Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

GI > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

(72 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What are functions of mucosal surfaces?

A

Gas exchange, food absorption, sensory activities, reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are mucosal surfaces portals of entry for?

A

Non-pathogenic antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the stability of mucosal surfaces?

A

Highly vulnerable due to fragility and permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some anatomical features of gut mucosal sites?

A

Intimate relationship between mucosal epithelia and lymphoid tissues, specialised antigen uptake mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are some effector features of gut mucosal sites?

A

Activated/memory T cells predominate, also natural/effector T cells and secretory IgA antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are immunoregulatory features of gut mucosal sites?

A

Active down regulation of immune response, inhibitory macrophages and tolerising dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where are intestinal lymphocytes found?

A

Organised tissues where immune responses are induced and scattered through the intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are Peyer’s patches?

A

Lymph nodes in the gut found under the columnar epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where do lymphatics go in Peyer’s patches?

A

Out but not in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where do antigens come from in terms of the gut?

A

The lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are Peyer’s patches covered by?

A

An epithelial layer containing specialised M cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are M cells?

A

Microvilli for absorption of antigens, characterised by membrane ruffles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where does cell proliferation occur?

A

Germinal centre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do M cells take up antigens?

A

Endocytosis or phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Once the antigen enters the M cell it is transported across it in a vesicle. Where are these released?

A

The basal surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

After passing through the M cell, what is an antigen bound by and what does this do?

A

Bound by dendritic cells which activates T cells (if there is the right inflammatory environment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What type of cell can extend processes across the epithelial layer to capture antigens from the lumen?

A

Dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where does the effector function of immunity take place?

A

Lamina propria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What cells does the lamina propria contain?

A

IgA producing plasma cells, memory lymphocytes, CD8 and CD4+ T cells, dendritic cells, macrophages and mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where do CD4+ T cells predominate?

A

Lamina propria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where do CD8+ T cells predominate?

A

Epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is not present in normal lamina propria?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where do T cells enter to become primed and redistributed?

A

Peyer’s patches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What happens to T cells becoming primed once they enter the Peyer’s patch?

A

They encounter M cells and become activated by dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Where do activated T cells drain via?
Mesenteric lymph nodes to the thoracic duct
26
What happens to T cells at the thoracic duct?
Return to gut via bloodstream
27
What is secondary immune response due to?
Increased numbers of cloned cells
28
What are MAdCAMs?
Molecular addressing molecules
29
What do MAdCAMs have integrin and chemokine receptors for?
T cells
30
Where is MAdCAM1 found?
Vasculature of gut and other mucosal sites
31
What antibody is mainly involved in intestinal response and in what form?
Dimeric IgA
32
Why is IgA found more in the gut than peripheries?
It is hard to digest
33
What other antibodies are involved in gut immunity?
Small amounts of IgM and even smaller amounts of IgG
34
What is the receptor for IgA and where is it found?
Poly-Ig receptor on the basolateral face of the epithelial cell
35
Where is IgA transcytosed to?
Apical face of the epithelial cell
36
What can secretory IgA on the gut surface do?
Bind and neutralise pathogens and toxins
37
Why is selective IgA deficiency not a huge problem?
IgM takes over its role
38
What are the main intra-epithelial lymphocytes?
Primarily T cells (majority CD8+ but some CD4+) and also some NKCs
39
What are the two types of recognition mechanisms of T cells?
Class I MHC or odd stress NKC for stress cells
40
What are lymphocytes in the epithelial gut lining known as?
Intra-epithelial lymphocytes
41
What are the functions of IELs?
Kill infected epithelial cells by perforin/granzyme and Fas dependent pathways
42
What can infection, damage or toxic peptides cause?
Cell stress
43
What do stressed cells possess?
MIC-A and MIC-B
44
How do stress cells get killed?
Natural killer cells bind to MIC A and B to activate IEL
45
How do CD4+T cells differentiate during a helminth infection?
TH1-TH2
46
What IL produced by TH2 cells in response to a helminth causes epithelial repair and mucus production?
IL13
47
What does IL5 do when produced by TH2 cells in helminth attack?
Recruits and activates eosinophils
48
What do TH2 cells do to B cells in helminth attack?
Drive them to produce IgE
49
What IL produced by TH2 cells in response to a helminth causes mast cell recruitment?
IL3 and IL9
50
What do TH1 cells do in response to helminths?
Activate macrophages and B cells to produce IgG
51
Which is better in helminth attack, TH1 or TH2?
TH2
52
What do mucosal immunodeficiencies usually present as?
Respiratory tract infections but some gut infections
53
What is important to know about selective IgA deficiency?
Sufferers are 10x more likely to have coeliac disease. They also may have an underlying immunodeficiency
54
What is common variable immunodeficiency a general term for?
Low immunoglobulins- failure to differentiate into Ig secreting cells
55
When does CVID usually present?
Adulthood
56
What is the problem in X-linked agammaglobulinaemia?
Mutation which stops B cells maturing
57
What is chronic granulomatous disease?
Commonly X-linked- failure of phagocyte respiratory burst
58
What does CGD present as?
Staph aureus infections or inflammatory granulomas causing pneumonia or abscesses
59
What treatment does CGD not respond to?
Anti-TNF
60
What is SCID?
Profound defect in T and B cell immunity
61
What are common presentations of SCID?
Oral candidiasis, chronic diarrhoea, interstitial pneumonitis, GI infections
62
What are type 1 hypersensitivity reactions initiated by crosslinking IgE on the surface of mast cells with an antigen?
Food allergies
63
What is coeliac disease?
Genetically linked, autoimmune disorder which damages the small intestine leading to malabsorption and hence malnutrition
64
What is coeliac disease not?
An allergy/IgE mediated
65
What is the immunopathology of coeliac disease mediated by?
T cells and IEL
66
What is the gene sequence required to have coeliac disease?
HLADQ2/8
67
What can severe cases of coeliac disease lead to?
Complete loss of villi
68
What is used to diagnose coeliac disease?
Biopsy in adults, serology and genetic screening in children
69
What is done before a biopsy to triage patients for coeliac disease?
Autoantibody test
70
What must the patient do for 2 weeks before a biopsy for Coeliac disease?
Eat gluten
71
Where is ulcerative colitis?
Rectum and colon- surface mucosa
72
What can ulcerative colitis develop?
Arthritis, uveitis, skin lesions

GI (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions