IFR Written Flashcards
1
Q
For planning purposes what is the highest useable altitude for an IFR flight on V16
A
17000’
2
Q
What’s the definition of MEA?
A
The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage
3
Q
The most current enroute and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight school should be obtained from:
A
AFSS/FSS
4
Q
What airspace exists above Wayne Wonderland Airport halfway between Hanksville and Milford VORTACs from surface to 1200’ AGL?
A
Class G
5
Q
Which minimum altitude should you cross STAKK intersection?
A
10,200’
6
Q
What is the MDA and visible criteria for a straight in LOC/DME RWY21 approach at Portland International for an aircraft with a Vso of 77 knots?
A
700’ MSL vis 1sm
7
Q
You have been cleared to the Creak Intersection approaching CREAK you are cleared for the LOC/DME RWY21. Descent to procedure turn altitude May begin only once you have:
A
Read back the approach clearance and reported leaving 7000’
8
Q
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
A
Upon receipt of any official weather regardless of content change or report valves
9
Q
When approach procedure involves a procedure turn the maximum speed should not be greater than:
A
200 knots IAS
10
Q
During a “no gyro” approach and prior to being handed off to the final approach controller the pilot should make all turns:
A
Standard rate unless otherwise advised
11
Q
What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?
A
No coded identification but possible navigation indications
12
Q
What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a 1/2 scale deflection of the CDI?
A
5 degrees
13
Q
What is your position relative to GRICE intersection?
A
Right of V552 and approaching GRICE intersection
14
Q
What is your position relative to the FLOSI Intersection northbound of V213?
A
West of the V213 and approaching the FLOS Intersection
15
Q
Which distance is displayed by the DME Indicator?
A
Slant range distance in NM
16
Q
What are the hours of operation of the tower for the Yakima air terminal when daylight savings time is in effect?
A
0600 to 2200 local
17
Q
The time entered in an IFR flight stating the endurance should be based on which fuel quantity?
A
Total useable fuel on board
18
Q
What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS of 158 at 8000’ with a temperature of 0 degrees Celsius.
A
140 KCAS
19
Q
What should be the approximate elapsed time from BZN VOR to DBS VORTAC if the wind is 24knots from 260 degrees and your intended TAS is 185knots?
A
39 minutes
20
Q
What condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?
A
Air temperature warmer than standard
21
Q
How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?
A
Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75’ of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy
22
Q
How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in class E airspace below 1800’?
A
ATC periodically advises the pilot of proper altimeter setting
23
Q
Which instruments in addition to the attitude indicator are pitch instruments?
A
Altimeter, airspeed, and vertical speed indicator
24
Q
What’s the correct sequence for recovering from a spiraling, nose low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude?
A
Reduce power, correct the bank attitude and raise the nose to level attitude
25
What should be the indication of the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the northern hemisphere?
The compass will indicate a turn to the right but at a faster rate than is actually occurring
26
If a 180 degree steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and level flight by visual references the attitude indicator:
May show a slight climb and turn
27
What is the flight attitude? One system has a malfunction
Climbing turn to the right
28
A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by:
Ground radiation on clear cool nights when the wind is light
29
Which conditions result in the formation for frost?
Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dew point of the surrounding air and the Dow point is colder than freezing
30
Where can wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found?
On all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell
31
Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm activity?
Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude
32
Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of an airfoil can:
Reduce lift by as much as 30% and increase drag by 40%
33
Which weather forecast is a concise statement of the expected weather for an airports runway complex?
Terminal aero drone forecast (TAF)
34
The 24 hour low level significant weather program at 18z indicates that eastern Wisconsin will likely experience
Ceilings less than 1000’ visibility less than 3 miles
35
When penetrations a microburst which aircraft will experience an increase in performance without a change in pitch or power?
1
36
AIRMETs are issued on a scheduled basis every:
Six hours
37
When passing through an abrupt wind shear which involves a shift from a tailwind to a headwind what power management would normally be required to maintain a constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope
Lower than normal power initially followed by a further decrease as the wind shear is encountered then an increase
38
A pilots recent IFR experience expires on July 1 of this year. What is the latest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirement without having to take an instrument proficiency check?
December 31, this year
39
If an unpressurized aircraft is operated above 12500’ MSL but not more than 14000’ MSL for a period of 2hours 20minutes, how long during that time is the minimum flight crew required to use supplemental oxygen?
1 hour 50 minutes
40
What is the floor of class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport that has an approved IAP?
700’ AGL
41
Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?
Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions
42
An abbreviated departure clearance cleared as filed... will always contain the name:
Of the destination airport filed in the flight plan
43
Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having:
White lettering with a red background
44
If while in Classe E airspace a clearance is received to maintain VFR conditions on top the pilot should maintain a VFR cruising altitude based on the direction of the:
Magnetic course
45
A sloping cloud formation an abs cured horizon and a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can create an illusion known as:
False horizon
46
The sensation which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions:
Must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indication of the flight instruments
47
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the administrator the minimum altitude for IFR flight is:
2000’above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain: 1000’ above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere
48
What is the MOCA between JNC and MANCA intersection on the V187?
12,400’ MSL
49
What is the maximum altitude that you may flight plan an IFR flight on V86 eastbound between BOZEMAN and BILLINGS VORTAC?
17000’
50
What lighting is indicated on the chart for Jackson hole airport?
Pilot controlled lighting
51
MEA is an altitude which assures:
Acceptable navigational signal coverage meets obstruction clearance requirements
52
What procedure should be followed if communications are lost before reaching 10,000k departing to the south?
Climb on a DP heading/course until passing 10,000’ then turn left direct to FMG VORTAC then via assigned route
53
What’s the minimum acceptable rate of climb (fpm) to 10,900’ required for the RENO9.FMG departure under standard takeoff minimums from RWY 16L at a GS of 150kts?
1825fpm
54
Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for approach and landing on rwy 6 at Bradley International:
ALSF2, HIRL, CL, PAPI
55
What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the minimum sector altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?
1000’ within a 25nm radius of the navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage
56
How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?
IAP indicate DME/TACAN channel on LOC frequency box
57
What does the runway visual range (RVR)value depicted on certain straight in IAP charts represent?
The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft
58
When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?
As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight
59
What angular deviation from the VOR course centerline is represented by a full scale deflection of the CDI?
10 degrees
60
In which direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?
Northeast
61
Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between ground distance to the VORTAC and displayed distance
High altitudes close to the VORTAC
62
To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern what is the max airspeed above 14,000’ for civil turbojet aircraft?
265 knots
63
What altitude should be entered for your cruising level of an IFR flight plan if the flight has three legs each at a different altitude?
Altitude for first leg
64
What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS of the 156kts at 11000’ if the outside air temperature is +05 degrees Celsius?
129 kcas
65
What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS of 180 at an altitude of 8000’ if the outside air temperature is +8 degrees Celsius
157 kcas
66
When may you use VFR waypoints when filing IFR?
Never. They are not recognized by the IFR system
67
What CAS should be used to maintain 128 kts TAS if the outside air temperature is +05degrees Celsius at an altitude of 5000’
119 kcas
68
What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?
The point of first intended landing
69
If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what airspeed indication can be expected?
Increase of indicated airspeed during a climb
70
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display?
Rate of roll and rate of turn
71
The rate of turn at any airspeed is dependent upon?
The horizontal lift component
72
What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?
Indirect indication of the bank attitude
73
What is the fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
Instrument cross check
74
Conditions that determine the pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are:
Air speed, air density,wing design, and angle of attack
75
The primary reason the angle of attack must be increased to maintain a constant altitude during a coordinated turn is because the:
Vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank
76
To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approximately:
50’
77
The primary cause of all changes in the earths weather is:
Variation of solar energy received by the earths region
78
A characteristic of the stratosphere is:
Relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude
79
What relationship exists between the winds at 2000’ above the surface and the surface winds?
The winds at 2000’ tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker
80
What determines the structure or type of clouds which forms as a result of air being forced to ascend?
The stability of the air before lifting occurs
81
What is an important characteristics of wind shear?
It is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low level temperature inversion, a jet stream or a frontal zone
82
If you fly into severe turbulence which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?
Level flight attitude
83
What situation is most conductive to the formation of radiation fog?
Warm moist air over low flatland areas on clear calm nights
84
What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over PSB at FL270?
255 degree true at 93 kts; ISA +6degrees Celsius
85
What is meant by the entry in the remarks section of METAR surface report for KBNA?
METAR KBNA 211250z 33018kt 290v260 1/2sm R31/2700 FT+SN BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RAESNB42
Rain ended 42 past the hour, snow began 42 past the hour
86
An instrument rated pilot who had not logged any instrument time in 1 year or more, cannot serve as pilot in command under IFR unless the pilot:
Passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved given by an approved FAA examiner, instrument instructor, or FAA inspector
87
A certified commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night or in excess of 50nm is required to have at least:
An instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft
88
For which speed variation should you notify ATC?
When the average true airspeed changes 5% or 10 knots whichever is greater
89
For aircraft other than helicopters what forecast weather minimums are equipped to lilts an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?
Ceiling and visibility at ETA 800’ and 2 miles respectively
90
The aircrafts transponder fails during flight within class D airspace
No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in class D airspace
91
When checking a dual VOR system by use of a VOT which illustration indicates the VORs are satisfactory?
1
92
Where can the VOT frequency for a particular airport be found?
Only in the chart supplement
93
In which publication can the VOR receiver ground checkpoint for a particular airport be found?
Chart supplement
94
During an IFR flight in IMC you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two way radio failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?
Depart the holding fix at the EFC time proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent and approach as close as ossicle to ETA
95
What are the oxygen requirements for an IFR flight east bound from Milford on V244 at the lowest appropriate altitued in an unpressurized aircraft?
The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for the entire flight above 15000’
96
In the event of two way radio communication failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions the pilot should continue:
The flight under VFR and land as soon as practical
97
When departing from an airport not served by a control tower the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that:
The pilot must advise ATC as seen as possible but no later than 30 minutes of their intentions if not off by the void time
98
What altitude May a pilot select upon receiving a VFR on top clearance?
Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above MEA in VFR weather conditions
99
In which airspace is VFR on top operation prohibited?
Class A airspace
100
What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower than visual runway?
An upsloping runway
101
An abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of:
Tumbling backwards
102
What is true regarding the use of the cockpit lighting for night flights?
The ease of regular white light, such as a flashlight will impair night adaptation
103
Where is the VOR changeover point on a V20 between Beaumont and Hobby?
Halfway point
104
What is the ARTCC discrete frequency at the COP on V208 SW bound from HVE to PGA VOR/DME?
127.55
105
Using an average GS of 100 kts what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified by the DP?
642 fpm
106
At which point does the basic DP terminate?
At STAKK intersection
107
What determines the MAP on the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at Portland international airport?
I-GPO 1.2 DME
108
What is the useable RWY length for landing on RWY 10L at PDX
8535
109
Using an average GS of 90 kts what constant rate of descent from 3100’ MSL at the 6 DME fix would enable the aircraft to arrive at 2400’ MSL at the FAF
350 fpm
110
Using an average GS of 9p knots on the final approach segment what rate of descent should be used initially to establish the glide path for the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?
480 fpm
111
When landing minimums apply for a 14 CFR Part 91 operator at Dothan AL using a category C aircraft during a circling LOC 32 approach at 120 kts?
MDA 860’ MSL and visibility 1 1/2 sm
112
When checking the sensitivity of a VOR receiver the number of degrees in course change as the OBS is rotated to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either side should be between
10 and 12 degrees
113
What action should the pilot take if the marker beacon receiver becomes inoperative during the S-ILS 36 approach at Wittman Regional?
Substitute POBER LOM NDB or OSH 7 DME for the OM and use published minimums
114
What is your position relative to the 9 DME arc and the 206 degree radial of the instrument departure procedure?
On the 9 DME arc and approaching R-206
115
As a guide in making range corrections how many degrees of relative bearing change should be used for each one-half mile deviation from the desired arc?
10 to 20 degrees
116
What is your position with reference to FALSE intersection (V222) if your VOR receiver indicates as shown?
South of the V222 and East of the FALSE intersection
117
when using VOR for navigation. Which should be considered as station passage?
The first positive, complete reversal of the TO,FROM indicator
118
An aircraft which is located 30 miles from a VOR station and shows a 1/2 scale deflection on the CDI would be how far from the selected course centerline?
2 1/2 mile
119
On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the number 1 NAV?
R-345
120
Which aircraft position does HIS presentation B correspond?
5 and 13
121
Which aircraft position does HSI C correspond?
1w
122
Which aircraft position does HSI E correspond?
6
123
A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidence by:
Removal of the identification feature
124
At STRUT intersection (west of lake Charles) headed eastbound ATC instructs you to hold west on the 10 DME fix west of the LCH on the V306 standard turns, what entry procedure is recommended ?
Direct
125
What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS of 180 kts at 12000’ if the outside air temperature is 5+ degrees Celsius ?
147 KCAS
126
What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS of 155 knots at the planned altitude of 8000’ if the outside air temperature is -5 degrees Celsius?
139 KCAS
127
From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAMs?
FAA FSS/AFSS
128
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
When standard atmospheric conditions exist
129
What defines the type of altitude used when monitoring FL210?
Pressure
130
While you are flying at FL250 you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92” Hg in your area at what pressure altitude are you flying?
25,000’
131
You are debating from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting you should set your altimeter to:
The airport elevation
132
Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude ?
Altitude indicator, altimeter and VSI
133
While cruising at 190kts you wish to establish a climb at 160 kts when entering the climb it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back the elevator pressure until the :
Attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 160 kt climb
134
During flight if the pitottube becomes clogged with ice what instrument would be affected?
The airspeed indicator only
135
For maintaining level flight at constant thrust which instrument would be the Lear appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?
Attitude indicator
136
What changes in control displacement should be made so that 2 would result in a coordinated standard rate turn?
Increase left rudder and increase rate of turn
137
The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evident that:
There is freezing rain at a higher altitude
138
What type clouds can be expected when an unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope
Clouds with extensive vertical development
139
Which clouds have the greatest turbulence
Cumulonimbus
140
What is indicated by the term embedded thunderstorm
Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen
141
Interpret this PIREP
| MRB UA/OV MRB/TM 1430/FL060/TP C182/SK BKN BL/WX RA/TB MDT
At 6000’ between layers; moderate turbulence; moderate rain
142
What weather conditions are depicted immediately around area 6?
Occasional embedded cumulonimbus 4/8 to 6/8 coverage bases below 25000’ MSL and tops at 45000’ MSL
143
What weather conditions are predicted within the area indicated by area 3?
Severe turbulence 32000’ MSL
144
What is the height of the tropopause east of the Florida in the western Atlantic
FL450
145
If the aircrafts transponder fails during flight within class B airspace?
ATC May authorize deviation from the transponder requirements to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination
146
Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?
Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments
147
What minimum conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches for IFR currency?
The approaches may be made in an aircraft, flight Simulator, or flight training device
148
What is the max cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly for longer than 30 minutes without using supplemental oxygen?
10,500’
149
For aircrafts what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?
From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2000 and visibility 3 miles
150
During an IFR flight in IMC a distress condition is encountered (fire, mechanical, or structural failure) the pilot should:
Not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an emended clearance
151
What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating from within the outer area of class C airspace?
Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft
152
Which of the following is required equipment for operating an airspace within class B airspace?
A 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment
153
Which procedure should you follow if you experience two way communication failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time?
Depart the holding fix at the EFC time
154
While holding at the 10 DME fix east of LCH for an ILS approach to rwy15 at lake Charles municipal airport ATC advises you to expect clearance for the approach at 1015. An 1000 you experience two way radio communication failure. Which procedure should you follow?
Squawk 7600 plan to begin your approach at 1015
155
When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport what landing minimums apply?
The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected
156
Due to visual illusions when landing on a narrower runway the aircraft will appear to be:
Higher than actual leading to a lower than normal approach
157
How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation ?
Read and interpret the flight instruments and act accordingly
158
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
Haze created the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway and causes pilots to fly a lower approach
