Indoc Flashcards

1
Q

Flight time:
Cannot exceed ____ in 672 hours (rolling time frame)

A

100 hours

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2
Q

Cannot exceed ______ hrs flight time in 365 days.

A

1000 hours

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3
Q

Rest: how many hours minimum?
How many hrs of uninterrupted sleep opportunity?

A

10 hours

8 hours (respectively)

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4
Q

There must be at least one continuous period of ____ hours rest in the last 168 consecutive hours.

A

30 hours

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5
Q

Max duty period:
Max total hours in any 168 consecutive hours?

A

60 hours

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6
Q

Max total FDP hours in any 672 consecutive hours?

A

190 hours

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7
Q

Deadheading:
Does BEFORE a flight segment count towards FDP?

A

Yes

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8
Q

Deadheading:
Does AFTER a flight segment count towards FDP?

A

No

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9
Q

Under what circumstance(s) does any extension to a FDP occur?

A

Due to “unforeseen circumstances”
eg. extending holding on last segment of a FDP period

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10
Q

Can Flight Time be exceeded?

A

No.

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11
Q

If you are going to exceed you flight time total, can you commence that flight?

A

No.

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12
Q

If, due to unforeseen circumstances, you exceed MAX flight time for a FDP, what must you do?

A

Report it to the FAA, within 10 days.

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13
Q

Split Duty (“Stand Ups”):
What rest opportunity must be had?

A

2200-0500 local time

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14
Q

Split Duty (“Stand Ups”):
At least how long at suitable accomodation?

A

3 hours

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15
Q

Split Duty (“Stand Ups”):
Can you rest shorter than the scheduled time?

A

No

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16
Q

Must the first segment of a split duty be completed before the “rest opportunity”?

A

Yes

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17
Q

Split Duty (“Stand Ups”):
The combined time of the FDP and the rest period, may not exceed how many hours?

A

14 hours

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18
Q

The Reserve Availability Period (RAP) must not exceed how many hours?

A

14 hours

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19
Q

What are the “report times” for:
(1) thru security and checked in?
(2) at the airplane ready to go?

A

1) 45 mins prior

2) 35 mins prior

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20
Q

What are the required flight items? (There are 10)

A
  1. Current pilot certificate with TR, class and endorsements,
  2. Current & appropriate medical certificate,
  3. Spare glasses (if international),
  4. Company ID badge,
  5. FCC Restricted Operator Permit,
  6. Valid passport,
  7. Flashlight in good working condition,
  8. Headset - in good working condition,
  9. Flight bag to carry EFB,
  10. Current Jepp Airway Manual, FOM, SOPM
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21
Q

When must renewed pilot medical be submitted?

A

By 23:59 MT on the 25th of the month it expires.

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22
Q

In the case of “Lost Certificates”, who may issue temporary one?
How long valid for?

A

SkyWest

72 hours

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23
Q

What are the “baby Captain” minimums?

A

Must add 100’ to DA/MDA and 1/2 mile to vis

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24
Q

“Baby Captain” minimums:
WRT alternates

A

You do NOT add 100’ and 1/2 mile to the the alternates.
However, mins become 300’ and 1mile - whichever is higher

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25
Q

“Baby Captain” minimums:
CAT II approaches permitted?

A

No

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26
Q

SIC (<100 hours) limitations:
Prevailing vis?

A

Greater than 3/4 mile

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27
Q

SIC (<100 hours) limitations:
RVR of _______?

A

Greater than 4000’

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28
Q

SIC (<100 hours) limitations:
Braking action better than?

A

“good” or RCC 5

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29
Q

SIC (<100 hours) limitations:
Crosswind greater than?

A

15 knots

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30
Q

SIC (<100 hours) limitations:
If “wind-shear” reported?

A

Cannot fly it.

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31
Q

SIC (<100 hours) limitations:
Operate at FAA “Special PIC Qualification” airports?

A

Nope

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32
Q

SIC (<100 hours) limitations:
Any “other” conditional limits?

A

PIC’s prerogative

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33
Q

SIC (<100 hours) limitations:
Can any of these limits be waivered?

A

Yes - if Captain is a “Check Airman”

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34
Q

When did FAR 177 take effect?

A

January, 2014

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35
Q

Drugs/alcohol?

A

-Not within 8 hours of report time.
FAR says BAC <0.04
SW says BAC < 0.02

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36
Q

If another crew member is suspected of being under the influence of something, what should you do?

A

-Keep them away from the airport/airplane
-Call the Flight Operations MOD

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37
Q

When can a SkyWest procedure take precedence over FARs?

A

When the SW procedure is more restrictive.

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38
Q

When do you need to abide by new company procedures?

A

By the “Effective Date”

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39
Q

How often do you need to SYNC your manuals?

A

Within the preceding four(4) days.

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40
Q

Who is primarily responsible for the safety of the flight?

A

PIC and Dispatcher

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41
Q

What is the primary consideration at work?

A

Safety

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42
Q

Who is your direct supervisor?

A

Domicile chief pilot

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43
Q

When does the responsibility of a dispatcher end?

A

When the flight is done/closed out.

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44
Q

RVSM climb & descent limits?

A

1000 fpm within 5 miles and w/in 2000 ft of other aircraft

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45
Q

Minimum charge for your EFB?

A

Start of the day -80%
Start of your leg (for the duration of your flight)

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46
Q

Minimum charge for your backup battery?

A

100%

47
Q

What do you do if your EFB breaks?

A
  • Contact Flight Ops MOD
  • have required paper charts
  • Use “SkyWest Online” to request a new one
48
Q

Altimeter tolerances?

A
  • Both must be +/- 75’ of FE
  • For RVSM operations, must be within 75 feet of each other.
  • If not RVSM, within 100 feet of each other.
49
Q

What are the “Critical Phases of Flight”?

A
  • Ground Ops: taxi, takeoff
  • Climb up to 10,000’
  • Descent through 18,000’
  • Anytime below 10,000’
50
Q

Who can carry weapons on board SW aircraft?

A

-Law Enforcement Officers (must be on duty if State Officials)
- Federal Air Marshalls
- Federal Flight Deck Officers (jurisdiction is just inside the flight deck)

51
Q

What is required to be in a Dispatch release? (DIMMWIT)

A

Departure, Arrival, Alternates
Identification number
Minimum Fuel
MEL/CDL
Weather reports
IFR/VFR
Trip or flight number

52
Q

When may the PIC deny access to the flight deck?

A

Whenever they deem it an issue for the safety of the flight.

53
Q

What is the ID that the FAA Inspector is required to have?

A

FAA Form 110A

54
Q

When do we need a Take-off Alternate?

A

-Weather conditions are too low to allow you to do an approach back into that airport.
- Must be within 1 hour flight time, single engine, still air

55
Q

When do we need a Destination Alternate?

A
  • 1,2,3, rule
  • Freezing precipitation
56
Q

What is marginal weather?

A

When BOTH the destination and first alternate are at the minimums (all or none).

57
Q

What criteria is governing?
- The destination
- Alternate

A

Destination: just the vis
Alternate: the vis AND celing

58
Q

When is a second alternate reqd?

A

When:
-weather conditions are marginal,
- we use exemption 17347

59
Q

In a TAF, what is main body language and what is conditional language?

A

Main: First part of TAF, FM & BECMG sections
Conditional: TEMPO, PROB

60
Q

What does Ex.17347 allow us to do?

A

Depart when conditional weather is forecast at destination and 1st alternate.

61
Q

What caveats are there on using the 17347 exemption?

A

Cannot be less than 1/2 of the mins (vis for destination, vis and ceiling for 1st Alt)
- Cannot apply exemption to BCMG or FM periods arrival times
- Cannot apply to international ops
- Cannot apply to 2nd alternate (it’s gotta be a “sure thing”)
- Cannot apply exemption to takeoff alternates or drift-down alternates
- Cannot apply to “high mins Captains”

62
Q

If flight has been dispatched under 17347, what must occur enroute?

A

Monitor the most current METARs an d TAFs for the dest and 1st ALT

63
Q

How many procedures are there for determining “derived minima”?
What are they called?

A

Two.
Single approach method.
Double approach method.

64
Q

How is derived minima calculated for single appch method?

A

Add 400’ and 1 mile to the minima

65
Q

How is derived minima calculated for double appch method?

A

-Add 200 ft to the highest MDA/DA of the two apprchs
- Add 1/2 mile to the highest visibility
**Approaches must be two different and suitable runways/navaids

66
Q

Is a CAT II approach eligible for derived minima?

A

No

67
Q

What is the minimum enroute altitude?
(Non-mountainous)

A

1000’ above all obstacles w/in 4 miles

68
Q

What is the minimum enroute altitude?
(Mountainous terrain)

A

2000’ above all obstacles w/in 4 miles

69
Q

Below what RVR value do airport SMGCS come into effect?

A

1200 RVR

70
Q

What PIC actions if mechanical irregularity discovered prior to block out?

A

Contacts maintenance
Enters discrepancy is eAML
Maintenance determines the action required

71
Q

What PIC actions if mechanical irregularity discovered after block out, but prior to takeoff?

A

Follow QRH:
-if fixed, can continue. (Contact Mtx later, and eAML)
-if not fixed, return to ramp, contact Mtx & enter eAML
Circuit Breakers:
- same as above prior to block out
- if in-flight, reset only if PIC determines needed for safety of flight

72
Q

How do we determine the airworthiness of the aircraft?

A

-Verify the aircraft status is In Service (IS)
-review the DMIs for compliance
-Ensure all MELs and CDLs are accurately documented on the release
-Review the Maintenance Log
-If you have bad connection:
i) contact dispatcher and go thru the same process
ii) obtain a paper copy of last 14 days

73
Q

International Ops:
What are the reqd documents and where are they kept?

A

-General, crewmember, and customs declarations
-Aircraft/vessel report
-Kept in a yellow pouch (customer service has it)

74
Q

International Ops:
Where can we look to see we have all of the reqd documents?

A

Look in the FOM Chapter 8

75
Q

International Ops:
In Canada, can you have a 2 hour sit?

A

No. You have to deplane after 90 minutes.

76
Q

FOR SUPP&Non-routine Flight Ops, Where do you look in the FOM?

A

Supplemental Operations

77
Q

OR SUPP&Non-routine Flight Ops:
When are pax allowed in the flight deck?

A

After the flight terminates

78
Q

When do we need a “Special Flight” permit?

A

When the aircraft no longer meets airworthiness standards for revenue flights, but is still in a safe condition to fly.

79
Q

Who can carry do In-flight Functional check (mtx)?

A

Group 1: any pilot (landing gear, flaps, AP, pressn.)
Group 2: PIC Line Check Airman (ADG drop, R&I of both power plants, etc.)

80
Q

Emergency/Irregular Ops:
During an accident, what are the crew responsibilities?

A

Preservation of records and pax safety

81
Q

What is an IOR?

A

Irregular Operations Report

82
Q

When does an IOR need to be filed?

A

-When diverting for other than wx
-Diverting to an airport that wasn’t a planned alternate
-Rejecting a takeoff/any extreme irregularity

83
Q

How long does the PIC have to submit an IOR?

A

24 hours
(SW needs to send it to FAA w/in 10 days)

84
Q

When diverting, when do we need to notify dispatch?

A

As soon as practical

85
Q

What defines a “suitable airport”?

A

-PIC must determine this based on all available information
-Some procedures may require you to land immediately

86
Q

Who is ultimately responsible in an emergency?

A

The PIC

87
Q

OPSPEC:
What weather criteria reqd for LAHSO clearance to be accepted?

A

-Without PAPI: 1500’ & 5sm
-With PAPI: 1000’ & 3sm
-No windshear in last 20minutes
-Less than 3kts tailwind
-Runway CANNOT be wet
-Night landing LAHSO only is FAA approved lighting system is installed
-Land in the first third, or 3000’
-Accept clearance above 1000’

88
Q

OPSPEC:
What is reqd for a visual approach?

A

-Stays in B,C or D airspace
-w/in 35 miles of destination if Class E airspace
-Under control of ATC
-Must maintain basic cloud clearances and basic VFR
-must have airport or preceding aircraft in sight
(If following a/c, then ATC not separating. If airport visual, then ATC are providing separation)

89
Q

What is required to cancel IFR?

A
  1. must maintain basic VFR minimums and cloud clearances (outside of class A)
  2. For controlled airports:
    -remains in B,C,D airspace
    -w/in 10miles of destn if in Class E
    -maintains direct contact with ATC
  3. Uncontrolled airports:
    -w/in 10miles of destn, or
    -visual reference of the landing surface is established and maintained
    -crew monitors the CTAF
90
Q

What criteria is required to depart VFR?

A

Need at least 1000’ and 3sm.
Must pickup IFR clearance within 50nm

91
Q

Fuel requirements

A

The same in the USA
- Outside the USA destination plus 10%, then most distant alternate + 30 min at holding speed
- If no alternate listed: destination + 2 hours

92
Q

What are the takeoff minimums?

A

Standard t/off mins are 1sm/5000RVR (1or2 engines)
If a t/off minimum is not specifically published, we can use STD or lower mins

93
Q

For 1/4mile or 1600RVR:

A

Either:
HIRL or CL or RCLM, or
“adequate vis reference”, or
TDZ is controlling, MID may be substituted for TDZ

94
Q

For less than 1600RVR:

A

Need two reports, all RVR if available are controlling:
~~incomplete~~~~~~~~

95
Q

What are approved sources of weather?

A

NWS, WSI, AWOS and ASOS, WMA, OCC

96
Q

When can we descend on an approach after cleared?

A

Once we are on a published segment of the approach (feeder routes to IAFs do not count)
(Make sure to stay w/in Class B shelf)

97
Q

Can we continue the approach if weather goes below the minima?

A

Yes. If we are already past the FAF.

98
Q

What do we need to descend from DA or MDA?

A
  • Flight vis as reqd on the plate
    -Land using normal manoeuvres in the TDZ
    -If ALS in sight, descent to 100’ above the TDZ
  • Unless the red side row or terminating bars are in sight
    -Runway, runway lights, runway markings, TDZ, TDZ lights, TDZ markings, threshold, threshold lights, threshold markings, VASI, REIL
99
Q

Can we do contact approaches?

A

No

100
Q

Circling to land?

A

-only within 3sm and 1000’AGL
-if chart is higher you have to use that
-if chart is lower you need to bump it up to 1000’AGL

101
Q

What speed should we maintain until 1000’AGL with engine failure?

A

V2

101
Q

Reduced CAT I Landing Minima?

A

-it has to show 1800 somewhere on the chart
-if TDZ lights and centreline lights (RCL) are out you can still use 1800
-Need HUD, Autopilot, or FD

102
Q

CAT II landing minima

A

-Anything below 1800RVR becomes CAT II down to 1200RVR
-Check the AFM and airman quals
- MUST HAVE TDZ report CANNOT be replaced
- If MID is not necessary, but if available it is controlling (have to abide by it)
- Lowest mins 12-6-3
Must have rollout if below 1600RVR (can be substitued by MID or Far-end)
- Needs to have HIRL and TDZ and CL and ALSF I/II
- Crosswind less than 15 kts

103
Q

How do you qualify for “Speical Qualification Airports”?

A
  • PIC or SIC using a Level D simulator including takeoff and landing, in the last 12 months
  • Qualifiaction = pictorial
104
Q

How many segments to the climb are there?

A

FOUR

105
Q

Define “first segment” of climb

A
  • MEasuredf rom the point at which the aircraft becomes airborne until it reaches the 35ft height at end of runway distance required
  • Speed must be V2 by end of 35ft height
106
Q

Define “Second segment” of climb

A

-Most critical segment
- Climb from 35ft to 400ft
-done at full takeoff power at V2 speed

107
Q

Define “third segment” of climb

A

-accelerates from V2 to Vfs speed

108
Q

Define “fourth segment” of climb

A

-from 400’ to 1500’ AGL

109
Q

Details for a flight change. When would we need a NEW release (not an amended one)?

A

-Captain change
-Aircraft change
-Return to field after takeoff
-Unscheduled stop somewhere

110
Q

What defines a “significant disruption of service”?

A

-Airborne holding that would result in delays of 15 minutes or more
-arrival/departure delays of 15 minutes or more
-would result in placing other aircraft in jeopardy of violating 3 hour tarmac delay rule

111
Q

When would you notify dispatch of changes to flight progress/route?

A

-EAT greater than 15 minutes change
-Aircraft 100 miles off planned course
-4000’ different from planned flight altitude

112
Q
A
113
Q

What is the FAA BAC limit?

A

0.04