ila Flashcards

(139 cards)

1
Q

5 stages of atherosclerosis

A
fatty streak
intermediate lesion
fibrous cap covered
plaque rupture
plaque erosion
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2
Q

endothelial barrier damaged by what

A
lipids - LDL cholesterol
smoking toxins 
 - free radical
- CO
- nicotine
hypertension
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3
Q

atherosclerosis occurs where in the vessel

A

intima of arteries

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4
Q

what attracts monocytes to the fatty streak

A

LDL cholesterol is oxidised and modified which send cytokines out

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5
Q

what are foam cells

A

lipid laden macrophages (full of LDL cholesterol) that die full

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6
Q

what cells are in a fatty streak

A

t cells
foam cells
LDL cholesterol

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7
Q

what cells are in an intermediate lesion

A
t cells
foam cells
LDL cholesterol
platelets
smooth muscle cells
pools of extracellular lipid
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8
Q

where do smooth muscle cells migrate from into intermediate lesion of atherosclerotic plaque

A

tunica media

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9
Q

what is the positive feedback loop in athergenesis

A

foam cells release cytokines (interleukin 1, 6, CRP) to attract more monocytes (that become macrophage foam cells) and T cells

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10
Q

what is the fibrous cap of plaque made of and where does it come from

A

smooth muscle cells secrete collagen and elastin

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11
Q

what do smooth muscle cells produce in atherogenesis

A

collagen
elastin
– these for fibrous cap

calcium
– stiffens plaque

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12
Q

and what stage in atherogenesis does angiogenesis occur

A

fibrous cap covered stage

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13
Q

what makes up the fibrous cap stage of atheroma

A
t cells
foam cells
LDL cholesterol / pools of extracellular lipid
calcium
platelets
smooth muscle cells
angiogenesis
connective tissue : elastin and collagen
necrotic core (as it gets big!)
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14
Q

race associated with atherosclerosis

A

south asian

white

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15
Q

gender associated with atherosclerosis

A

male

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16
Q

name a condition that increases risk of atherosclerosis

A

diabetes (type 2>1)
hypertension
hyperlipidema
obesity

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17
Q

why does high glucose increase risk of atherosclerosis

A

blood slowed
increase in free radicals
LDL modified –> inflammation

diabetes

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18
Q

why does high cholesterol increase risk of atherosclerosis

A

damages endothelium
more LDL into intima
pro inflammatory when oxidised in fatty streak
hypercoagulation

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19
Q

why does smoking increase risk of atherosclerosis

A

CO, nictotine, free radicals are toxins that damage the endothelium
increases LDL
hypercoagulation

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20
Q

why is low activity arisk factor for atheroma

A

slows blood
more LDL in HDL/LDL balance
higher BP
higher fat

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21
Q

endartectomy =

A

plaque removal

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22
Q

angioplasty

A

stent

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23
Q

atheroma pharmocological treatment

A

statins- reduce cholest
antihypertensives
anticoagulants/antiplatelets
diabetes medication

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24
Q

how does allergen cause mast cell activation

A
immunological: 
allergen interacts with B cells
b cells --> antibodies igE
ig E attaches to mast cells/ basophils
mast cells activated

non-immunological:
antigen on trigger cell binds directly to mast cell
mast cell activated

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25
what are the mediators of allergic response / allergen attack
mast cells
26
what happens when mast cells activated
mast cells release cytokines and inflammatory mediators so.. ``` wbc recruited histamine released (from mast cells/basophils) ```
27
histamine effect
bronchial smooth muscle contraction vasodilation vascular permability rises -- liquid leaks from vessels
28
mast cells vs basophils
mast cells = mature basophils
29
proteolytic trigger for anaphylaxis =
allergen can cross skin and mucosal barriers
30
aerodynamic trigger for anaphylaxis=
trigger can get into nasal and broncial mucosa
31
during anaphylaxis, what causes inflammatory cells to infilatrate
neutrophil and eosinophil chemotactic factors
32
which of the anaphylaxis mediators are preformed vs newly formed
preformed = HENS histamine, eosinophil and neutrophil chemotactic factors serotonin newly formed: PT prostaglandins and thromboxanes
33
what is the role of prostaglandins and thromboxanes
platelet activator factor
34
what causes the sob, wheeze, shallow breaths of anaphylaxis?
histamine - bronchoconstriction of smooth muscle - vasodilation and vascular permeability --> swelling of throat and tongue
35
what causes the low BP and light headed , confusion, collapsing symptoms of anaphylaxis
histamine | -vasodilation and leaky vessels (increase permeability)
36
what causes the rash in anaphylaxis
histamine | - redness due to vasodilation
37
what causes the tachycardia /arrythmia in anaphylaxis
histamine - due to vasodilation and increased vascualr permability, reduced perfusion --> abdominal cramps, vomiting - heart works harder to compensate for reduced perfusion -- baroreceptors - histamine increases heart rate
38
if a patient with anaphylaxis is having breathing problems, how should they be positioned
sat upright
39
if a patient with anaphylaxis is unconcious, how should they be postioned
recovery position
40
if a patient with anaphylaxis has low bP how should they be
lying flat - feet raised
41
after ABCDE, patient positioning and trigger removal what is the next key step for anaphylaxis treatment and how much
adrenaline IM 500 μg microgrmas repear dose every 5 mins if shock persists
42
action of adrenaline on alpha adrenoreceptor (how does this affect heart)
- peripheral vasoconstriction, vascular resistance - BP increases - coronary perfusion increases
43
action of adrenaline on beta 2 adrenoreceptors
- dilates airways | - reduces oedema (less leaky vessels
44
action of adrenaline on beta 1 adrenoreceptors
- increases HR (chonotropic) | - increases force of contraction (inotropic)
45
general action of adrenaline with both beta adrenoreceptors
suppresses histamine and other inflammatory mediator release
46
other treatment of anaphylaxis
antihistamine steroids oxygen (may be hypoxic) IV fluid (may be hypotensive)
47
name an antihistamine
chlorfemine
48
how do steroids act against anaphylaxis (by doing what specifically)
suppress immune response: suppress prostaglandin and leukotryin mediators
49
how can you confirm the patient's condition is anaphylaxis
blood test - rapid increase in tryptase = enzyme released from mast cells in any immune response) - too early/ late may give false negative - histamine levels - take multiple samples, spread by few hours (and compare to baseline)
50
antibody associated with anaphylaxis
igE
51
histamine effect on liver
stimulates glycogenolysis
52
histamine effect on fat
triggers lipolysis
53
protein binding property of a drug=
allows drug to be carried by a protein (eg albumin) in blood to destination - so lower plasma/unbound conc - there is competition for binding
54
effect of having high unbound conc of drug?
effect increases, potentially can be toxic
55
does bound or unbound drug cross the membrane
unbound
56
lipid soluble property of a drug =
high lipophlicity = more lipid soluble - drug can be absorbed in gut more easily - drug can cross biphosphate lipid membrane from blood into cells/tissues mostly passively - so more potent and more fast-acting
57
what kind of drug molecules are able to cross the blood brain barrier
unbound lipid soluble unionised
58
distribution of a drug
low distribution = high proportion at the effect site (and little elsewhere)
59
how does a drug distribute around the body (order) and how does this relate to why an additional booster of drug may be given
first to highly perfused areas (brain, lungs, liver). then gradually to less perfused areas too (muscle). this lowers the plasma concetration and so concentration distrubuted to highly perfused areas decreases (inc brain- which is where we want for anaesthetic for eg) - so booster given to boost brain amount- to keep patient asleep
60
agonist
binds to receptor to activate / stimulate it to obtain a response
61
inverse agonist
something that biinds to a receptor to activate it but has the opposite action/effect of the agonist
62
antagonist
reduced the effect of an agonist by reducing/removing stimulus and thus response - competitive and non-competitive antagonists
63
competitive antagonist
binds to the same (orthosteric) site as agonist does. this means the agonist is unable to bind. can be reversible (surmountable) or irreversible (insurmountable)
64
non competitive antagonist
binds to a different (allosteric) site as the agonist does. this causes a shape change that means the agonist can no longer bind. only irreversible (insurmountable)
65
orthosteric vs allosteric binding sites
same vs different binding sites described compet/noncompet inhibitors to an agonist
66
different targets of drugs
receptors - ligand gated ion channels( ligand binds to ion channel to open it) - g protein couples receptors (ligand binds to recptor on cell surface to activate g protein on inside --> signally cascade) - kinase linked receptors (ligand in active site causes conformational change that allows enzme activity inside target cell) - cytosolic/nuclear receptors (ligand enters cell (imported) and binds to DNA, switching on transcription for a specific gene) enzymes transporters ion channels
67
enzyme drug targets
drug binds to enzyme to decrease its activity
68
receptor drug targets
lignad binds to recpetors to cause response within target cell
69
bioavailability
fraction of drug absorbed into blood/ systemic circulation
70
bioavailability of morphone IV/ IM/ oral
100% IV nearly 100% IM -- goes from muscle directly to blood 50% oral
71
why is the bioavailability of oral drugs what it is?
first pass : (gut) liver: elimination
72
first pass effect on bioavailability
not all oral drug absorbed due to: intestine lumen - digestive enzymes metabolise drugs + colonic bacteria intestinal wall - contains enzymes that transport drugs back to lumen surgery may reduce surface area of absorption sites so some drug excreted in faeces sometimes liver is counted within this (another flashcard)
73
elimination(liver) effect on bioavailability
gut absorption --> blood --> portal vein --> liver --> metabolised aka eliminated (splanchnic circulation) IV: drug passes elsewhere before reaching liver
74
converting IV dose to oral (morphine)
2x | to compensate
75
effect of reduced renal function on morphine
kidney cant excrete so more in system - more potent - smaller dose given for renal patients
76
name 5 ideal qualities in a drug
1. low protein binding 2. high ionising proporion 3. lipophilic 4. no side effects 5. cheap 6. long lasting shelf life 7. stable in solution 8. rapid clearance and no active metabolites (= cant cause damage once metabolised, so less renal failure)
77
name 3 signs and 3 symptomson arterial thrombosis
1. perishingly cold 2. pulselessness 3. pallor 1. paralysis 2. pain - in muscle (+ cramps) 3. paraethesia numbness/tingling -
78
venous thrombosis signs/symptoms
``` red hot swollen increased pulse pain, cramps stiffness (looks like inflammation) ```
79
virchows triad
= 3 factors that contribute to thrombus development (pathologically) - stasis of blood - endothelial damage/injury - hypercoagulability
80
name 3 causes of blood stasis
1. AF (blood in atria) 2. pregnancy 3. low mobility 4. sickle cell anaemia 5. venous insufficiency - valves not working
81
name 3 causes of endothelial injury
1. smoking 2. hyperlipidimia 3. hypertension (same as atherosclerosis causes) 4. atherosclerosis?
82
name 5 causes of hypercoaguability and state whether they are inherited or aquired
inherited: 1. haemophilia = unable to make coagulation factors 8 or 9 2. coagulation factor deficiecy aquired: 3. malignancy/cancer 4. dehydration 5. oral contraceptive pill / post pregnancy / HRT (increase in prothrombin/ fibrinogen) 6. infection 7. heparin-induced thromocytopenia (isnt this the opposite of thrombogenesis?) also have since thought - polycythaemia (inc but not only rubra vera), DIC
83
undisturbed healthy endothelium prevents thrombus formation by:
producing prostacyclin - vasodilation - inhibits platelet activation producing NO - vasodilation - inhibits platelet aggregation
84
what in the endothelium is exposed with endothelial injury what part do these play what is released from damaged endothelium
collagen and von willebrand factor collagen: releases endothelin 1 --> vasoconstriction von Willebrand: platelets bind to vW at glycoprotein 1b also -- tissue factor is released
85
platelets release what 3 things, and what is their effect how do they release them
ATP and ADP - platelet amplification thrombin- platelet activation each have positive feedback loops released in secretory vesicles (Exocytosis)
86
what is activated platelet called
pseudopodia. it is spiculated it has more gcoprotein receptors exposed
87
fibrinogen binds to what effect
glycoprotein receptors on activated platelets effect= platelet aggregation (clump together)
88
what do platelets release after platelet aggregation effect
thromboxin A2 -> vasoconstriction and platelet activation (pos feedback)
89
tissue factor effect
extrinsic pathway of coagulation cascade : tissue factor causes prothrombin --> thrombin. thrombin causes fibrinogen to fibrin. fibrin = insoluble
90
what is clot made of
insoluble fibrin + aggregated activated platelets
91
which gender is at higher risk of thrombosis
men
92
well's score =
``` likelihood of getting a DVT (/PE) based on symptoms / risk factors - calf/whole leg swelling - superficial veins present - pitting oedema - local tenderness - paresis - paralysis - cancer - immobilisation/surgery - previous DVT - other diagnoses unlikely ```
93
test for DVT
D dimer elevation - this is a degradation product of fibrin (degraded by plasmin) positive result (elevation) isnt definitive (not specific - malignancy, pregnancy, operations) but negative result (no elevation) can rule DVT out!! ultrasound
94
DVT treatment | + explain action
heparin - indirect thrombin inhibitor (binds to antithrombin which binds to factor 10a and prevents thrombin functioning in the cascade) - increases prothrombin time warfarin - antagonist to vitamin k so stops blood clotting factors (1972) as these are activated by vit k - increases prothrombin time
95
what is heparin reversed by
protamine
96
what is warfarin reversed by
vitamin k
97
warfarin half life
36h = long | so is hard to reverse (Wait for half life + wait for vit k to activate factors again before they can work)
98
INR = stands for what is normal
international normalized ratio measure of blood clotting usually between 2 and 3
99
measure of blood clotting
``` INR prothrombin time (differs place to place) ```
100
DVT complications
- PE - - sudden, severe - post thrombotic syndrome - - long term affects due to scarring and damage to veins/valves or due to some blockage remaining. causes impaired venous return
101
name 5 PE symtpoms
``` 1 SOB/ trouble breathing/ 2 rapid breathing 3 chest pain 4 coughing, maybe blood 5 fainting/light headed 6 sweating/clammy 7 tachy 8 blueish 9 anxiety/restless ```
102
name 5 sympyoms of post thrombotic syndrome
``` 1 pain /ache/ cramping 2 heaviness 3 swelling, oedema 4 parasthesia - itching/pins needles 5 redness /discoluration 6 ulcers 7 mobilisation is a releiving factor ```
103
what is chronic venous insufficiency
the name fro post thrombotic syndrome when there has never been a DVT
104
AKI diagnosis criteria
increase in serum creatinine of 26+ μmol/L within 48h increase in serum creatinine of 1.5+ xbaseline from within past 7d urine volume less than 0.5mL/kg/h for 6h
105
AKI severity staging
stage 1 : 1.5-1.9 xbaseline serum creatinine stage 2 : 2.2.9 xbaseline serum creatinine stage 3 : 3+ x baseline serum creatinine or renal replacement therapy
106
if you have 1 kidney can you still have normal kidney function?
yes
107
prerenal causes of AKI pathophysiology
decrease in effective blood flow to kidney to decreased GFR kidneys recieve 20-25% of cardiac output so any failure of circulating blood volume / intra renal circulation has profound effect on renal perfusion
108
prerenal causes list
volume depletion- hypovolemia - haemorrhage - severe vom/diar - burns - over diuresis (renal fluid loss) - peritonitis edematous states - HF - hypotension CV - HF - hypotension - cardiogenic shock - MI - PE systemic vasodilation - liver cirrhosis - ACE i / antihypertensives - anaphylaxis increased cascular resistance - NSAIDs - renal vasoconstriction / thrombosis / stensosi - surgery - anasthesia severe infections/ sepsis
109
intrinsic AKI causes - glomerulus
- glomerulonephritis = inflammation of glomeruli / small vesselss causing them damage
110
intrinsic AKI causes!!!! - tubules | list
ISCHAEMIC - reduced blood flow so less oxygen/ nutrients/ ATP - - shock - - haemorrhage - - trauma - - bacteraemia - - pregnancy - - pancreatitis ``` NEPROTOXIC exogenous - antibiotics - contrast media - anasthetic - heavy metals - organic solvents - antineoplastic drugs endogenous - rhabdomyolysis = break down of damaged skeletal muscle = toxic to kidney - myoglobin - haemoglobin - uric acid ``` ATN- acute tubular necrosis = tubules damaged (normally by pre-renal damage)
111
intrinsic AKI causes - vascular pathophysiology
injury to intra renal vessels . this decreases renal perfusion and diminishes GFR
112
intrinsic AKI causes- vascular | list
large vessels - renal artery stenosis/ thrombosis (bilateral) small vessels - vasculitis (inflammation + scarring to blood vessels --> stiff, weak, narrow) - hypertension - atherosclerotic/thrombotic emboli
113
intrinsic AKI causes - | interstitum
infections (bacterial/viral) medications (antibiotics, diuretics, NSAIDs) AIN - acute intersitial nephritis = inflammation of kidneys as allergic to certain drugs( eg NSAIDs) or an infection
114
post renal AKI causes pathophysiology
disease states downstream of kidney, often obstruction. this increases tubular pressure and so decreases GFR. May also lead to impaired renal blood flow and inflammatory process (decreases GFR)
115
post renal AKI causes list
``` EXTRA RENAL OBSTRUCTION prostate hypertrophy (BPH/cancer) imporperly placed catheter bladder cancer cervical cancer retroperitoneal fibrosis ``` ``` INTRA RENAL OBSTRUCION kidney stone (nephrolithilasis) obstructed urinary catheter bladder stones blood clots ureter cancer (bilateral) ```
116
nephrotic vs nephritic
``` NEPHROTIC (kideny disease) loss of protein - big proteinuria (but no blood) hypoalbuminemia peripheral oedema hyperlipidiaemia ``` NEPHRITIC (glomeruli inflammation) loss of blood - haematuria - cola coloured urine little proteinuria oligurai
117
decreased blood volume causes what (RAAS)
kidney cells produce renin. this converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1. this is converted to angiotensin 2 by ACE (from lungs). angiotensin 2 causes 1) vasoconstriction 2) aldosterone production (adrenal cortex) - so tubules reabsorb more Na and water into blood 3) ADH (from hypothalamus) - so thirst increases and water is reabsorbed in kidney tubules and collecting duct (aqua porin 2)
118
increase in BP effect on HR
detected by baroreceptors (carotid sinus, aortic arch) --> | HR decreases
119
NSAID effect on kidneys
NSAIDS are toxic to kidneys, can induce AKI NSAIDs inhibit COX enzyme COX enxyme synthesises prostaglandins prostaglandins cause afferent arteriolar vasodialtion (and diminished vascular resisitance) so NSAIDs --> afferent arteriole vasoconstriction, higher vascualr resistance, reduced renal perfusion, slower GFR,
120
AKI ECG
``` hyperkalemia so tall tented T waves loss of P waves - flatteneed pathological Q wave wide QRS may then cause bradycardia ```
121
K normal range
3.5-5.4
122
how to correct for hyperkalemia
insulin - drives K into cells using sodium- potassium ATPases - insulin also drives glucose into cells SO need to give dextrose (glucose) with it to counter this
123
how much dextrose given per insulin
10 units of insulin in 50 ml of 50% dextrose over 10-15 mins
124
TIA vs stroke
TIA symptoms resolves spontaneously, within 24h this is because the clot dissolves/moves on on its own
125
amaurosis fugax - = - cause
fleeting sudden onset loss of vision in one or both eyes. painless. lots of causes but for TIA/stroke is atherosclerosis or thromboembolism in - -internal carotid artery - -opthalmic artery - -retinal artery - leading to temporary retinal hypoxia
126
what is the name for transient visual disturbance of loss in one or both eyes
amaurosis fugax
127
stroke relation to AF
atrial fibrillation --> rapid, irregular palpitations , uncoordinated atrial contraction --> blood collects and pools --> stasis--> clot formation --> stroke
128
stroke affecting lower limb is clot where?
anterior cerebral artery
129
stroke affecting upper limb/ face is clot where?
middle cerebral artery
130
cause of increased intracranial pressure in haemorrhagic stroke (2)
blood itself --> takes up space --> increased ICP + blood comes into contact with cerebral neurons → inflammatory response→ swelling and oedema → increased intracranial pressure
131
cause of increased intracranial pressure in ischaemic stroke
ischaemic/ necrosing tissue → inflammatory response → swelling and oedema → increased intracranial pressure
132
total anterior circulations stroke (TACS) - where - which arteries - criteria
Large stroke in cortex anterior or middle cerebral arteries ``` Criteria: all of the following Unilateral weakness and/or sensory deficit of face/limbs Homonymous hemianopia (losing same side of vision in both eyes) Higher cerebral dysfunction ```
133
Partial anterior circulation stroke (PACS) - where - which arteries - criteria
In cortex Anterior or middle cerebral arteries ``` Criteria: 2 or the following Unilateral weakness and/or sensory deficit of face/limbs Homonymous hemianopia (losing same side of vision in both eyes) Higher cerebral dysfunction ```
134
Lacunar stroke (LACS) - where - which arteries - criteria
Subcortical In small deep perforating arteries -- internal capsule, midbrain Criteria Pure motor, sensory or sensorimotor (2 of face, arm, leg) Ataxic hemiparesis (weakness + clumsiness + lack of control - affects leg more than arm)
135
Posterior circulation stroke (POCS) - where - which arteries - criteria
Posterior cerebral artery (Cortical), basilar artery + branches (cerebellum) vertebral artery (brainstem) Criteria: Cerebellar or brainstem syndrome Loss of consciousness Isolated homonymous hemianopia
136
what is the affect of increased intracranial pressure
CSF, venous system, arteries == squashed!! Cerebral perfusion pressure in the arteries is not high enough to perfuse the brain properly ICP> mean arterial blood pressure (perfusion pressure)... arteriole compresses Brain not perfused → brain more ischaemic
137
what symptoms do you see with increased intracranial pressure? what is this reflex called?
hypertension bradycardia irregular breathing (dyspnea--> apnea) = cushings reflex and papilloedema
138
what is the explanation between the symptoms of increased intracranial pressure
cerebral ischemia → sympathetic (fight/flight) - - Stimulatees alpha 1 adrenergic receptors = vasoconstriction → hypertension - -Stimulates beta 1 receptors→ increased heart rate (Tachy) hypertension --> Stimulates baroreceptor in aortic arch → parasympathetic → decrease heart rate (brady) via m2 receptors Hypertension → presses on respiratory centre on brain stem→ irregular breathing
139
when you see cushing reflex , what does this indicate
increased intracranial pressure this is an acute emergency brain herniation/ death is imminent