM Holes
A RAIM hole occurs for the period of time that there are insufficient GNSS satellites in view to provide an integrity check at a given location. RAIM holes are predictable and those predictions can be used to determine adqueate integrity will exist during the planned operation. The Airservices Australia RAIM Prediction System provides both FD and FDE predictions for non-precision approach operations.
AAIM The AAIM uses the redundancy of position estimates from multiple sensors, including GNSS, to provide integrity performance that is at least equivalent to RAIM. A common example of AAIM uses inertial navigation solutions as an integrity check of the GPS solution when RAIM is unavailable but GPS positioning information continues to be valid
81
What is SBAS?
SBAS Satellite-based augmentation seeks to provide comprehensive performance improvements through the provision of ranging, integrity and differential correction signals to aircraft receivers from geostationary satellites. These geostationary satellites are not part of the constellations and are owned and operated by a number of organisations. The SBAS system comprises: • A network of ground reference stations that monitor satellite signals;
* Master stations that collect and process reference station data and generate SBAS messages;
* Uplink stations that send the messages to geostationary satellites; and
* Transponders on these satellites that broadcast the SBAS messages.
By providing differential corrections, extra ranging signals via geostationary satellites and integrity information for individual constellation satellites, SBAS delivers much higher availability of service that the core satellite constellations with RAIM alone.
The FAA's Wide Area Augmentations System (WAAS) became operational in 2003 and there are three other SBASs planned to commence operations in coming years. It is expected that the four SBAS services will 'seamless' coverage and be compatible with the TSO C145a and C146a receivers.
82
What is GBAS?
GBAS
A system meeting the ICAO requirements for GBAS provides two services: the precision approach service and the GBAS positioning service. The precision approach service provides deviation guidance for GNSS Landing System (GLS) approaches, while the GBAS positioning service provides horizontal position, velocity and time information to support RNAV operations in terminal areas. A ground station at an airport broadcasts locally relevant corrections, integrity parameters and approach data to aircraft in the terminal area in the VHF band.
A GBAS installation will typically provide GNSS corrections that support precision approaches to multiple runways at a single airport. In some cases, the corrections may be used for nearby airports and heliports as well. GBAS infrastructure includes electronic equipment, which can be installed in any suitable airport building, and antennas for both the data broadcast and to receive the satellite signals. The cost and flexibility of GBAS will result in more runway-ends having electronic precision approach guidance, resulting in significant safety and efficiency benefits.
83
What is GRAS?
The Ground-based Regional Augmentation System is a blending of SBAS and GBAS concepts to enhance GNSS performance. One concept uses a distributed network of reference stations for monitoring GPS (or other constellations), and a processing facility(s) for computing integrity and differential correction information. Instead of transmitting this information to users via dedicated geostationary satellites, GRAS delivers data to a network of terrestrial VHF stations. Each site broadcasts a GBAS-like, VHF data signal which can be received by the aircraft to obtain augmentation data for both en route as well as terminal area, approach and departure operations. It is anticipated GLS avionics will be able to accommodate a software change to also accept GRAS messages.
84
Where can information be found on a GNSS's TSO?
Pilots can identify the TSO status of GPS equipment by referring to the compliance stamp on the receiver or by referring to the operating handbook in the aircraft
85
What does a TSO guarantee?
TSO GPS receivers are required to meet regulatory standards for power supply, installation, lighting, database, integrity monitoring and performance.
86
What is TSO-129a?
TSO-C129 and the later C129a version specify minimum performance standards for approved GPS equipment and include integrity monitoring
There are three main classes of TSO-C129 GPS equipment, which are further divided to form 10 sub-classes. Class A relates to stand-alone GPS equipment, while Classes B and C relate to GPS equipment installed as part of a multi-sensor navigation system. For GA operators the most widely available equipment is Class A1 and Class A2. Although both of these classes are suitable for the IFR RNAV approval, only Class A1 receivers satisfy the requirements for RNAV(GNSS) approaches. Both A1 and A2 receivers incorporate RAIM.
87
What is the difference between TSO-129, 145 & 146?
TSO-C145a is a standard for airborne GPS sensors providing data to a flight management system, while TSO-C146a is for stand-alone GPS receivers. The principal improvements over the TSO-C129 standard are that RAIM (FDE), the capability to use SBAS augmentation, and a greater standardisation of displays and controls are required. Additionally, they do not suffer the constraints of many early receivers that were built to operate on the assumption that SA was operational.
88
Why does WGS84 need to be selected on a GNSS receiver?
Waypoint co-ordinates, particularly those used for approach and landing, must be based on the same geodetic reference system used by satellite positioning systems. In support of GNSS, ICAO and Australia adopted the co-ordinate system known as the World Geodetic System of 1984 (WGS84) as the common geodetic reference datum for civil aviation. Pilots and operators should ensure that WGS84 is selected as the default geodetic reference in their GPS receivers
89
What is parallel offset tracking and are IFR pilots able to use it?
Parallel offset tracking is only approved for oceanic operations. The current separation standards, safety height calculations, and tracking requirements for IFR aircraft are based on the requirement that the pilot will attempt to maintain track as closely as possible. Offsets are not approved for non-oceanic IFR aircraft.
Suggested actions for VFR aircraft in Class G include operating 1nm right of track between two waypoints clear of CTA
90
Can a GNSS be used with an out of date database?
It may not be used for navigation below MSA/LSALT
CAO 20.91
As far PBN is concerned, an aircraft may operate without a current database provided any data used for navigation is verified before use from a current navigation data source. A navigation database that is not current must not be used for radio updating of a navigation system.
Note 1 A current navigation data source can be either current maps, charts or other sources of navigation information provided by supplier meeting the requirements of subparagraph 13.3 (a). An Electronic Flight Bag that is current is an acceptable reference source for navigation database verification.
13. 11 An aircraft that is not operated with an MEL may operate for a period of not more than 72 hours from the time that the database expires.
13. 12 An aircraft that is operated with an MEL may operate for up to 3 flight days from the time that the database expires
91
If an Aid has a NOTAM "Pilot Monitored", does it require any procedure change for flight planning?
The FAA states:
b. Category 2 is a temporary condition not considered in procedures development. ATC is responsible for issuing NOTAM's on these out of service facilities when pilot reports indicate facility malfunction.
(2) Category 2. Internal monitoring with status indicator at control point inoperative, but pilot reports indicate facility is operating normally. (This is a temporary situation that requires no procedural action.)
92
What is D-Max?
a GLS will only provide guidance information within 23nm of the station.
93
What is a pilot responsible for when using vertical guidance on a 2D approach?
Segment Minimum Altitudes are not breached
94
What are the basic principles of PBN?
In Performance Based Navigation the
performance itself is specified and the navigation system is required to meet the minimum level of performance. In principle any method of navigation that achieves the specified level of navigation performance is acceptable.
95
What are the core components that make up the PBN airspace concept, including;
communications;
navigation;
surveillance; & air traffic management
Airspace capacity is determined by the combined capabilities of the communications, navigation, surveillance and air traffic management systems (CNS/ATM) in place.
Although emerging communication technology means more use is being made of datalink communications, most operations will still use VHF and HF voice communication systems.
Regulations and aircraft equipment mandates are in place to support CNS/ATM. These mandates implement Performance-Based Navigation (PBN), Mode S Transponders and Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) to provide the navigation and surveillance capabilities needed to improve air traffic management efficiency and harmonise Australian operations with global standards.
Air navigation systems operating in Australian airspace are transitioning from conventional ground-based radio navigation aids to performance-based navigation (PBN). The implementation of PBN is based on global navigation satellite system (GNSS). GNSS is also being used in oceanic regions to give a performance-based navigation solution
96
What are the navigation system performance requirements for PBN?
Navigation systems have to meet these requirements for aviation:
• Accuracy: the aircrafts position can be determined with a sufficient level of precision;
• Integrity: timely warnings are provided when the system fails or becomes degraded;
• Continuity: the ability of the system to function without unscheduled interruptions;
• Availability: the proportion of time that the system can be expected to provide reliable navigation
PBN systems meet the requirements for these through RNAV and RNP. RNP requires on board performance monitoring and integrity and alerting; i.e. RAIM. RNAV does not and is therefore less reliable.
There are equivalent RNAV specifications which are achieved by integrating other navigation sources (i.e. VOR/DME) through an approved FMS or similar.
Pilots must be instrument rated and be current on the GNSS device
97
What do the RNP values mean?
The RNP standard is measured by its HIL. This is presented by the nautical miles for the computed navigation solution. For example, when operating to RNP-1, the navigation solution must be calculated to be within 1 nm of the aircrafts actual position.
• RNP 1 – SID/STAR
• RNP 2 – Enroute
• RNP 5 - Terminal
• RNP 10 - Oceanic
RNP APCH – LNAV app
98
Navigation performance is computed by considering the following components:
(define them)
FTE;
PDE;
TSE;
NSE/PEE
Flight Technical Error (FTE).
Also referred to as Path Steering Error, this value represents the ability of the aircraft guidance system to follow the computed flight path. FTE is normally evaluated by the aircraft manufacturer based on flight trials, although in cases where the manufacturer is not able to provide adequate data the operator may need to collect in-service data. FTE values will usually vary for a particular aircraft depending on the flight control method, and for example, a lower FTE may be applicable to operations where the autopilot is coupled compared to the FTE for manual flight using flight director.
This variation may in turn lead to different overall performance values depending on the method of control.
Path Definition Error (PDE).
An area navigation route is defined by segments between waypoints. The definition of the path therefore is dependent on the resolution of the waypoint, and the ability of the navigation system to manage the waypoint data. However, as waypoints can be defined very accurately, and a high level of accuracy is able to be managed by most navigation systems this error is minimal and is generally considered to
be zero.
Navigation System Error (NSE). Sometimes called PEE or Position Estimation Error, this value represents the capability of the navigation avionics to determine position, relative to the aircraft’s actual position. NSE is dependent on the accuracy of the inputs to the position solution, such as the accepted accuracy of DME or GNSS measurements.
Total System Error (TSE)
In short the total system error is the 95% probability that the navigation system accuracy remains within the limits defined for the operation. For example, during an RNAV-1 operation the TSE remains within one nautical mile of the desired path 95% of the time. RNP systems conform to a performance-based navigation specification based on RNAV capability that also includes requirements for on-board performance monitoring and alerting. For example, during an RNP 1.0 operation, the TSE remains within one nautical mile of the desired path 95% of the time, and on-board performance monitoring provides the pilot with an alert when the probability that TSE exceeds 2xRNP is greater than 10 to the power -5.
Expanded; TSE is computed as the statistical sum of the component errors. An accepted method of computing the sum of a number of independent statistical measurements is to compute the square root of the sum of the squares of the component values, or the Root Sum Square (RSS) method.
As discussed PDE is normally considered to be zero and can be ignored.
No measurement can be absolute and some error or variation will always occur. Therefore errors are normally stated in terms of the probability that the specified accuracy is achieved. For example, the FTE might be described as +/- (X) NM / 95%.
In the general PBN Manual case where accuracy is specified as the 95% value, then the 95% TSE is calculated for the 95% values for NSE and TSE.
The risk that an aircraft capable of a particular navigation performance (95%) will exceed a specified navigation tolerance can then be estimated for any desired probability. It is convenient and reasonably reliable to consider that navigation errors are “normally
distributed” and are represented by a Gaussian distribution. A Gaussian or Normal distribution is a representation of the probable errors that may be expected for many common random events. If the probability of a particular event is known, (e.g. 95% TSE)
then using a Gaussian distribution the estimated error for another probability can also be calculated.
Standard deviation is a widely used measure of the variability or dispersion. In simple terms, it shows how much variation there is from the "average" (mean). It may be thought of as the average difference of the scores from the mean of distribution, how far they are
away from the mean. A low standard deviation indicates that the data points tend to be very close to the mean, whereas high standard deviation indicates that the data are spread out over a large range of values.
99
What is the difference between RNAV and RNP systems?
RNP is an RNAV subset that also includes a requirement to provide on-board navigation system accuracy performance monitoring and alerting which means an RNP system is also an RNAV system. GNSS equipment provides accuracy performance monitoring and alerting which, by definition, makes it both an RNAV and RNP capable system.
Note: TSO-C129(AR) Class B/C, TSO-C145(AR), and
TSO-C196(AR) sensors provide both RNAV and RNP
capability when interfaced to an appropriate navigation
computer (such as TSO-C115c).
(a) By definition, TSO-C129(AR) Class A1 and all TSO-C146(AR) Class Gamma GNSS equipment provides an RNAV capability that includes on-board performance
monitoring and alerting. This equipment has the capability to perform RNAV(GPS) approaches to at least the LNAV line of minima.
(b) RNAV(GPS) approaches require GPS, which includes on-board performance monitoring and alerting. Therefore, an RNAV(GPS) approach is an RNP procedure
where the initial, intermediate, and missed approach segments are RNP 1.0. The LNAV final approach segment is RNP 0.3.
(c) None of the preceding statements should be confused with RNP AR that requires special aircraft and aircrew approval. Neither TSO-C129(AR) Class A1 GPS nor TSO-C146(AR) Class Gamma GPS/SBAS can qualify for RNP AR operations without additional aircraft and aircrew approvals (see appendix 2). No RNP AR procedures can be included in the navigation databases of equipment that is not approved for RNP AR operations.
RNP AR approach procedures are titled RNAV(RNP) and have an “authorization required” designation printed on the charts.
100
What is LP/LPV and what requirements are there to conduct a RNP IAL operation to a published LP MDA or LPV DA?
Localizer Performance with Vertical Guidance (LPV)
Pilots can take advantage of the improved
accuracy of Wide Area Augmentation System
(WAAS) lateral and vertical guidance with LPV
minimums. Pilots fly to a decision altitude (DA)
and the angular guidance provided increases
in sensitivity as the aircraft gets closer to the
runway (or point in space for helicopters). To aid
pilots in transferring their ILS flying skills to these
vertically guided RNP approaches, lateral and
vertical deviations are nearly identical at similar
distances.
Lateral Navigation/Vertical Navigation (LNAV/VNAV)
Horizontal and approved vertical guidance is
also available to the LNAV/VNAV line of minima.
LNAV/VNAV utilizes approved vertical guidance
offered by WAAS and approach certified baroVNAV
systems. Minimums are published as a DA.
When conducting these operations to a DA, the
pilot must adhere to any procedural temperature
limitations unless employing temperature
compensation under an authorization from ATC.
Localizer Performance without Vertical Guidance (LP) and Lateral Navigation (LNAV)
Pilots may use WAAS-enabled GPS systems
for LNAV, but WAAS is not mandatory. WAAS
equipment is mandatory for LP. LP minima are
added in locations where terrain or obstructions
do not allow publication of vertically guided
LPV minima. Lateral sensitivity increases as
an aircraft gets closer to the runway (or point
in space for helicopters). LP is not a fail-down
mode for LPV; LP and LPV are independent.
LNAV is not a fail-down mode for LP. LP will not
be published with lines of minima that contain
approved vertical guidance (i.e. LNAV/VNAV or
LPV).
101
What is the difference between Baro-Aiding and Baro-VNAV?
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Barometric Aiding (Baro-Aiding)
Barometric aiding is an integrity augmentation that allows a GPS system to use a non-satellite input source (e.g. the aircraft pitot-static system) to provide vertical reference and reduces the number of required satellites from five to four. Baro-aiding requires four satellites and a barometric altimeter input to detect an integrity anomaly. The current altimeter setting may need to be entered into the receiver as described in the operating manual. Baro-aiding satisfies the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) requirement in lieu of a fifth satellite.
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Barometric Vertical Navigation (Baro-VNAV)
Baro-VNAV uses barometric altitude information from the aircraft’s pitot-static system and air data computer to compute vertical guidance for the pilot. The specified vertical path is typically computed between two waypoints or an angle from a single way point. When using baro-VNAV guidance, the pilots should check for any published temperature limitations on the approach chart which may result in approach restrictions.
102
What is the difference between linear and angular deviation?
Linear means that the deviations of the aircraft are available as a distance of the aircraft from the desired track. In angular guidance, the error indication is given in degrees of angle from the desired line relative to a ground-based navigation device.
103
When is temperature correction required for an ILS approach?
when the temperature on the ground is ISA-15
104
What is the procedure for an IFR aircraft departing VFR?
The pilot of an IFR flight departing a Class D aerodrome may request a VFR departure with the expectation of obtaining an IFR clearance en-route.
The pilot of an IFR flight conducting a VFR departure:
must comply with the VFR.
is responsible for separation with other aircraft within the Class D airspace.
must obtain ATC clearance prior to entering Class A or C airspace.
must obtain ATC clearance to resume IFR in Class A, C, D or E airspace.
must notify ATC when reverting to IFR once in Class G airspace.
When an IFR aircraft conducts a VFR departure, ATC will treat the aircraft as:
VFR for separation services in Classes C, D and E airspace until the pilot requests and is granted an IFR clearance.
VFR in Class C or D airspace and VFR in receipt of an SIS in Class E or G airspace for traffic information.
IFR for all other services, such as SAR, weather and NOTAM information, in all classes of airspace.
105
What separation standards apply to each class of airspace?
Class A - IFR only
Class C - IFR from IFR, SVFR & VFR
- SVFR from SVFR
- VFR from IFR & traffic info on VFR
Class D - IFR from IFR & SVFR & info on VFR
- SVFR from SVFR
- VFR traffic info on all
Class E - IFR from IFR & info on VFR
- VFR can receive SIS on request
106
What are the VMC requirements for class C/E, D and G?
C, G & E - 1000' above and below cloud, 5km vis 8km, 1500m horizontally from cloud
Only G - Below 3000'MSL or 1000'AGL in sight of ground or water, 5km vis and clear of cloud.
D - 600m horizontally, 5km vis, 1000' above cloud 500' below
107
When is a weather radar required?
IFR RPT and charter aircraft which are required to be crewed by two or more pilots must be fitted with an approved airborne weather radar system.
Unpressurised turbine engined aircraft with a maximum take-off weight of not greater than 5700kg and unpressurized piston engine aircraft are exempt from this requirement
108
To what accuracy must a pilot maintain their time reference?
Within 30s
109
Does the declaration of an emergency when deviating from track in CTA or RA?
No
110
If an aircraft has inadvertently deviated from route in Class A on a long over water flight, how long does it have to regain route?
the pilot must take action to regain the cleared route within 200 NM from the position at which the deviation was observed
111
When is GPWS required?
A turbine engined airplane that:
a. has a maximum take-off weight of more than 15,000kg, or is carrying 10 or more passen-gers; and
b. is engaged in regular public transport, or charter operations;
must not be operated under the Instrument Flight Rules unless it is fitted with:
1. an approved GPWS that has a predictive terrain hazard warning function; or
2. if the aeroplane has a maximum take-off weight of 5,700kg or less, but is carrying 10 or more passengers – a TAWS -B+ system.
5. 14.2 Subject to the provisions of an approved Minimum Equipment List (MEL) under para-graph 10 of CAO 20.18, an aeroplane required to be fitted with a GPWS shall not depart with that equipment unserviceable from an aerodrome where facilities are available to repair or replace the GPWS and in no case shall an aeroplane be operated with its GPWS unserviceable for a period exceeding 24 hours from the time the equipment was determined to be unserviceable
