Incident command re-validation exam. I.C.1 Flashcards
1
Q
In which circumstances should BA entry control stage II must be implemented?
8
A
- More than 6 whereas on a stage 1 ECB
- EDBA in use
- BA emergency crew are committed
- Basements incidents
- BTP, HART, other agencies deployed.
- Guidelines in use
- Hi-Ex foam in use
- More that one ECP
2
Q
You are the OIC, at a Fire involving ducting, in what circumstances should the ducting access panels be opened?
A
Only on the orders of the OIC & when sufficient extinguishing media is in place to cover any fire spread.
3
Q
U are OIC at a large gas leak that has ignited, what should u do?
A
Do NOT extinguish flames, protect surrounding buildings/property with lashed off jets & evacuate area until gas main has been isolated.
4
Q
How long should U cool a LPG cylinder if directly heated by direct flame impingement?
A
Only until it reaches ambient temperature.
5
Q
At incidents involving lifts, under what circumstances is it acceptable for LFB personnel to enter into the lift shaft?
A
Only in life threatening situations or danger of serious injury to casualties is present.
6
Q
In what circumstances, if any can a command unit (CU) be returned before arrival at a incident. At a +6 pump fire?
A
Only the 2nd command unit can be returned after discussing with the 1st command unit OIC. At +6pumps.
7
Q
What is the minimum rank for a inner cording controller and assistant inner cordon controller?
A
Stn/O & FF
8
Q
What are the four categories of incident response?
A
Normal, enhanced, augmented and special.
9
Q
At a incident where bulk foam has been used, who is responsible for removing all used & unused LFB IBC’s from the fire ground?
A
I.C.
10
Q
How should the boundary between inner and outer corners of the demarcated at an incident?
A
Yellow barrier tape with “Hazard Zone - Do not cross” written in Black
11
Q
In addition to their Ops review roll, What other tool can the O.RT.. do?
A
Operations Tactical Advisor on the fire ground.
12
Q
Where should all media enquired of local incidents be referred too?
A
Communications department
13
Q
What is the minimal number of personnel to be sent to the bridgehead at a high rise incident.
A
Four.
1 x Bridgehead commander (min LFF),
2 x BA Crew,
1 x ECO.
14
Q
U are the OIC at a compartment fire, in what circumstances can you use hose reels rather than a 45mm jets?
A
If reliable information indicates that a initial attack using hose reels is a significant alternative.
(Know small ventilated fires)
NB, setting up Main jets, with increased time to set them up, would allow the fire to develop.
15
Q
At fires involving refuge derivative fuels were involved, why is it important during firefighting operations to contain the water run-off.
A
Because it contains significant amounts volumes of contaminants.
16
Q
When should u set up a Incident Command Pump (I.C.P.), at incidents?
A
As soon as possible whenever more than one pumping appliance is in attendance.
17
Q
At HAZMAT incidents, when does the Brigade NOT charge for services rendered?
A
Domestic premises
Where Medical treatment is required to prevent injury.
We’re there is a fire or danger if fire.
18
Q
On the MDT what symbol indicates a Hydrant that’s operable with a minor defect?
A
Box with a black H
& red background.
19
Q
When giving orders of briefings, how does the recipient confirm understanding of his/her briefing?
A
Repeat it back.
S.H.O.P.A.C.
Situation
Hazards
Objectives
Plan
Any questions
Confirm back
20
Q
As u approach a fire in a delivery van, it has a sign on the front & rear of the vehicle, it’s a:
BLACK Rectangle with YELLOW background.
What does this sign mean?
A
A mixture of individual packaged hazardous goods.
21
Q
The DMM
A
Task/Event
Risk/benefit
Resources
Decided/Thinking
Objectives
Plan
Communicating/Controlling
Outcome
Review & acting , thinking.
22
Q
What following pieces of personnel information should not be sent over main scheme radio to the media?
(5)
A
-Names of MOP involved
-Names of LFB person involved.
-Home address &/or house numbers.
-Detailed information of building contents
-Problems with water supplies.
23
Q
In a building with a phased evacuation plan in affect, where should the evacuation normally start?
A
Fire floor &
1 flour above the fire
24
Q
You are the I.C. at a basement fire, at what point do you send a message of ”Basement procedure implemented”, radio message?
A
BA crew committed with 45mm Jet min.
Support BA crew committed with covering 45mm jet min, in place to protect egress.
25
In what circumstances can a BA crew be committed above the fire at a high-rise incident?
Only once the benefits have been properly assessed and balanced against the risks present.
26
What is the frequency you should send informative messages from incidents?
General principles X 5
-As soon as practical after arrival,
-Max 5 minutes after a make up or persons reported.
-Max 20 minutes.
-Every 30 minutes if incident is protracted.
-Every 60 minutes if 8 pumps or more in attendance.
27
With reference to sprinkler or drencher installation, in what circumstances should a MAIN STOP VALVE be closed at an incident?
When the OIC is satisfied that, the operated sprinkler or drencher heads can be dispensed with.
28
A ‘RUNNING CALL’ is received at the station to a ‘PERSON LOCKED OUT’, however is it is ascertained that no fire or danger to life is present.
What should you do?
Advise the member of the public to call a locksmith (see local directory) or police for details for 24hrs locksmiths.
29
You attend a incident at a tunnel construction, where there a area of pressurised air present (subject to the ‘works in compressed air regulations 1996),
Should you allow LFB Crews into the area and why is this the case?
No!
Workers in tunnels under those regulations are responsible for their own rescue. Private rescue crews - present paid by the private construction complaint. RESCUE 2 - with SAVOX kit.
However LFB Have been called in the past the rescue these private rescue teams - Fulham super sewer.
30
You attend a incident where unsecured security dogs are present what should you do?
Priority Call Control to get MET Police to attend, contact the owner/key holder to attend, & request a dog handler on site.
31
When siting appliances at terrorist incident what should be taken into account?
(6)
-Facing away from incident.
-Up wind
-Up Hill
-Behind Substantial cove
-Away from Glass
-Not in lone of sight of the area of operations.
32
You are in attendance at a LEVEL 1 Water incident, at level 1 in what circumstances if any can firefighters enter the water?
Firefighters can enter the water, To a depth where their structural firefighting PPE is not compromised & there is no danger of them being swept off her feet.
33
You attend an incident at a electrical substation, where it appears that a unconscious casualty requires rescue.
What is the minimum safe approach distance to the electrical substation for this scenarios?
5 meters.
34
On the MDT on front line appliances, what does the following symbol represent on the map?
Outline black triangle with black ! In the middle.
On a red background.
Quantities of explosives are registered with the police as being stored in the premises.
35
You are ordered to a incident at a underground station where a explosion has been reported:
As you approach the incident your EPD and the EPD’s of your crew, start to sound with a intermittent double Beep,
What should your immediate actions be?
Withdraw to a position where your EPD stops Sounding.
36
What is the minimum size initial hazard zone, should be set up for a hazard zone for ASBESTOS?
25 meters.
37
Which tactical mode is described by the following statement?
Where the operation is being tackled from within the perceived hazard area.
Offensive
Tactical mode: Oscar
38
What statement describes handheld radio channel 5.
Used for communications including BA, at all sub surface London Underground (LUL) railway premises, Where a leaky feeder and bass station equipment is installed or other premises where leaky feeder is installed or deployed.
39
In which of the following circumstances should respirators NOT be deployed?
(4)
-Confined space working (USAR ???)
- oxygen deficient atmosphere is present.
- toxic atmosphere is present
- fire gases remain present
40
When requesting a ambulance to an incident what information should be included in the radio message to Control?
(6)
-Gender
-Approx Age
-Nature of injury
-Conscious and/or breathing
-whether the ambulance is required for member of the public or LFB personnel.
-Tactical Mode.
41
Who is responsible for breathing apparatus teams?
Incident Commander / sector commander
42
In relation to a marauding terrorist attack, what does the term hot zone mean?
Where the attackers are known, or believed to be present and/or there is a immediate threat to life.
43
When working at cross-border incidents, the incident commander should ensure?
Crews work within their own area of operations
44
When a building has ACM covering it? What does ACM mean?
Aluminium composite material
45
What risk does aluminium composite material pose to an incident?
Risk of rapid external fire spread, leading to fires on multiple floors, falling debris and potential early loss of escape routes.
46
Regarding the evacuation and rescue from fires in premises, a number of warning devices (detection devices) can be incorporated into the design of the building, these include E.A.S. and EACIE. Which of the following describes the correct definition?
(E.A.S..) - Evacuation and alert systems
(E.A.C.I.E.) - Evacuation, alert, control, initiating equipment
47
When, considering simultaneous, evacuation and rescue from fires in premises, predominantly involving offices, shops, industrial and commercial, premises, hotels, and hostels, it would normally follow the initiation of single stage evacuation first, where the alarm operates immediately, and all occupiers leave the premise the difference between this and multi stage evacuation is?
Allows for a short period of investigation by managers/staff for the alarm system is sounded or cancelled
48
Progressive horizontal evacuation is a term most usually associated in what kind of premises type?
Hospitals or care homes
49
Mass rescue can typically be defined as?
The act of helping a large number of people that are threatened with immediate harm, and who require assistance to move away from the danger was a place of relative OR ultimate safety
50
The outcome of every single FSG court must be communicated to?
Control
51
When an appliance is required to revisit an incident, how long before mobilisation will control reserve the appliance?
30 minutes
52
What information will the incident commander provide to an officer taking over using the DMM?
6
Hazards involved.
Resources in use, and available.
Actions that have been initiated.
Objectives
Operational plan.
Messages that have been transmitted from the incident ground.
53
As a lockout, once the incident commander decides that there is sufficient reason to gain entry, what must be completed on the form 2416 prior to gaining entry?
The persons proof of right of entry, the type of service been given, the address of the incident, the name and, we are different from the incident, the address of the person requesting the service, signed by the person requesting the service, and that I.C.
54
Major incident mnemonic -
M.E.T.H.A.N.E.
M = Major incident declared
E = Exact address
T = Type of incident
H = Hazards
A = Access
N = Number of persons involved
E = Emergency services involved.
55
Who can declared a major incident?
Any emergency responder agency?
56
What is the definition of a major incident?
Major incident is an event or situation with a range of serious consequences which requires special arrangements to be implemented by one or more emergency response agency
57
What is the definition of a safe system of work?
A safe system of work is a procedure that results from a systematic examination of a working process and the production of a risk assessment designed to control hazards and risks by eliminating or some other suitable method
58
B.A. teams should not be committed into a basement …..
Unless in exceptional circumstances
59
There are three types of cordons used on the incident ground these are?
Traffic Cordon, Outer Cordon, Inner Cordon
60
When should a fire surrounded message to be sent?
A Fire involving three or more jets and/or 6 Pumps and above, once all jets are in position, and there is no possibility of further fire spread or further assistance required
61
When are crew members in the rear of an appliance required to wear seatbelts?
Whilst attending or returning from operational incidents, and using the vehicle for non-operational purposes
62
How much water, and for how long are wet riser means designed to supply?
1500 L per minute for 45 minutes as a minimum
63
Where should the Bridgehead be positioned at a high rise incident?
Two floors below the fire, in a firefighting lobby
64
What does the following statement define, “ the immediate and controlled withdrawal of all personnel from the scene of operations to a place of safety “?
Emergency evacuation
65
When can the hazards zone be reduced to a heated, acetylene cylinder incident?
As soon as it is safe to do so, after the cylinder has passed the cylinder, acceptance, process, (C.A.P.)
66
B.A. main guidelines can form part of a safe system of work.
Used were no other suitable means of exit for tracing the way out of a risk area, such as when hose lines are submerged or tangled, or premises layout is complex.
67
You attend a small shed fire on a council allotment site.
The fire was extinguished using a single hose reel.
A 60 year-old male is suffering from light smoke inhalation.
What type of message would be appropriate in this situation?
‘FILL STOP’ required for this incident, as a fire related injury has resulted from this fire.
68
When using branch guidelines, how far can a branch guideline be extended?
Branch guidelines must not be extended
69
Composites cylinders are predominantly used for what purpose?
For domestic purposes, such as garden, barbecues, and patio heaters.
70
The fire and rescue services act 2004, gives the fire and rescue service personnel certain powers of entry.
 When should they force entry?
They must do this when there is a reason to believe that Fire has broken out.
71
In relation to the fire and rescue services act 2004, which of the following statements is correct?
Fire and rescue service personnel may close the road.
Fire and rescue personnel may regulate the traffic.
Fire and rescue service personnel may restrict access to a property or location.
All the above statements are correct !
72
In relation to the emergency workers (obstruction) act 2006, this legislation makes it an offence to:
Obstruct or hinder, firefighters and officers from carrying out their duties, while taking steps to protect property at a fire.
73
Displaying and instilling confidence is an effective incident command scale.
Which one of the following statements is correct
Personnel respond positively to a confident leader, which will improve the teams performance
74
Demonstrating and fostering trust is an affective incident command skill.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
An incident commander needs to lead people in challenging and potentially dangerous circumstances.
Trust between the incident commander in the crew they lead is essential.
An incident commander should consider the impact that the characteristics of the incident and a task that need to be carried out have on crews and members of the public .
All the above statement is correct in relation to effective command skills.
75
With regard to setting, expectations, and standards, personnel and Crews look to the incident commander to provide vision…..
It is important for the incident commander, to make clear what they expect in terms of standards, role, and the outcomes
76
In relation to operational teams effectiveness, which of the following statements are correct?
An essential skill for affective incident command is the ability to command and control teams of people.
Understanding the team dynamics is essential to get the best out of individuals and teams.
Team dynamics is about how people affect each other, how this affects the team, and how a team reacts to the incident.
All the statements are correct in relation to operational team effectiveness. 
77
Which of the following hazards may apply to firefighting in basements?
Metabolic heat stress due to high physical work clothes on firefighters.
Fire Growth within the compartment, giving rise to a flashover conditions, or Backdraft as the consequences of limited ventilation .
Uncontrolled ventilation occurring in other parts of the building influencing fire behaviour in the basement. (Such a structural collapse or breaking of pavement lights).
All the above statements are correct
78
With regards to flammable liquids, the definition of flashpoint is:
The lowest temperature at which a flame can propagate in the vapour above the liquid
79
With regards to flammable liquids, the definition of fire point is:
A higher temperature than flash point, the temperature at which the vapour continues to burn after being ignited.
80
When attending incidents involving electrical, generating and distribution equipment, LFB electrical gloves will provide adequate protection in the following circumstances:
Where the voltage is known to be 3300 V or fewer.
81
When attending incidents, involving electricity & generating distribution equipment, which one of the following statements is correct?
Crews must not pass warning, signs or gain access into areas which have warning signs restricting access until the responsible or authorised person is in attendance.
82
Dynamic risk assessment involves the continuous assessment and control of risks in rapidly changing circumstances of an operational incident.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
The overall responsibility for this process remains with the incident commander, however, every firefighter has the responsibility antiauthority to take immediate action in the interest of safety.
83
The definition of a hazard is:
Something with the potential to cause harm.
84
The definition of a risk is:
The measure of the likelihood that the harm from a particular hazard will occur, taking into account the possible severity of the harm.
85
In relation to incident command, what are the three phases of an incident?
Initial assessment
Containing
Under control
86
What is the maximum litres of water per minute? A dry rising mean can deliver?
1500 lpm.
87
When at a high-rise incident,
How long should you rest every 10 floors?
1. One minute.
88
At incidents within tunnels the I.C. may have to take into account structures such as portals, shafts ect. What does this do to the location of the inner cordon?
Initiating cordons in this infrastructure will normally incorporate portals, shafts, tunnel bores, cross passages or stairs. This will normally mean that the inner cordon will be within the built infrastructure.
89
QUESTION (19)
How does the incident commanders dynamic risk assessment contribute to their incident plan?
It includes a decision about whether personnel should work in the hazard area
It includes decisions on the tactic to be used to resolve the incident
It helps validate their intuitive decision making
All of the above
90
QUESTION (18)
What is the minimum PPE for any firefighter entering water to affect a rescue?
Personal floatation device (PFD) attached to a floating line
Full structural firefighting kit (fire helmet removed or chin strap unfastened) and personal floatation device (PFD)?
91
QUESTION (16)
Where practical, who will establish and maintain cordons?
The Fire Service
92
QUESTION (17)
With regards to road traffic collision incidents what must the incident commander ensure?
A safe working environment is created, a high-pressure hose reel is charged and laid out to cover the whole of the incident and all fires are Extingused
93
QUESTION (15)
With regard to decisions an IC makes to resolve an incident, what three things does policy state they should do?
• Understand their starting position, Know their desired end position, Develop a plan that gets them from one position to the other
• Resource appropriately, Know their desired end position, Develop a plan that gets them from one position to the other
94
QUESTION (12)
Following an initial review and DRA at a collapsed structure the IC can use the "Six Stages of Rescue" acronym R.E.P.E.A. T. to assist them to formulate a plan. What does R.E.P.E.A.T. stand for ?
Reconnaissance and survey, Elimination of utilitles, Primary surface search, Exploration of volds and spaces, Access by general debris removal, Termination by general debris removal
95
QUESTION (20)
To declare a major incident the incident commander should send an assistance message to Brigade Control: This is a major incident, tactical mode This should be followed by what type of message?
METHANE message
An informative message describing what actions are being taken
96
QUESTION (13)
With regards the bagging of PPE and BA set following the disrobe procedure at an incident involving fire contaminants which of the following statements is correct?
There Is no requirement to double bag
97
QUESTION (3)
In assessing the level of contamination what areas of the PPE should be focused on?
Collar & Cuffs
Or
Most contaminated areas
98
QUESTION (4)
What is the minimum rank for the role of safety officer?
Leading firefighter (competent)
99
QUESTION (8)
Following a risk assessment on which of the following occasions should respirators be considered as the minimum level of RPE?
Damping down and cutting away in a fire compartment that is still warm
100
QUESTION (9)
With regards to persons in a precarious postion or theatening to jump from height, crews must not be drawn into negotiations as this is the responsibility of who?
The Police
101
QUESTION (6)
At a high rise incident the fire sector is an operational sector and consists of what?
The floors above the bridgehead to the fire, the floors) involved in fire plus one level above
102
QUESTION (7)
Three zones must be established and implemented at all incidents where fire contamination can occur to help identify and separate dirty and clean areas to prevent contamination spreading and primary contamination becoming secondary contamination. What description best describes the Amber zone?
This is the area where cross contamination could occur
103
QUESTION (1)
What are the three stages of situational awareness?
Information gathering, understanding information and anticipation
104
QUESTION (2)
The supplementary restraint systems (SRS) cannot be deemed safe after the vehicle electrical system has been isolated because the residual power in the vehicles electrical system may remain and actuate the SRS for up to how long?
30 minutes
105
QUESTION (11)
Safety observers should be appointed to?
Undertake a specific safety task or activity
Brief B.A. Crews
Undertake a review of the safe systems of work
Assist the safety officer complete an analytical risk assessment
All of the above?
106
QUESTION (10)
For damping down and cutting away operations where unburnt gases and particulates may be being produced at sianificant levels what is the minimum level of RPE.
B.A.
107
QUESTION (5)
The outcome of the dynamic risk assessment must be communicated to?
Brigade Control (Main scheme radio)
&
The incident ground.
