IMSK Final MK Review Flashcards

1
Q

ID parts of the ear

A

External: pinna, vertical canal, horizontal canal, tympanic membrane
Middle: tympanic bulla (bony septum, 2 compartments in cats), ossicles, vestibular window
Inner: vestibular organ (balance), cochlea (hearing organ)

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2
Q

describe the phases of the hair growth cycle

A

Anagen: growth phase; cells mitotically active, melanin production increases
Thyroid and growth hormones increase the activity of this phase; glucocorticoids and estrogen decrease the activity of this phase
Catagen: regressive/resting phase; mitotic activity decreases and then ceases
Caspase activity and keratinocyte apoptosis increases and melanin production decreases
Telogen: resting phase; follicle eventually cycles back to mitotically active
Small dermal papilla and no mitotic activity
Exogen: shedding before returning to anagen

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3
Q

list the layers of the skin and what they contain

A

Epidermis: primary envelope containing water, electrolytes, and macromolecules like protein, carbohydrates, and fat; also melanocytes, intraepidermal macrophages, merkel cells
Dermis: fibers (mainly collagen) + polymers (proteoglycans and hyaluranan)
Fibers resist pull/tensile forces and polymers resist push/compression forces
Subcutis/hypodermis: protective padding of skin, mainly adipose tissue
Same thing as midterm just adjusted, same label pic- Layers of skin: epidermis, dermis, subcutis

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4
Q

describe the cell membrane

A

phospholipid bilayer, hydrophobic molecules can diffuse right through but charged molecules like ions require channels

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5
Q

describe membrane potential and what contributes to it/how ions move

A

cell resting potential is more negative, so potassium (K+) is kept inside by attraction to the negative;
there is usually more K+ inside the cell than outside and it wants to move out of the cell via its channels;
There is usually more sodium (Na+) outside of the cell than inside and it wants to move inside the cell via its channels
There is usually more chloride outside the cell than inside (Cl-)
There is not much calcium inside or outside of the cell at rest. Since it is Ca2+, it really really wants to move inside the cell. It is a very large molecule though so it can sometimes block sodium channels (how some anesthetics work)

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6
Q

describe voltage and ligand gated ion channels

A

Voltage gated channels open and close in response to changes in membrane potential
Ligand gated channels open when a chemical ligand binds to the protein

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7
Q

describe depolarization

A

Leaky sodium channels slowly bring membrane potential to threshold
Once threshold reached, voltage-gated sodium channels fly open, rapid (+) influx, membrane depolarizes and action potential is propagated
K+ channels open and rapid efflux of (+) leaving cell hyperpolarizes

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8
Q

describe absolute refractory period

A

Absolute refractory period is when the membrane cannot produce another action potential because sodium channels are inactivated or blocked; is important because when an AP is propagated, it sets up a local current that could travel both forward and backward bc physics, so the absolute refractory period ensures that the AP only moves forward

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9
Q

describe hypokalemia

A

If have low extracellular potassium, the excess potassium would rush out of the cell, causing the cell to hyperpolarize and decreasing excitability; can be caused by diuretics, vomiting, diarrhea, and diabetes

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10
Q

describe major differences in skeletal/cardiac/smooth muscle in the context of myasthenia gravis

A

myasthenia gravis only affects the skeletal muscle and in very rare cases will affect the cardiac muscle
Myasthenia gravis destroys the communication network between muscles and nerves in skeletal muscle
Acetylcholinesterase typically breaks down acetylcholine in the synapse, allowing responses only when there is an action potential
If a drug blocks acetylcholinesterase, acetylcholine will stay in the cell and the muscle will continue to contract, which can be useful for myasthenia gravis patients (acetylcholinesterase inhibitors)

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11
Q

describe the effects of monoamine oxidase

A

Monoamine oxidase
Degrades epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine
When inhibited via MAOIs, there is an increased amount of neurotransmitters left in the synapse
Since there is an increase in norepinephrine, looks like there’s sympathetic activation
Because there is more norepi available to bind to adrenergic receptors and cause a response. Same mechanism as acetylcholinesterase inhibitor effect on acetylcholine.

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12
Q

describe generation of skeletal muscle tension

A

Contracting from resting length will generate the most muscle tension
If contract from an extended position, not as much interaction between thin and thick filaments
If contract from already somewhat contracted position, thin and thick filaments have too much interaction and can’t shorten farther than their capacity

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13
Q

what is stringhalt and how is it fixed?

A

Stringhalt- high stepping gait and abnormal and exaggerated flexion of the hock due to neuropathy of the lateral digital extensor
Remove the entire belly of the lateral digital extensor and allow long digital extensor to take over to fix

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14
Q

describe fibrotic myopathy in equines

A

Damage to the semi-muscle complex (biceps femoris) leads to
Scar tissue formation that limits extension;
decreased range of motion, will see foot swing forward and then snap back on/to ground

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15
Q

what structures connect the femur to the tibia?

A

Medial and lateral collateral ligaments
Medial, intermediate, and lateral patellar ligaments

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16
Q

describe the trochlear groove of the femur

A

This groove is significant because the patella can get stuck on top of the medial trochlear ridge during movement, can cut the medial patellar ligament to unlock patella and return motion

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17
Q

describe the reciprocal aparatus

A

Peroneus tertius originates from femur and extends across the tibia to metatarsal region

Works with the SDF to ensure that hock and stifle are either synchronously flexed or extended

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18
Q

give the major flexors of the stifle joint

A

Biceps femoris- inserts on tuber calcanei
Semimembranosus- inserts on medial tibial condyle
Semitendinosus- inserts on tuber calcanei
gastrocnemius and SDF help too (tibial nerve)
All innervated by sciatic nerve

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19
Q

give the major flexors of the hip joint

A

Iliopsoas- inserts on lesser trochanter
Rectus femoris- inserts on tibial tuberosity through the patellar ligament
Both innervated by femoral nerve

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20
Q

describe the attachments of the cruciate ligaments

A

Cranial cruciate- attaches at the cranial aspect of tibial intercondyloid space
Caudal cruciate- attaches at the caudal aspect of tibial intercondyloid space

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21
Q

describe tibial nerve damage

A

Extension of hock and digit flexion is affected
Signs and symptoms include a sunken walk and animal possibly walking plantigrade (with foot flat on ground)

22
Q

describe fibular nerve damage

A

Is motor to the flexors or tarsus and extensors of the digits (cranial tibial, long digital extensor, peroneus longus)

Sensory to skin on craniolateral surface of the leg, tarsus, paw

Damage affects straightening of the hock and knuckling over the digits

Signs will be of animal having difficulty extending digits

a fibular fracture is the most common cause of damage to the fibular nerve (over the lateral head of the gastrocnemius)

23
Q

where to be careful when giving IM injections?

A

between muscles of the caudal thigh;
Damage to sciatic nerve if injected into the groove between muscles
Isolate the muscle belly and inject there

24
Q

describe the obturator nerve (4)

A

Located in the cranial part of the obturator foramen, medial to the surface of the adductor muscle on the inside of the thigh

Motor supply to external obturator and all medial thigh muscles (PAGE) except sartorius (femoral nerve does sartorius)

NO CUTANEOUS INNERVATION

Damage results in difficulty adducting the limb and commonly occurs during parturition in large animals (see sad splits cow)

25
Q

describe the femoral nerve (4)

A

THE MOST IMPORTANT NERVE- weight bearing

INNERVATES THE MOST IMPORTANT WEIGHT BEARING
MUSCLE (quadriceps femoris)

Moto supply to iliopsoas and quadriceps femoris

Damage: unable to bear weight on stifle

26
Q

what is done anatomically in TPLO?

A

Change the angle of the tibial plateau to prevent backwards shift of the femur

27
Q

what structures cut during FHO?

A

Head of the femur, neck of the femur, and ligament of the head of the femur

28
Q

what 2 veins are commonly used for venipuncture in dogs?

A

Lateral saphenous vein
Cephalic vein

29
Q

describe movement associated with the tarsal joints

A

Tarsocrural joint is the high motion joint of the hock

The others are low motion and do not flex or extend

Function is absorption

Top two joints communicate in tarsus:
tibiotarsal/tarsocrural and proximal intertarsal joints

30
Q

what 2 structures originate from the extensor fossa?

A

Long digital extensor
Peroneus tertius

31
Q

describe the canine stifle joint

A

Five joints:
Femorotibial, femoropatellar, proximal tibiofibular, joint between femur and gastrocnemius sesamoids, joint between lateral tibial condyle and popliteal sesamoid

One patellar ligament

Two collateral ligaments and two cruciates attach femur to crus

Medial and lateral femoropatellar ligaments hold patella in place

32
Q

describe the equine stifle joint

A

Lack sesamoids in gastrocnemius and popliteus
3 patellar ligaments
Lateral, middle, and medial
Medial and lateral femoropatellar ligaments hold patella in place

33
Q

what is common of both the equine and bovine stifle joints? clinical relevance?

A

All joints communicate- leads to problems when there is a joint infection or arthritis

34
Q

what species has a sacrotuberous ligament?

A

Present in canines only, not felines or horses

35
Q

what 6 (7ish) structures are innervated by the sciatic nerve?

A

Biceps femoris
Gluteobiceps (bovine)
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus
Internal obturator
Gemelli
Quadratus femoris

36
Q

if you place a rod to fix a femoral fracture and the rod slips proximally, what could happen?

A

If this rod shifted proximally, could cause damage to the sciatic nerve
If damaged, animal can still bear weight not confidently
Can still extend the hip and stifle due to intact obturator and femoral nerves
Hock will be unstable because of the tibial and fibular nerves

37
Q

what structures are in the femoral triangle? what are the borders?

A

includes saphenous nerve, femoral artery, and femoral vein
cranial border is sartorius, caudal border is pectineus, lateral border formed by vastus medialis and rectus femoris

38
Q

compare and contrast the origin of the SDF in large and small animals

A

Origin is from the medial and lateral supracondylar tuberosities in both large and small animal, but canines have gastrocnemius sesamoids in that spot, so the gastrocnemius originates from the sesamoids in pups

39
Q

give muscles with common origins and their actions on joints

A

Middle and deep gluteals originate from ilium and both extend the hip and abduct the limb; all innervated by cranial gluteal nerve

The PAGE muscles (pectineus, adductor, gracilis, and external obturator) all originate from the ischium and all adduct the limb; all innervated by obturator nerve

Biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, (gluteobiceps in cattle) all originate from ischiatic tuberosity and all extend the hip, flex the stifle, and extend the hock (except semimembranosus who doesn’t extend hock due to its separate insertion (all sciatic nerve)

Vastus medialis, vastus intermedius, and vastus lateralis all originate from the femur and all extend the stifle (femoral nerve)

40
Q

give location of trochanteric and cunean bursas

A

Trochanteric: sits under the middle gluteal muscle
Cunean- sits under the cunean tendon (medial insertion of cranial tibial muscle)

41
Q

what muscles originate from lateral and medial epicondyle of humerus, insertion, innervation, result of damage to either condyle

A

Extensor carpi radialis (extends carpus)
inserts at dorsal side of MC 2 and 3
Innervated by radial nerve
Common digital extensor (extends carpus and digits)
Inserts on distal phalanges 2-5
Innervated by radial nerve
Lateral digital extensor (extends carpus and digits)
Inserts on distal phalanges
Innervated by radial nerve
Supinator
Inserts on mid-proximal radius
Innervated by radial nerve
Medial condyle:
Superficial digital flexor (flexes carpus and digits)
Inserts on P2
Innervated by median nerve
Flexor carpi radialis (flexes carpus)
Inserts on palmar MC 2+3
Innervated by median nerve
Deep digital flexor (flexes carpus and digits)
Humeral head
Inserts on P3
Innervated by median nerve
Ulnaris lateralis (flexes carpus)
Inserts on accessory carpal bone
Innervated by radial nerve
Lateral condyle fracture:
Loss of carpal and digital extensor muscles
No extension of the carpus or digits
Medial condyle fracture
Loss of carpal and digital flexors
No flexion of the carpus or digits
Will still have the ulnar and radial heads of the deep digital flexor tendon, could have still some flexion

42
Q

what 2 structures attach to accessory carpal bone?

A

Flexor carpi ulnaris and ulnaris lateralis attach to this bone and will be useless if fractured

43
Q

what happens when you declaw a cat?

A

Lose function of deep digital flexor; function should still be fine thanks to SDF though

44
Q

what happens if a feline fractures its supracondylar foramen?

A

Median nerve and brachial artery run through here; lose function of muscles innervated by median nerve if fractured (forearm flexors)

45
Q

what happens to shoulder flexion if axillary nerve is damaged?

A

Axillary nerve innervates deltoideus, teres major, and teres minor (classical shoulder flexors)
If this nerve is damaged, the animal can still flex the shoulder via the long head of the triceps, which is innervated by the radial nerve

46
Q

where can the radial nerve be damaged (2) and what would be the result?

A

If after the lateral head of the triceps, animal can still bear weight but will have knuckling
If before enter long head of triceps, no weight bearing or elbow extension

47
Q

describe damage of radial, median, musculocutaneous, and ulnar nerves

A

Radial nerve:
Damage on the medial aspect = non-weight bearing
Damage on lateral aspect = knuckling

Musculocutaneous nerve:
Loss of biceps brachii, brachialis, and coracobrachialis
Will not be able to flex the elbow
Can still extend the shoulder via supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and subscapularis

Median nerve:
Complete loss of superficial digital flexor and flexor carpi radialis
Loss of humeral head of deep digital flexor

ulnar nerve: complete loss of flexor carpi ulnaris; ulnar head of deep digital flexor, mostly covered by median nerve though

48
Q

compare and contrast gluteal muscle across species

A

All 3 extend hip and adduct limb

Cow doesn’t have superficial gluteal, has gluteobiceps (biceps femoris + superficial gluteal) instead

Superficial is innervated by caudal gluteal nerve and supplied by caudal gluteal artery

Middle and deep are innervated by cranial gluteal nerve and supplied by cranial gluteal artery

49
Q

what structures contribute to the common calcanean tendon?

A

SaD Guys Buy STupid Gifts: superficial digital flexor, gracilis (does not extend tarsus), biceps femoris, SemiTendinosus, gastrocnemius

50
Q

compare and contrast tarsal bones across species

A

Canine: 7 arranged in 3 rows
Proximal: talus, calcaneus
Middle: central
Distal: T1-T4

Equine: 6 arranged in 3 rows
Proximal: talus, calcaneus
Middle: central
Distal: fused T1+T2, T3, T4

Bovine: 5 arranged in 3 rows
Proximal: talus, calcaneus
Middle: fused central+T4
Distal: T1, fused T2+T3

51
Q

function of navicular bursa?

A

Navicular bursa provides cushioning between navicular bone and deep digital flexor tendon