Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

POD Exam 4 > Immunopharmacology > Flashcards

Immunopharmacology Flashcards

(100 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Name two limitations of therapy

A

Increased risk of:

  • infection
  • lymphomas and related cancers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

SOA:

Glucocorticoids

A

Glucocorticoid response elements in DNA (regulate gene transcription)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

SOA:

Muromonab-CD3

A

T-cell receptor complex (blocks Ag recognition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

SOA:

Cyclosporine

A

Calcineurin (inhibits phosphatase activity)

- cyclophilin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

SOA:

Tarcrolimus

A

Calcineurin (inhibits phosphatase activity)

- FKBP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

SOA:

Azathioprine

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid (false nucleotide incorporation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

SOA:

Mycophenolate Mofetil

A

Inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (inhibits activity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

SOA:

Daclizumab, Basiliximab

A

IL-2 receptor (block IL-2-mediated T-cell activation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

SOA:

Sirolimus

A

Protein kinase involved in cell-cycle progression (mTOR) (inhibits activity)
- binds FKBP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does immunosuppressive drugs target?

A

T-cell Activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MOA:

Cyclosporine

A

binds cyclophilin A (in cytoplasm) in T-cells –> complex –> binds and inhibits calcineurin + mediated activities:

synthesis of IL-2, IL-2R, protooncogenes

increase TGF-beta production

affects proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Uses:

Cyclosporine, Tacrolimus, Sirolimus, Everolimus

A

prevention/treatment of organ rejection (+/- corticosteroids)

Autoimmune disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Toxicity:

Cyclosporine

A
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Hypertension (esp in renal and cardiac transplant)
  • Hepatotoxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MOA:

Tacrolimus

A

Binds FK506 binding protein-12 (FKBP) (cytoplasmic protein)

inhibits calcineurin + mediated activities:

synthesis of IL-2, IL-2R, protooncogenes

affects proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which drug is more potent: Cyclosporine vs Tarcrolimus?

A

Tacrolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Toxicity:

Tacrolimus

A
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Neurotoxicity*
  • hypertension
  • diabetes*

*different from cyclosporine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MOA:

Sirolimus and Everolimus

A

Binds FKBP (like Tacrolimus) and inhibits mTOR

Blocks T-cell cycle at the G1 –> S transition

Affects proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How are Sirolimus/Everolimus and Tacrolimus similar/different?

A

Both bind FKBP
Simlar uses

Tacrolimus inhibits Calcineurin
Sirolimus/Everolimus inhibits mTOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is mTOR?

A

kinase important for T cell proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Toxicity:

Sirolimus, Everolimus

A
  • Inc in serum cholesterol + triglycerides
  • delay graft function
  • delay wound healing
  • Anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
  • Inc risk of infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Example of Glucocorticoids

A

Prednisone

Prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MOA:

Glucocorticoid

A

Inhibit T-cell proliferation, T-cell dependent immunity, expression of genes encoding cytokines

T cells > B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Uses:

Glucocorticoids

A

prevent organ rejection - Anti-inflammatory

Autoimmune disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do Cytotoxic drugs affect? Are they selective or non-selective?

A

DNA synthesis

non-selective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which drug is Cytotoxic?
Azathioprine
26
What metabolite does Azathioprine get converted into in vivo?
6-mercaptopurine
27
MOA: 6-mercaptopurine
inhibits purine biosynthesis --> eventually inhibits DNA synthesis --> inhibits T-cell proliferation
28
Uses: Azathiorprine
adjunct for prevention of organ transplant
29
Drug intrxn: Azathioprine
Allopurinol given for gout reduce azathioprine
30
What does allopurinol inhibit? What does this enzyme do?
Xanthine oxidase Catabolizes azathioprine metabolites
31
Toxicity: Azathioprine
Bone marrow suppression - leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, anemia Inc risk for infection
32
MOA: Mycophenolate mofetil
Prodrug --> mycophenolic acid (MPA) Affects B and T lymphocyte proliferation
33
What is Mycophenolic acid?
REVERSIBLE inhibitor of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH)
34
What is the result of IMPDH inhibition?
inhibition of de novo synthesis of guanine nucleotide
35
B and T lymphocytes are selectively sensitive to ____ because they require IMPDH for ________ via _______
Mycophenolic acid proliferation via de novo synthesis of guanine
36
Uses: Mycophenolate mofetil
- prophylaxis of transplant rejection
37
Toxicity: Mycophenolate mofetil
GI effects | leukopenia
38
What decreases absorption of Mycophenolate mofetil ?
Antacids (Magnesium, Aluminum)
39
What do immunosuppresion Ab and fusion receptor proteins target? What is the clonality of the Abs? What are they used for?
lymphocyte cell surface Ags Mostly monoclonal, one polyclonal Prevention and treatment of organ transplant rejection
40
What is the one polyclonal Ab used for immunosuppression?
Antithymocyte globulin (ATGAM)
41
MOA: Antithymocyte globulin
Binds CIRCULATING T lymphocytes Induces lymphopenia (complement mediated) and decreases T-cell function
42
Uses: Antithymocyte globulin
Prevent AND Treat acute allograft rejection
43
Toxicitiy: Antithymocyte globulin
- Serum sickness - Nephritis - Chills - Fever - Rash
44
Muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone) is a ______ Ab against _______
Monoclonal Ab CD3 glycoprotein (associated with the T cell receptor complex)
45
MOA: Muromonab-CD3
Induces internalization of the T cell receptor complex --> dec circulating T cells
46
Use: Muromonab-CD3
Reverse transplant rejection
47
Adverse effects: Muromonab-CD3
- Cytokine release syndrome - Anaphylactic rxns - CNS toxicity - Inc risk for infection and malignancy
48
"humanized" monoclonal Abs
``` Daclizumab and basiliximab Alemtuzumab (Campath-1H) Efalizumab Tocilizumab Rituximab ```
49
MOA: Daclizumab and basiliximab
Binds IL-2R on T cells ---> inhibits T cell activation via downregulation of IL-2R
50
Use: Daclizumab and basiliximab
PROPHYLAXIS of ACUTE REJECTION in RENAL transplantation
51
MOA: Alemtuzumab (Campath-1H)
Binds CD52 glycoprotein on: B cells, T cells, monocyes, macs, NK cells Induces lympholysis
52
What is lympholysis ?
Profound depletion of T cells - apoptosis mediated
53
Use: Alemtuzumab (Campath-1H)
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
54
MOA: Efalizumab
Binds CDIIa subunit of LFA-1 protein on T and B cells --> inhibits interaction between LFA-1 and ICAM-1 --> inhibits T cell adhesion and activation
55
Use: Efalizumab
Prevent organ transplant rejection Treat psoriasis
56
MOA: Tocilizumab
Binds IL-6R and inhibits IL-6 action
57
Use: Tocilizumab
Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
58
Adverse effects: Tocilizumab
increases risk for infection
59
MOA: Rituximab
Binds CD20 on B lymphocytes --> induces B lymphocyte cell lysis
60
Use: Rituximab
Chronic lymphoid leukemia Non-hodgkin's lymphoma Rheumatoid arthritis
61
Which monoclonal Immunosuppression Ab is not humanized?
Muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone)
62
What are 3 Anti-TNF drugs?
Infliximab Adalimumab Etanercept
63
Which Anti-TNF drug is humanized? Mouse-human? fusion protein?
Adalimumab - humanized Infliximab - mouse/human Etanercept - fusion protein
64
Etanercept is a fusion protein consisting of the ligand binding domain of ____ receptor fused to ____ fragment
TNF | IgG1
65
MOA: Infliximab Adalimumab Etanercept
Bind circulating TNF --> NEUTRALIZES TNF activity
66
Use: Infliximab Adalimumab Etanercept
Rheumatoid arthiritis Psoriasis Crohn's disease
67
Toxicity: anti-TNF drugs
Inc risk for infection, lymphomas and other cancer
68
MOA: Alefacept
binds CD2 on T cells --> inhibits interaction between LFA-3 and CD-2 ---> inhibits T cell adhesion and activation
69
What type of fusion protein is Alefacept?
LFA-3 - IgG1
70
Use: Alefacept
Treat psoriasis
71
What can be targeted in order to inhibit T cell Activation?
T-cell Co-stimulation interaction: CD80/CD86 (APC) : CD28 (T cell)
72
MOA: Abatacept/Belatacept
binds CD80/CD86 on APC cells --> INHIBITS CO-STIMULATORY pathway
73
What type of fusion proteins are Abatacept/Belatacept?
CTLA-4 - IgG1
74
Use: Abatacept? Belatacept? Toxicity?
Abatacept: treatment for juvenile idiopathic arthritis and Rheumatoid arthritis Belatacept: prevent organ transplant rejection - both inc risk for infection
75
What are immunostimulants used to treat? (2)
- Immunodeficiency | - bolster immunity against specific targets
76
Do immunostimulants act through cellular or humoral immunity?
Either one or BOTH
77
Magnitude of stimulation by immunostimulants can be highly ____
Variable
78
Use of Immune globulin for passive immunity is (specific vs nonspecific)?
Nonspecific contains all subclasses (IgG>IgM)
79
When is specific immune globulins used?
used in various immunodeficiency states such as measles, HepA, Autoimmune hemolytic disease, tetanus, rabies
80
What does BCG stand for? (vaccine)
Bacillus Calmette-Guerin
81
What type of vaccine is BCG?
Live attenuated strain of Mycobacterium bovis
82
What is the active component of BCG?
Muramyl dipeptide
83
What does BCG stimulate?
NK cells and T cell activity
84
What is the primary use of BCG vaccine?
Treatment of bladder cancer
85
Toxicity: BCG vaccine
severe hypersensitivity reaction Shock
86
What are 3 synthetic agents that are used as immunostimulatory?
Levamisole Isoprinosine Thalidomide
87
Immunostimulatory function of Levamisole?
Inhibits T-suppressor cells used for colon cancer
88
Immunostimulatory function of Isoprinosine?
Increase NK cell cytotoxicity and activity of T cells and monocytes
89
Immunostimulatory function of Thalidomide?
Decrease circulating TNF-a
90
What is Thalidomide used for?
Refractory arthritis | Erythema nodosum leprosum
91
What is a contraindication of thalidomide?
Teratogenic properties in women who are pregnant or who may become pregnant
92
Interferon alpha is part of _____ defense. It activates ____ (3 things).
antiviral Macs, T lymphocytes, NK cells
93
Use: INF-a
Cancers | Hep B and C
94
Is INF-a immunosuppresant or stimulant? IL-2?
both are immunostimulant
95
Toxicity INF-a
Flu like symptoms | Pulmonary hypertension
96
MOA and Use: IL-2
Activates cellular immunity - metastatic melanoma, renal cell carcinoma, AIDS ptns
97
Toxicity: IL-2
severe hypotension Cardiovascular toxicity Pulmonary Edema*** dose limiting
98
What does Granulocyte colony stimulating factors do?
Stimulate inc in numbers of granulocytes and monocytes
99
What produces glycoproteins (Granulocyte colony stimulating factors)?
Monocytes Fibroblasts Endothelial cells
100
What are granulocyte colony stimulating factors used for?
reduce neutropenia (esp due to chemotherapy)

POD Exam 4 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions