ifsta Chapter 3

Question 1

Which NFPA Standard provides minimum qualifications for an apparatus driver/operator?

Answer 1

1002

Question 2

What is considered a requirement to meet the intent of NFPA 1002?

Answer 2

Firefighter I

Question 3

Which NFPA Standard covers a periodic medical evaluation that should be administered in order to
establish and maintain a driver/operator’s fitness for duty?

Answer 3

1500

Question 4

Which NFPA Standard accounts for and provides specific standards for visual acuity and adequate
hearing?

Answer 4

) 1582

Question 5

What is defined as an act of doing something with a conscious awareness of danger while ignoring any
potential consequences of doing said action?

Answer 5

Reckless disregard

Question 6

Willful and wanton disregard.

Answer 6

Gross Negligence

Question 7

Breach of duty in which a person or organization fails to perform at the standard required by law, or that would be expected by a reasonable person under similar circumstances.

Answer 7

Negligence

Question 8

Driver/ operators drive with “due regard” for the safety of others using the highways. State vehicle codes provide and give special privileges to the operators or emergency vehicles; however, this does not relieve the operator from the duty and responsibility to drive with “due regard” for the safety of others.

Answer 8

Due regard

Question 9

What is considered the most important responsibility of the driver/operator?

Answer 9

To operate the apparatus safely

Question 10

Where is the most common place for a collision to occur?

Answer 10

An intersection

Question 11

What type of accidents generally account for a significant percentage pf all damage repair costs?

Answer 11

Backing

Question 12

— Perception of one’s surrounding environment and the ability to anticipate future events.

Answer 12

Situational Awareness

Question 13

What is the loss of braking function due to excessive use of the brakes?

Answer 13

Brake Fade

Question 14

Which two NFPA Standards establish requirements for seat belt use on apparatus?

Answer 14

1901 and 1500

Question 15

Riding on the tailboard, front bumper or running boards of any moving apparatus is specifically
prohibited by what NFPA Standard?

Answer 15

1500

Question 16

How long should an operator allow the vehicle to idle to cool down to a normal operating
temperature after a full load operation?

Answer 16

3 to 5 min

Question 17

What is the total stopping distance?

Answer 17

) The sum of the driver/operator’s reaction distance and the vehicle’s braking distance

Question 18

What is an uncontrolled slide across a surface in a wheeled vehicle

Answer 18

Skid

Question 19

NFPA 1901 requires all apparatus with a GVWR of what be equipped with an auxiliary braking system?

Answer 19

36,000lb or greater

Question 20

What is the purpose of a driver controlled differential lock?

Answer 20

To improve traction and handling during off-road and wet weather conditions

Question 21

Who or what is always the most important player in safe vehicle operation?

Answer 21

The driver

Question 22

How should hand signals be given when backing a vehicle?

Answer 22

Slow, exaggerate motion

Question 23

What NFPA provides specific directions on driver/operator candidate’s evaluation?

Answer 23

) 1002

Question 24

NFPA 1901 states that all equipment not needed while driving should be placed where?

Answer 24

Secured or stored in compartments

Question 25

Which agency/jurisdiction is responsible for establishing the basic requirements for licensing a driver?

Answer 25

The department of Transportation

Question 26

Which of the following is an example of an apparatus driver guilty of negligence?

Answer 26

A) backing into a stationary object with designated backers in place B) a driver operating a vehicle under the influence of alcohol ( correct ) C) proceeding through a traffic controlled intersection at a given speed and striking a vehicle D) gross violation of standing laws or policies

Question 27

Which indicator light signifies that the exhaust system is very hot?

Answer 27

) High exhaust system temperature indicator

Question 28

Which indicator light signifies that the diesel particulate filter is loading up with soot?

Answer 28

the DPF indicator

Question 29

What part of the exhaust system allows the driver operator to manually initiate an active regeneration to burn off the DPF soot load?

Answer 29

) the parked or manual regeneration switch

Question 30

Which action can be taken by the driver operator to keep the engine for initiating an active regen?

Answer 30

activate the regeneration inhibit switch

Question 31

What are the two active regeneration methods that can remove DPF particles from the exhaust system?

Answer 31

automatic mode and parked mode ( manual)

Question 32

When should the DEF tank be topped off with fluid?

Answer 32

every time the apparatus is fueled up with diesel

Question 33

After initiating an active or parked regen the engine temperature becomes extremely hot. To reduce damage to the motor, the driver operator should allow the vehicle to idle for:

Answer 33

3-5 minutes to normal operating temperature

Question 34

When should the driver operator make their initial mirror adjustments?

Answer 34

at the start of each shift

Question 35

Which point of contact is best defined as the angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the front tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus?

Answer 35

angle of approach

Question 36

the angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground and the lowest projection at the rear of the apparatus

Answer 36

angle of departure

Question 37

) the angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the frame at the wheelbase midpoint

Answer 37

"breakover angle"

Question 38

How much longer can it take to bring a piece of apparatus to a complete stop during snow and ice conditions?

Answer 38

3-15 times greater

Question 39

At what speed can an emergency vehicle outrun the effective range of its audible warning devices?

Answer 39

speeds above 50 mph

Question 40

How much space should be between two emergency vehicles that are traveling in the same direction on the same route?

Answer 40

300-500 feet

Question 41

What is the main cause of a locked wheel skid?

Answer 41

braking too hard at high speeds

Question 42

What is the main cause of an acceleration skid?

Answer 42

) when the drive wheels lose traction with the road surface

Question 43

The driver operator should never search for hydraulic leaks in high pressure hydraulic lines because

Answer 43

pressures as low as 100 psi can penetrate skin

Question 44

Maintaining what can lower the chances of being involved in a collision?

Answer 44

situational awareness