Written Flashcards
1
Q
What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?
A
700’AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace
2
Q
Reception of signals from a radio facility located off the airway being flown may be in adequate at the designated MEA to identify the fix. Which altitude is the designated fix ?
A
MRA
3
Q
When a pilot believes advanced avionics enable operations closer to personal or environmental limits
A
Risk is increased
4
Q
For IFR operations off of established airways below 18,000’ VOR navigational aids us3 to describe the route of flight should be no more than:
A
80 NM apart
5
Q
The advancement of avionics in light general aviation airplanes have enhanced situational awareness for properly trained pilots however, there is concern that this technology could lead to :
A
Complacency
6
Q
In the cased of operations over an area designate as a mountainous area no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below 2000’ above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of:
A
4 NM from the course flown
7
Q
A hand held GPS system
A
Is not authorized for IFR navigation
8
Q
One way to verify the currency of your airborne navigation database is to:
A
Check your waypoints to make sure they seem correct and are in the right order
9
Q
Unless otherwise specified on the chart the minimum en route altitude along a jet route is
A
18,000’ MSL
10
Q
The lighter workloads associated with glass flight instrumentation
A
May lead to complacency by the flight crew
11
Q
During IFR en route and terminal operations using an approved non-WAAS GPS system for navigation ground based navigational facilities
A
Must be operational along the entire route
12
Q
Reception of signals from an off airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. in this case which altitude is designated for the fix?
A
MRA
13
Q
Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?
A
The Class E airspace extending upward from 700’ or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace
14
Q
Automation in aircraft has proven
A
To present new hazards in its limitations
15
Q
Which aeronautical chart depicts military training routes (MTR) above 1500’?
A
IFR low altitude en route chart
16
Q
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the administrator the minimum altitude for IFR flight is:
A
2,000’ above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000’ above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere
17
Q
Before using any procedure or waypoint retrieved from an airborne navigation database
A
The pilot should verify the validity of the database during preflight and inflight
18
Q
Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?
A
When ATC deems it appropriate unless the pilot requests “No STAR”
19
Q
Definition of MEA:
A
The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage
20
Q
Unless otherwise prescribed what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an IFR off-airways flight over mountainous terrain?
A
2,000’ above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course
21
Q
What is the definition of a technically advanced aircraft?
A
An aircraft having a primary flight display a GPS navigation system with a moving map display and an autopilot
22
Q
Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and MEA (non mountainous area)
A
1,000’ obstacle clearance
23
Q
If no MCA is specified what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix beyond which a higher minimum applies?
A
The MEA at which the fix is approached
24
Q
Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures?
A
To fly a standard instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess the procedure chart
25
During IFR en route operations using an approved, non waas, gps system for navigation,
The aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route
26
ATC May assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within
22 NM of VOR
27
Which is true regarding STARs?
STARs are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures
28
The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage is the
MEA
29
Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of only
22 NM
30
When descending on an assigned standard terminal arrival, ATC issues an altitude restriction to cross a fix. You are required to
Meet the restrictions
31
While on an instrument flight in VFR conditions ATC asks you to “ADVISE WHEN YOU HAVE ATIS” for your destination airport. Upon tuning to ATIS you discover that it hasn’t been updated in over an hour. What is true?
Since it has been over an hour, check back in a moment because it is likely being updated now
32
You are at an airport with no instrument approach procedure and no departure procedure. What options are available to you for departure?
Depart at your own risk and discretion
33
MEA is an altitude which assures
Acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements
34
Which types of airspace are depicted on the en route low altitude chart?
Limits of controlled airspace, military training routes and special use airspace
35
During IFR en route operations using an approved TSP-C129() or TSO-C196() GPS system for navigation
The aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route
36
When proceeding on a climb via standard instrument departure, the top altitude is
The highest altitude you climb to on the SID
37
If the electronic flight instrument system (EFIS) fails in flight which instrument will you use for pitch and bank information?
Stand-by attitude indicator
38
A DP requires a minimum climb rate of 210 feet per NM to 8,000’. If you climb with a GS of 140 knots what is the rate of climb required in feet per minute?
490
39
The MEA assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and
Meets obstacle clearance requirements
40
What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use a standard instrument departure procedure?
Enter “NO SID” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan
41
During IFR operation using an approved, non-WAAS, GPS system for navigation,
The aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route
42
When ATC designs instrument procedures unless otherwise stated or declared, ATC uses the standard IFR climb gradient of
200 feet per nautical mile
43
During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings when should the pilot contact departure control?
When advised by the tower
44
Which is true regarding the use of a standard instrument departure procedure chart?
To use a standard instrument departure procedure the pilot must possess the charted SID procedure
45
If the electronic flight instrument system (EFIS) fails in flight, how will you monitor your altitude?
Stand-by altimeter
46
What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower than usual runway?
An upsloping runway
47
What is the recommended climb procedure when a no radar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude ?
Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level offs until 1,000’ below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 fpm
48
When may you obtain a contact approach?
ATC will assign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at least 1 mile
49
A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of
Being in a nose up attitude
50
While on an instrument flight plan, ATC gives you a clearance to “CRUISE SEVEN THOUSAND” while headed eastbound with an MEA of 5,000 feet. What is true?
You may choose any intermediate altitude between 7,000’ and the MEA
51
When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500’ on an IFR flight plan?
When assigned a VFR-on-Top clearance
52
When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000’ of assigned altitude pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between:
500’ per minute and 1,500’ per minute
53
Where are VFR-on-Top operations prohibited?
Class A airspace
54
Unless a higher angle is necessary for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glide path angle for a 2-bar VASI
3 degrees
55
What are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP, if the pilot is on an instrument flight plan and clear of clouds?
The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds
56
Due to visual illusion when landing on a narrower than usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be:
Higher than actual, leading to a lower than normal approach
57
Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR on top clearance?
VFR and IFR
58
If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the aircraft reaches the MDA, the pilot should
Level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path
59
Abrupt head movement during a proLonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause
Coriolis illusion
60
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advised you that you are on the airway and the “RESUME OWN NAVIGATION “ this phrase means that
You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation
61
The ‘runway hold position’ sign denotes
An entrance to runway from a taxiway
62
What indication would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?
If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white
63
Upon existing a runway which yellow lines painted across the taxiway should you cross?
All 4 lines
64
Tunnel vision and cyanosis are symptoms of
Hypoxia
65
On the run up pad you receive the following clearance from ground control:
CLEARED TO THE DALLAS LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED-MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND-SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE-DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER.
An abbreviated clearance will always contain:
Destination airport and route
66
If, while in class E airspace, a clearance is received to “maintain VFR conditions on top” the pilot should maintain a VFR cruising altitude based on the direction of the
Magnetic course
67
An abbreviated departure clearance “CLEARED AS FILED”a will always contain the name
Of the destination airport filed in the flight plan
68
To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes or more than 1,000’, what rate of climb or descent should be used?
As rapidly as practicable to 1,000’ above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500’ per minute until reaching the assigned altitude
69
You have filed an IFR flight plan with a VFR on top clearance in lieu of an assigned altitude. If you receive this clearance and fly a course of 180 degrees at what altitude should you fly?
An even thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500’
70
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?
Light quartering tailwind
71
When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?
When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR
72
A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used
In lieu of conducting a SIAP
73
Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
Destination airport, altitude, DP name, number, and/or transition, if appropriate
74
What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500’ with a VFR on top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace)
5 SM, 1,000’ above, 1,000’ below, and 1 mile horizontal
75
Does the ATC term “cleared to cruise” apply to helicopter IFR operations?
Yes, in part it authorizes the pilot to commence the approach at the destination airport at pilot’s discretion
76
What is the minimum in flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200’ AGL under special VFR during daylight hours?
1 mile visibility; clear of clouds
77
When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?
Automatically when T. Instructs the pilot to contact the tower
78
Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because
Of the high angle of attack and high gross weight
79
Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?
DPs, STARs, and visual approach
80
How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower or flight service station (FSS) on the field?
Upon landing, you must close your flight o,an by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility
81
Having appropriate instrument lighting will
Enable better recognition of outside references
82
What in-flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500’ MSL (ABOVE 1,200’ AGL) in Class G airspace in VFR conditions during daylight hours?
1 mile visibility; 1,000’ above; 2,000’ horizontally; 500’ below
83
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the ‘taxiway directional sign’ indicates
Designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection
84
What’s true regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?
The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation
85
Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?
REIL
86
What altitude May a pilot select upon receiving a VFR on top clearance?
Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions
87
What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?
The pilot must request a contact approach;the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist
88
What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification
89
What is the pilot in command’s responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160?
Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots
90
Runway hold position markings on the taxiway
Identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway
91
You are assigned a descent VIA STAR by ATC but have been told “except maintain 11,000” you are approaching a fix at 230 knots that has a 9,000 foot restriction published along with a speed restriction of 210 knots. You are expected to:
Maintain 11,000’ and slow to cross the fix at 210 knots
92
How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?
Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly
93
When can a VFR on top clearance be assigned by ATC?
Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be acceptable
94
What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?
Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal
95
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
Rely on the indication of the flight instrument
96
You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?
Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility
97
What does the ATC term “Radar contact” signify?
Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated
98
Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of
Rising or falling
99
If you request and are approved for VFR on top this means you:
Must continue to follow IFR rules and procedures but maintain VMC at VFR altitude
100
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area
101
With winds from 330 at 4 knots you are given instructions to taxi runway 4 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner departs from runway 29. What effect would you expect from that airliner’s vortices?
The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway
102
When operating under IFR with a VFR on top clearance, what altitude should be maintained?
A VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC
103
What is meant when departure control instructs you to resume own navigation after you have been vectored to Victor airway?
You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment
104
One alcoholic drink (one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer, or four ounces of wine) can be detected in the breath and blood for at least:
3 hours
105
Which ATC clearance should instrument rated pilots request in order to climb through a cloud layer or an area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight VFR?
To VFR on top
106
Under which of the following circumstances will ATC issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight?
When the pilot requests it
107
What is expected of you as a pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?
Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you
108
The operation of an airport rotating beacon. During daylight hours may indicate that:
The ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in class B, C, or D airspace
109
When departing from an airport not served by a control tower the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that:
The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible but no later than 30 minutes of their intentions if not off by the void time
110
The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will
Constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath
111
Which use of cockpit lighting is correct for night flight?
Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level
112
A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation if
Body signals are used to interpret flight attitude
113
The ‘No Entry’ sign identifies
Paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited
114
A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to:
Vacate 4,000’ without notifying ATC
115
Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?
Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions
116
Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?
Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot’s reaction are affected
117
If you are performing a VFR practice instrument approach and radar approach control assigns an altitude or heading the will cause you to enter the clouds, what action should you take?
Advise “unable” and remain clear of clouds
118
Pilot fatigue is
Hazardous because it leads to a decrease in the ability to carry out tasks
119
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
When departing from a runway intersection
120
The best way to counter the effects of spatial disorientation is to:
Trust your flight instruments and disregard your sensory perception
121
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “CRUISE SIX THOUSAND”
Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000’ at the pilots discretion
122
An instrument rated pilot who has not logged any instrument time in 1 year or more cannot serve as pilot in command under IFR unless the pilot
Passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved given by an approved FAA examiner, instrument instructor or FAA inspector
123
When installed with the old and specified in the approach procedures DME may be used
In lieu of the OM
124
What is true regarding parallel ILS approaches
Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1 1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course
125
Hike recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the:
Airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and the VSI reversed its trend
126
High instrument indicates the quality of a turn?
Ball of the turn coordinator
127
When an. Aircraft is decelerated so,e attitude indicators will process and incorrectly indicate a
Descent
128
If while in level flight it becomes necessary to use and alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect?
The altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb
129
Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in Radar contact?
When leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach
130
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
A stable layer of air
131
The suffix “nimbus” used in naming clouds means a
Rain cloud
132
In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation
Freezing rain
133
Fog is usually prevalent in industrial areas because of:
An abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products
134
When is the wind group at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the winds and temperature aloft forecast? When the wind:
At the altitude is within 1,500’ of the station elevation
135
While flying on a 3 degree glide slope a headwind sheers to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on the glideslope
Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glideslope
136
Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance?
Destination airport, altitude, DP name, number, and/or transition if appropriate
137
A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used
In lieu of conduction SIAP
138
How would an aircraft be checked for frost during preflight?
Using your hands to physically check the wings and control surfaces
139
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that
The ceiling is more than 5,000’ and visibility is 5 miles or more
140
If the RVR is not reported what meteorological value should you substitute for 2,400 RVR?
A ground visibility of 1/2 SM
141
How can you obtain pressure altitude on flights below 18,000’?
Set your altimeter to 29.92” Hg
142
What indication should a pilot observe if an airspeed indicator ram air and drain hole are blocked?
The airspeed indicator will react as an altimeter
143
If an airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which instruments should be relied on to determine pitch and attitude before starting recovery?
Airspeed and altimeter
144
What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?
The magnetic dip characteristic
145
Errors in both pitch and bank indicator on an attitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a
180 degree turn
146
To enter a constant airspeed descent from level cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed the pilot should:
Simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed
147
What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
To advise of change in flight data which affect instrument approach procedure (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication
148
What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?
Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs
149
Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?
Slant range distance in NM
150
Where is DME required under IFR?
At or above 24,000’ MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.
151
When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the:
360 radial
152
What are some characteristics of unstable air?
Turbulence and good surface visibility
153
What is indicated by the term “embedded thunderstorms?
Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen
154
An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots within a microburst May expect a total shear across a microburst of
90 knots
155
A hand-held GPS system
Is it authorized for IFR navigation
