IMMUNOLOGY and BASIC PATHOLOGY1 Flashcards
(123 cards)
1
Q
Where will you find B cells in a lymph node? Where will you find plasma cells?
A
B cells = cortex; plasma cells = medullary cords
1
Q
Which cytokine turns a helper T cell into Th1, into Th2?
A
IL-12 turns a helper T cell into Th1; IL-4 turns a helper T cell into Th2
1
Q
Anti-Jo-1 ab
A
dermatomyositis, polymositis
2
Q
Name 4 cytokines secreted by Th2
A
IL-4, IL-5, IL-10, IL-13 (NOTE: IL-4 and IL-10 inhibit Th1)
3
Q
What is CD25?
A
alpha chain of the IL-2 receptor, expressed on Treg cells along with CD3 and CD4
3
Q
Neoplasm associated with autoimmune dz
A
lymphoma
4
Q
Which molecule increases both MHC 1 and 2 on all cells to enhance antigen presentation?
A
IFN gamma
6
Q
What are 3 blood findings on blood smear post-splenectomy?
A
Howell-Jolly bodies, Target cells, thrombocytosis
7
Q
What is a graft from an identical twin called?
A
Syngeneic graft
8
Q
Neoplasm associated with acanthosis nigricans
A
(visceral malignancy (stomach, lung, uterus)
9
Q
What is a xenograft?
A
Graft from another species
9
Q
What neoplasms are associated with trisomy 21
A
ALL and AML
9
Q
Neoplasm associated with Plummer vinson
A
SCC of esophagus
9
Q
Tumor and gene product of bcl-2 (oncogene or TS)
A
Follicular lymphoma, anti-apoptotic, oncogene
10
Q
Anti-SSB (La)
A
Sjogrens
11
Q
Which cell contains CD28? B7?
A
CD28 = T cell; B7 = B cell
11
Q
3 autoantibodies in dermatomyositis and polymositis
A
Anti-Jo-1, Anti-SRP, and Anti-Mi-2
12
Q
ANA antibodies
A
SLE (nonspecific)
13
Q
What is recombining in VJ recombination? V(D)J?
A
VJ = light chain; V(D)J = heavy chain; both contribute to Fab (variable) part that recognizes single antigen—this is actual DNA that is recombined. There are nucleotides added by a terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase
13
Q
T/F: CD4 T cells express MHC1
A
TRUE; however, their main fxn is to use MHC II to bind to CD4 T cells
13
Q
IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase
A
Celiac
14
Q
What aspect of the immune system is induced in live attenuated vaccines vs. inactivated and killed vaccines?
A
CMI; humoral
15
Q
Name 3 bacteria that do antigenic variation
A
Salmonella (2 flagellar variants), B. recurrentis (relapsing fever), and N. gonorrhea
16
Q
Which cells do not have MHC I?
A
RBC’s (only on nucleated cells)
16
What CD markers are expressed in cells undergoing positive selection in the thymic cortex?
BOTH 4 and 8, eventually then becomes 4 or 8 and goes to medulla for negative selection
17
Antimitochondrial ab
PBC (granulomatous!)
17
Autoantibody in mixed connective tissue disease
Anti-U1-RNP
18
What is the function of IL-12?
Induces differentiation of T cells into Th1 cells and activates NK cells
18
How do interferons alpha and beta work?
They inhibit viral protein synthesis by inducing cells to make a ribonuclease to cleave viral mRNA but not host mRNA!
18
How do NK cells bind IgG in ADCC?
They bind to Fc of IgG with CD16
19
Neoplasm associated with radiation (4)
Leukemia, Papillary thryoid CA, sarcoma, Breast CA
20
Tumor and gene product for L-myc (oncogene or TS)
Lung CA, transcription factor (oncogene)
21
What is the main isotype offering passive immunity in infants AFTER birth?
They have IgG for awhile, but IgA is in the breast milk
22
Which type of vaccines require boosters?
killed and toxoid etc. (anything that isnt live attenuated)
23
Which part of the lymph node contains high endothelial venules? What is their function?
Paracortex; allows B and T cells to enter from blood
24
Disease associated with HLA DR2 (4)
MS, Hay fever, Goodpasture's, and SLE
24
Tumor and gene product of ras (oncogene or TS)
Colon carcinoma, GTPase, oncogene
25
What is the usual cause of "serum sickness" now?
Drugs that act as haptens, not actual serum
26
Which neurologic disorders are type IV hypersens (2)?
Multiple sclerosis, Guillian Barre
27
Neoplasm associated with Barrets
Adenocarcinoma of esophagus
29
What disease involves a deficiency of DAF?
Decay Accelerating factor = Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (since DAF is attached by GPI anchor, acquired mutation involves loss of GPI anchor)
29
Anti-U1 RNP
Mixed connective tissue disease
30
IgM ab against Fc of IgG
Rheumatoid factor; Rheumatoid arthritis (anti-CCP is better)
30
Anti-thyroglobulin ab
Hashimoto Thyroiditis (DR5 HLA assoc)
31
Which cell can activate na?ve T cells?
Dendritic cells ONLY
33
What complement component helps to clear immune complexes?
C3b
34
What 2 cells contain CD40? Which contains CD14?
B cells and MO; MO
34
Anti-SSA (Ro)
Sjogrens
34
c-ANCA
(PR3-ANCA) Wegeners
35
Neoplasm associated with chronic atrophic gastritis
Gastric adenocarcinoma
36
2 neoplasms associated with Paget's of bone
Fibrosarcoma, osteosarcoma
37
Which parasites have antigenic variation?
Trypanosomes (T. cruzi; T. brucei)
39
What part of the antibody recognizes antigens?
Variable part of light and heavy chains
41
Disease associated with HLA DQ2 and DQ8
Celiac sprue
42
Neoplasm associated with dysplastic nevus
malignant melanoma
43
Disease associated with HLA DR4 (2)
RA and DM I
44
Which molecule has actions the most similar to IL-10?
TGF-B because it is anti-inflammatory
46
5 cytokines from MO
IL-1, TNF alpha, IL-6 (the pyrogens), and IL-12 and IL-8
47
Neoplasm associated with pernicious anemia
Gastric adenocarcinoma
49
Regarding the timing of an immune response, why is IgM a pentamer while IgG is a monomer?
As the humoral response (specific) is developing, IgM can trap more antigen even though it does so less specifically
50
What is the endotoxin receptor?? What is the implication?
CD14 on macrophages!!!! It binds to LPS which leads to direct stimulation and shock! MO release IL-1, IL-6 and most importantly TNF-alpha (all the pyrogens!!!!)
51
Neoplasm associated with gastric remnants from surgery
Gastric adenocarcinoma
53
Where will you find lymph follicles?
Outer cortex of lymph node
55
Disease associated with HLA DR5
Pernicious anemia and Hashimoto
56
Disease associated with HLA B27 (4)
Psoriatic arthritis, Ankylosing spondylitis, Inflammatory bowel disease, Reiter's
56
Neoplasms associated with Xeroderma pigmentosum and albinism
Basal cell CA, Melanoma, and SCC
57
Tumors and gene product of ret (oncogene or TS)
MEN 2A and 2B, tyrosine kinase, oncogene
58
Anti-dsDNA, Anti-smith
SLE (specific)
58
Neoplasm arising from actinic keratosis
SCC
58
Tumor and gene product for N-myc (oncogene or TS)
Neuroblastoma, transcription factor, oncogene
60
HLA associated with Hashimoto? With Graves?
Hashimoto is DR5; Graves is DR3
61
Anti-GBM
Goodpasture's (linear deposits, rapidly progressive (crescentic) glomerulonephritis)
62
Anticentromere
CREST form of scleroderma
63
Name 2 type II hypersensitivity rxns that are blistering dermatoses
Bullous pemphigoid (hemidesmosomes); pemphigus vulgaris (desmosomes)
64
Neoplasm associated with UC
Colonic adenocarcinoma
66
What are the 2 primary opsonins?
C3b and IgG
67
What cytokines to activated Treg cells produce (2)? Why?
TGF-B and IL-10, shut down immune response? They "regulate" CD4 and CD8
69
What kind of hypersensitivity is an acute hemolytic transfusion rxn?
Type II cytotoxic
70
Anti-Mi-2
dermatomyositis, polymositis
71
IL-3 functions the most like what other molecule?
GM-CSF
73
Which cell contains the CD40 ligand?
CD4 T cells (binds to CD40 on B cell to allow class switching)
73
Vaccine type for cholera?
Killed
75
What is the alternative pathway for complement activation?
Microbe surface molecules (but not mannose as that is the lectin pathway)
76
What is swelling and inflammation following a tetanus vaccine? What is induration following a PPD?
Type III hypersens (i.e. arthus reaction); Type IV hypersens
76
Anti-desmoglein ab
Pemphigus vulgaris
78
Where do vasoactive amines act?
mostly postcapillary venules
79
Cancers associated with 1) c-myc 2) N-myc 3) L-myc
1) Burkitt's lymphoma 2) neuroblastoma 3) lung cancer
80
Neoplasm (3) associated with tuberous sclerosis
Giant cell astrocytoma, Renal angiomyolipoma, and cardiac rhabdomyoma
81
HLA associated with DM I (2)
HLA DR 3 and DR 4
83
What are 4 signals that can enhance the activity of NK cells? What part of the immune system are they apart of?
IL-2, IL-12, IFN B, IFN alpha; NK cells are the only lymphocyte member of the innate immune system
85
What drugs are contraindicated in C1 esterase deficiency? Which is indicated?
ACE I; Danazol (Hereditary angioedema)
86
Antihistone Ab
Drug induced lupus (phenytoin, hydralazine, procainamide, isoniazid)
87
2 cells that secrete IL-10
Th2, Treg
88
What do CD16 and CD56 indicate?
CD56 is unique to NK cells; CD16 allows the NK cell to bind Fc of IgG (i.e. ADCC)
89
Which cells (2) get presensitized in type I hypersens?
mast cells and basophils
90
Anti-scl-70
Diffuse form of scleroderma
92
Why is the thymic medulla paler than the cortex?
Because positive selection occurs in the thymic cortex and most lymphocytes die during this process, thus, the medulla is paler because fewer cells have made it there for negative selection
93
4 situations in which you are given passive immunity (i.e. to treat something)
Tetanus, Botulism, HBV exposure, and Rabies
94
Disease associated with HLA A3
Hemochromatosis
96
What is an arthus reaction?
A localized type III hypersens
97
Anti-smooth muscle
Autoimmune hepatitis
98
Which hypersensitivity does not involve antibodies?
Type IV (cannot transfer from serum)
100
Which 2 molecules are inhibitors of complement activation?
C1 esterase inhibitor; DAF (Decay Accelerating Factor, doesnt work in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria)
101
Tumor and gene product of abl (oncogene or TS)
CML, oncogene for tyrosine kinase
103
IgA anti-endomysial
Celiac
104
Tumor and gene product of HER2/neu (oncogene or TS)
Breast, ovarian, gastric CA? Tyrosine kinase (oncogene)
105
Tumor and gene product of c-myc (oncogene or TS)
Burkitt's lymphoma, transcription factor (oncogene)
107
Anti-CCP
Rheumatoid arthritis, best test
109
What are the 6 bugs vaccinated for with live attenuated vaccines?
Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR), Polio (sabin) Varicella, Yellow fever
110
Name tumor and gene product for c-kit (oncogene or TS)
GIST (interstitial cell of Cajal), cytokine receptor, oncogene
111
Anti-SRP
dermatomyositis, polymositis
112
Where does the lymphatics of the stomach drain?
Celiac nodes
113
What 2 cytokines come from ALL T cells?
IL-2 and IL-3
114
What cells are inhibited by IFN gamma?
Th2? This is secreted by Th1, activates macrophages
115
Anti-microsomal ab
Hashimoto Thyroiditis (DR5 HLA assoc)
116
Which immunoglobulin has the lowest concentration in serum?
IgE
117
Autoantibody in DM 1
Anti-glutamate decarboxylase
118
What is MHC I bound to and why? What is MHC II bound to and why?
I = B2 microglobulin to aid in transport to the cell surface; II = invariant chain which leaves the antigen binding site when endosome is acidified
119
What kind of enzyme is granzyme?
A serine protease that activates apoptosis
120
Anti-glutamate decarboxylase
DM I
121
Disease associated with HLA-DR3 (2)
DM I, and Graves
122
p-ANCA
(MPO-ANCA) = microscopic polyangiitis, Churg-Strauss (also in PSC and therefore UC)
123
How is IgA present in the blood? In secretions?
As a monomer; As a dimer, it crosses the secreting epithelium via transcytosis and picks up a secretory component along the way
