Immunology Flashcards
(50 cards)
A 3-month-old male infant presents with recurrent pneumonia, chronic diarrhea, and oral thrush. He has lymphopenia and absent thymic shadow on chest X-ray. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) DiGeorge syndrome
b) X-linked agammaglobulinemia
c) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
d) Chronic granulomatous disease
Correct Answer: c
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) is a life-threatening primary immunodeficiency that presents in infancy with recurrent infections, chronic diarrhea, oral thrush, and failure to thrive. Absent thymic shadow, lymphopenia, and severe T-cell deficiency are classic findings. DiGeorge syndrome may also show thymic hypoplasia but includes hypocalcemia and cardiac defects. X-linked agammaglobulinemia shows low B cells and Ig levels, but normal T cell count. CGD presents with recurrent catalase-positive infections, not lymphopenia.
A 6-month-old boy presents with recurrent otitis media and pneumonia. Lab results show very low levels of all immunoglobulin classes and absent B cells. Which gene is most likely mutated?
a) CD40 ligand
b) BTK (Bruton’s tyrosine kinase)
c) RAG1
d) CYBB
Correct Answer: b
X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton’s disease) is caused by a mutation in the BTK gene, leading to a block in B-cell development. This results in absent B cells and very low levels of all immunoglobulin isotypes. It typically presents after 6 months of age when maternal IgG wanes. CD40L mutations cause Hyper-IgM syndrome. RAG1 mutations affect V(D)J recombination, leading to SCID. CYBB mutations cause CGD.
A child presents with recurrent sinopulmonary infections and has elevated serum IgM with low IgG and IgA. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Common variable immunodeficiency
b) Hyper-IgM syndrome
c) Selective IgA deficiency
d) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Correct Answer: b
Hyper-IgM syndrome is caused by a defect in class-switch recombination, often due to CD40 ligand (CD40L) deficiency on T cells. This leads to normal or elevated IgM with markedly low IgG, IgA, and IgE, resulting in recurrent sinopulmonary and opportunistic infections. CVID shows low IgG and either IgA or IgM but usually in older children. Selective IgA deficiency presents with low IgA only. Wiskott-Aldrich has eczema, thrombocytopenia, and recurrent infections.
A 5-year-old boy has a history of recurrent skin abscesses and pneumonia with catalase-positive organisms. The Nitroblue Tetrazolium (NBT) test is abnormal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
b) Chronic granulomatous disease
c) Severe combined immunodeficiency
d) Hyper-IgE syndrome
Correct Answer: b
Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD) results from a defect in the NADPH oxidase complex, leading to impaired production of reactive oxygen species. Children present with recurrent infections by catalase-positive organisms (e.g., Staph aureus, Serratia, Nocardia, Aspergillus). The NBT test is abnormal (fails to turn blue) due to defective neutrophil oxidative burst. LAD presents with delayed cord separation and poor wound healing. SCID presents in infancy with lymphopenia. Hyper-IgE syndrome involves eczema and coarse facies.
A male infant has persistent diarrhea, failure to thrive, and severe eczema. Labs show thrombocytopenia with small platelets, elevated IgE and IgA, and low IgM. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Severe combined immunodeficiency
b) Hyper-IgM syndrome
c) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d) Ataxia-telangiectasia
Correct Answer: c
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by a mutation in the WASP gene. It presents with the triad of eczema, recurrent infections, and thrombocytopenia with small platelets. Immunoglobulin profile shows low IgM and elevated IgA and IgE. SCID presents earlier with lymphopenia. Hyper-IgM syndrome has high IgM. Ataxia-telangiectasia features ataxia and telangiectasias, not eczema or thrombocytopenia.
A 4-year-old child presents with recurrent respiratory tract infections. He has normal B and T cell counts but markedly reduced serum IgG and IgA. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Selective IgA deficiency
b) Hyper-IgM syndrome
c) Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
d) X-linked agammaglobulinemia
Correct Answer: c
Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID) presents in older children or adults with recurrent infections, particularly of the respiratory tract. It is characterized by low IgG and low IgA and/or IgM, despite normal numbers of B and T cells. Selective IgA deficiency involves only low IgA. Hyper-IgM syndrome has high or normal IgM with low other Ig classes. X-linked agammaglobulinemia has absent B cells and all immunoglobulins.
A 6-year-old boy has a history of ataxia, recurrent sinopulmonary infections, and visible dilated conjunctival blood vessels. Which laboratory finding is most likely?
a) Elevated IgM
b) Decreased serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
c) Decreased serum IgA
d) Increased neutrophil oxidative burst
Correct Answer: c
Ataxia-telangiectasia is a primary immunodeficiency caused by mutations in the ATM gene. It presents with a triad of progressive cerebellar ataxia, oculocutaneous telangiectasias, and immunodeficiency (especially low IgA). AFP is typically elevated, not decreased. Elevated IgM is more typical of Hyper-IgM syndrome. Neutrophil oxidative burst is impaired in CGD, not A-T.
A 10-month-old infant presents with recurrent Candida infections of the mouth and skin. Which immune defect is most likely responsible?
a) T-cell dysfunction
b) B-cell dysfunction
c) Neutrophil dysfunction
d) Complement deficiency
Correct Answer: a
Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis is typically due to T-cell dysfunction, particularly affecting the Th17 pathway, which impairs mucosal immunity against fungal pathogens like Candida. B-cell dysfunction results in bacterial infections. Neutrophil dysfunction (e.g., CGD) leads to catalase-positive bacterial/fungal infections. Complement deficiencies predispose to encapsulated bacterial infections and Neisseria infections.
A 7-year-old boy presents with recurrent meningococcal infections. Which of the following immunologic investigations is most appropriate to perform first?
a) Nitroblue tetrazolium test
b) Serum immunoglobulin levels
c) CH50 complement assay
d) Dihydrorhodamine (DHR) test
Correct Answer: c
Recurrent Neisseria (meningococcal) infections strongly suggest a terminal complement deficiency (C5–C9), which impairs formation of the membrane attack complex (MAC). The CH50 assay is a functional screen of the classical complement pathway, useful to detect such deficiencies. NBT and DHR are used for diagnosing CGD. Serum Ig levels assess antibody-mediated immunity.
A newborn has delayed separation of the umbilical cord, omphalitis, and persistent leukocytosis. Which of the following is the most likely underlying defect?
a) NADPH oxidase deficiency
b) CD18 integrin deficiency
c) CD40L mutation
d) BTK gene mutation
Correct Answer: b
Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency (LAD) is caused by a CD18 integrin deficiency, which impairs leukocyte migration and adhesion. It presents with delayed cord separation (>30 days), recurrent bacterial infections without pus, and marked leukocytosis. NADPH oxidase deficiency causes CGD. CD40L mutation causes Hyper-IgM syndrome. BTK mutation causes X-linked agammaglobulinemia.
Which of the following laboratory findings is most consistent with Selective IgA deficiency?
a) Low IgG, low IgA, low IgM
b) Normal IgG, low IgA, normal IgM
c) Low IgG, low IgM, normal IgA
d) Low IgG, normal IgA, low IgE
Correct Answer: b
Selective IgA deficiency is the most common primary immunodeficiency. It is characterized by isolated low serum IgA with normal IgG and IgM levels. Most patients are asymptomatic, but some may present with recurrent mucosal infections, allergies, or autoimmune disorders. Other immunoglobulin levels are typically unaffected.
A 9-month-old infant presents with recurrent pneumonia and chronic diarrhea. Flow cytometry shows absence of both CD3+ and CD19+ cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) X-linked agammaglobulinemia
b) DiGeorge syndrome
c) SCID (T-B- type)
d) Hyper-IgM syndrome
Correct Answer: c
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) of the T−B− type shows absence of both T cells (CD3+) and B cells (CD19+). It presents early in life with severe infections, failure to thrive, diarrhea, and lymphopenia. X-linked agammaglobulinemia has absent B cells but normal T cells. DiGeorge syndrome has low T cells but normal B cells. Hyper-IgM syndrome has normal B cell numbers and abnormal class switching.
A child has recurrent infections and is found to have a normal neutrophil count but defective intracellular killing. Which of the following tests is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis?
a) CH50 assay
b) Nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) test
c) Flow cytometry for CD3 and CD19
d) Serum immunoglobulin levels
Correct Answer: b
Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD) presents with recurrent infections due to impaired intracellular killing by neutrophils, despite a normal neutrophil count. The Nitroblue Tetrazolium (NBT) test is used to assess the oxidative burst function of neutrophils. An abnormal test (no color change) indicates CGD. CH50 assesses complement. Flow cytometry for CD markers is used for lymphocyte evaluation. Serum immunoglobulins are normal in CGD.
Which of the following is a hallmark of C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency?
a) Urticaria with pruritus
b) Angioedema without urticaria
c) Petechiae and purpura
d) Bronchospasm with wheezing
Correct Answer: b
C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency causes Hereditary Angioedema (HAE), which presents with recurrent episodes of angioedema without urticaria or pruritus. It is due to uncontrolled bradykinin production leading to vascular leakage. The absence of urticaria distinguishes it from allergic angioedema. Petechiae and purpura suggest a bleeding disorder, and bronchospasm is characteristic of asthma or anaphylaxis.
A 2-year-old child with recurrent pneumonia is found to have normal levels of all immunoglobulins. Flow cytometry shows absent class-switched memory B cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Selective IgA deficiency
b) X-linked agammaglobulinemia
c) Hyper-IgM syndrome
d) Common variable immunodeficiency
Correct Answer: c
Hyper-IgM syndrome is caused by a defect in class switch recombination, typically due to CD40L mutation on T cells. It results in inability of B cells to undergo isotype switching, leading to absent class-switched memory B cells, despite normal or elevated IgM. IgA deficiency does not affect class switching globally. X-linked agammaglobulinemia shows absent B cells. CVID presents later with low IgG and impaired antibody responses.
A 6-year-old girl presents with a history of autoimmune hemolytic anemia, immune thrombocytopenia, and lymphadenopathy. Immunoglobulin levels show low IgG, low IgA, and normal IgM. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Hyper-IgM syndrome
b) Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
c) Selective IgA deficiency
d) Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS)
Correct Answer: b
Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID) can present with autoimmune complications (such as autoimmune cytopenias), lymphadenopathy, and low levels of IgG and IgA, often with normal or low IgM. It has a variable onset and may be associated with recurrent infections. Hyper-IgM typically has high IgM. Selective IgA deficiency does not cause autoimmune cytopenias. ALPS presents with autoimmune cytopenias and lymphoproliferation but without significant hypogammaglobulinemia.
A 3-year-old child presents with severe eczema, food allergies, and recurrent skin infections. Peripheral smear shows eosinophilia, and IgE levels are markedly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Hyper-IgM syndrome
b) Job syndrome (Hyper-IgE syndrome)
c) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d) Atopic dermatitis
Correct Answer: b
Job syndrome (Hyper-IgE syndrome) is characterized by eczema, recurrent staphylococcal skin infections, eosinophilia, and very high IgE levels. It is often due to a STAT3 mutation leading to defective neutrophil chemotaxis. Hyper-IgM has high IgM, not IgE. Wiskott-Aldrich includes thrombocytopenia and immune deficiency. Atopic dermatitis alone doesn’t cause severe infections or extreme IgE elevation.
A child presents with persistent lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and autoimmune cytopenias. Laboratory tests show elevated double-negative T cells (CD3+ CD4− CD8−). What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
b) Severe combined immunodeficiency
c) Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS)
d) Common variable immunodeficiency
Correct Answer: c
Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS) is characterized by non-malignant lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and autoimmune cytopenias. A key diagnostic marker is the presence of elevated double-negative T cells (CD3+ CD4− CD8−). It results from mutations in the Fas pathway leading to defective apoptosis of lymphocytes. Wiskott-Aldrich presents with thrombocytopenia. SCID manifests early with infections and lymphopenia. CVID presents later and lacks elevated double-negative T cells.
Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in a child with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)?
a) Inactivated influenza vaccine
b) Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
c) Oral rotavirus vaccine
d) Hepatitis B vaccine
Correct Answer: c
Oral rotavirus vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine, and live vaccines are contraindicated in patients with SCID due to the risk of uncontrolled infection. Inactivated influenza, pneumococcal, and hepatitis B vaccines are safe and recommended for immunodeficient patients, including those with SCID, under specialist guidance.
A newborn presents with hypocalcemia, cleft palate, and congenital heart defects. Flow cytometry shows low CD3+ T cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) SCID
b) DiGeorge syndrome
c) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d) Ataxia-telangiectasia
Correct Answer: b
DiGeorge syndrome is caused by a 22q11.2 deletion, resulting in failure of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch development. Clinical features include hypocalcemia (due to hypoplasia of parathyroid glands), congenital heart defects, cleft palate, and T-cell deficiency (low CD3+ T cells) due to thymic hypoplasia. SCID presents with severe infections early in life. Wiskott-Aldrich includes thrombocytopenia and eczema. Ataxia-telangiectasia has cerebellar ataxia and telangiectasia, not hypocalcemia.
Which of the following findings best differentiates Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (WAS) from other primary immunodeficiencies?
a) Severe T-cell lymphopenia
b) Recurrent bacterial infections
c) Thrombocytopenia with small platelets
d) Elevated IgE and eosinophilia
Correct Answer: c
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (WAS) is an X-linked disorder caused by mutations in the WAS gene. It presents with a classic triad: eczema, recurrent infections, and thrombocytopenia with small-sized platelets. This platelet abnormality is a distinguishing feature not seen in other immunodeficiencies. T-cell lymphopenia and recurrent infections are common in many immunodeficiencies. Elevated IgE and eosinophilia are more typical of Job syndrome.
A 5-year-old child presents with progressive cerebellar ataxia and ocular telangiectasias. Immunological testing reveals low IgA levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
b) Ataxia-telangiectasia
c) DiGeorge syndrome
d) Hyper-IgM syndrome
Correct Answer: b
Ataxia-telangiectasia (AT) is a rare autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the ATM gene. It presents with progressive cerebellar ataxia, ocular telangiectasias, and immunodeficiency, particularly low IgA. It is also associated with increased risk of malignancy. Wiskott-Aldrich includes thrombocytopenia and eczema. DiGeorge syndrome includes hypocalcemia and cardiac defects. Hyper-IgM has elevated or normal IgM with low other immunoglobulins.
A 3-year-old child presents with recurrent infections, eczema, and bleeding tendencies. Labs show thrombocytopenia with small platelets and elevated IgE. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Job syndrome
b) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
c) SCID
d) Hyper-IgM syndrome
Correct Answer: b
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS) presents with a triad: eczema, recurrent infections, and thrombocytopenia with small platelets. It is caused by a mutation in the WAS gene. IgE may be elevated. Job syndrome has eczema and high IgE but no bleeding tendency. SCID involves profound immunodeficiency without thrombocytopenia. Hyper-IgM presents with normal platelet counts and recurrent infections.
Which of the following pathogens poses the highest risk in a child with chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)?
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Escherichia coli
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Haemophilus influenzae
Correct Answer: c
Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD) is a phagocyte disorder caused by defective NADPH oxidase, impairing oxidative burst. Patients are especially susceptible to catalase-positive organisms, such as Staphylococcus aureus, Serratia marcescens, Burkholderia cepacia, Nocardia, and Aspergillus. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae are encapsulated but not catalase-positive, and less associated with CGD.