Indoc Flashcards

1
Q

Flight time:
Cannot exceed ____ in 672 hours (rolling time frame)

A

100 hours

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2
Q

Cannot exceed ______ hrs flight time in 365 days.

A

1000 hours

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3
Q

Rest: how many hours minimum?
How many hrs of uninterrupted sleep opportunity?

A

10 hours

8 hours (respectively)

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4
Q

There must be at least one continuous period of ____ hours rest in the last 168 consecutive hours.

A

30 hours

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5
Q

Max duty period:
Max total hours in any 168 consecutive hours?

A

60 hours

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6
Q

Max total FDP hours in any 672 consecutive hours?

A

190 hours

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7
Q

Deadheading:
Does BEFORE a flight segment count towards FDP?

A

Yes

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8
Q

Deadheading:
Does AFTER a flight segment count towards FDP?

A

No

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9
Q

Under what circumstance(s) does any extension to a FDP occur?

A

Due to “unforeseen circumstances”
eg. extending holding on last segment of a FDP period

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10
Q

Can Flight Time be exceeded?

A

No.

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11
Q

If you are going to exceed you flight time total, can you commence that flight?

A

No.

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12
Q

If, due to unforeseen circumstances, you exceed MAX flight time for a FDP, what must you do?

A

Report it to the FAA, within 10 days.

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13
Q

Split Duty (“Stand Ups”):
What rest opportunity must be had?

A

2200-0500 local time

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14
Q

Split Duty (“Stand Ups”):
At least how long at suitable accomodation?

A

3 hours

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15
Q

Split Duty (“Stand Ups”):
Can you rest shorter than the scheduled time?

A

No

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16
Q

Must the first segment of a split duty be completed before the “rest opportunity”?

A

Yes

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17
Q

Split Duty (“Stand Ups”):
The combined time of the FDP and the rest period, may not exceed how many hours?

A

14 hours

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18
Q

The Reserve Availability Period (RAP) must not exceed how many hours?

A

14 hours

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19
Q

What are the “report times” for:
(1) thru security and checked in?
(2) at the airplane ready to go?

A

1) 45 mins prior

2) 35 mins prior

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20
Q

What are the required flight items? (There are 10)

A
  1. Current pilot certificate with TR, class and endorsements,
  2. Current & appropriate medical certificate,
  3. Spare glasses (if international),
  4. Company ID badge,
  5. FCC Restricted Operator Permit,
  6. Valid passport,
  7. Flashlight in good working condition,
  8. Headset - in good working condition,
  9. Flight bag to carry EFB,
  10. Current Jepp Airway Manual, FOM, SOPM
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21
Q

When must renewed pilot medical be submitted?

A

By 23:59 MT on the 25th of the month it expires.

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22
Q

In the case of “Lost Certificates”, who may issue temporary one?
How long valid for?

A

SkyWest

72 hours

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23
Q

What are the “baby Captain” minimums?

A

Must add 100’ to DA/MDA and 1/2 mile to vis

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24
Q

“Baby Captain” minimums:
WRT alternates

A

You do NOT add 100’ and 1/2 mile to the the alternates.
However, mins become 300’ and 1mile - whichever is higher

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25
"Baby Captain" minimums: CAT II approaches permitted?
No
26
SIC (<100 hours) limitations: Prevailing vis?
Greater than 3/4 mile
27
SIC (<100 hours) limitations: RVR of _______?
Greater than 4000'
28
SIC (<100 hours) limitations: Braking action better than?
"good" or RCC 5
29
SIC (<100 hours) limitations: Crosswind greater than?
15 knots
30
SIC (<100 hours) limitations: If "wind-shear" reported?
Cannot fly it.
31
SIC (<100 hours) limitations: Operate at FAA "Special PIC Qualification" airports?
Nope
32
SIC (<100 hours) limitations: Any "other" conditional limits?
PIC's prerogative
33
SIC (<100 hours) limitations: Can any of these limits be waivered?
Yes - if Captain is a "Check Airman"
34
When did FAR 177 take effect?
January, 2014
35
Drugs/alcohol?
-Not within 8 hours of report time. FAR says BAC <0.04 SW says BAC < 0.02
36
If another crew member is suspected of being under the influence of something, what should you do?
-Keep them away from the airport/airplane -Call the Flight Operations MOD
37
When can a SkyWest procedure take precedence over FARs?
When the SW procedure is more restrictive.
38
When do you need to abide by new company procedures?
By the "Effective Date"
39
How often do you need to SYNC your manuals?
Within the preceding four(4) days.
40
Who is primarily responsible for the safety of the flight?
PIC and Dispatcher
41
What is the primary consideration at work?
Safety
42
Who is your direct supervisor?
Domicile chief pilot
43
When does the responsibility of a dispatcher end?
When the flight is done/closed out.
44
RVSM climb & descent limits?
1000 fpm within 5 miles and w/in 2000 ft of other aircraft
45
Minimum charge for your EFB?
Start of the day -80% Start of your leg (for the duration of your flight)
46
Minimum charge for your backup battery?
100%
47
What do you do if your EFB breaks?
- Contact Flight Ops MOD - have required paper charts - Use "SkyWest Online" to request a new one
48
Altimeter tolerances?
- Both must be +/- 75' of FE - For RVSM operations, must be within 75 feet of each other. - If not RVSM, within 100 feet of each other.
49
What are the "Critical Phases of Flight"?
- Ground Ops: taxi, takeoff - Climb up to 10,000' - Descent through 18,000' - Anytime below 10,000'
50
Who can carry weapons on board SW aircraft?
-Law Enforcement Officers (must be on duty if State Officials) - Federal Air Marshalls - Federal Flight Deck Officers (jurisdiction is just inside the flight deck)
51
What is required to be in a Dispatch release? (DIMMWIT)
Departure, Arrival, Alternates Identification number Minimum Fuel MEL/CDL Weather reports IFR/VFR Trip or flight number
52
When may the PIC deny access to the flight deck?
Whenever they deem it an issue for the safety of the flight.
53
What is the ID that the FAA Inspector is required to have?
FAA Form 110A
54
When do we need a Take-off Alternate?
-Weather conditions are too low to allow you to do an approach back into that airport. - Must be within 1 hour flight time, single engine, still air
55
When do we need a Destination Alternate?
- 1,2,3, rule - Freezing precipitation
56
What is marginal weather?
When BOTH the destination and first alternate are at the minimums (all or none).
57
What criteria is governing? - The destination - Alternate
Destination: just the vis Alternate: the vis AND celing
58
When is a second alternate reqd?
When: -weather conditions are marginal, - we use exemption 17347
59
In a TAF, what is main body language and what is conditional language?
Main: First part of TAF, FM & BECMG sections Conditional: TEMPO, PROB
60
What does Ex.17347 allow us to do?
Depart when conditional weather is forecast at destination and 1st alternate.
61
What caveats are there on using the 17347 exemption?
Cannot be less than 1/2 of the mins (vis for destination, vis and ceiling for 1st Alt) - Cannot apply exemption to BCMG or FM periods arrival times - Cannot apply to international ops - Cannot apply to 2nd alternate (it's gotta be a "sure thing") - Cannot apply exemption to takeoff alternates or drift-down alternates - Cannot apply to "high mins Captains"
62
If flight has been dispatched under 17347, what must occur enroute?
Monitor the most current METARs an d TAFs for the dest and 1st ALT
63
How many procedures are there for determining "derived minima"? What are they called?
Two. Single approach method. Double approach method.
64
How is derived minima calculated for single appch method?
Add 400' and 1 mile to the minima
65
How is derived minima calculated for double appch method?
-Add 200 ft to the highest MDA/DA of the two apprchs - Add 1/2 mile to the highest visibility **Approaches must be two different and suitable runways/navaids
66
Is a CAT II approach eligible for derived minima?
No
67
What is the minimum enroute altitude? (Non-mountainous)
1000' above all obstacles w/in 4 miles
68
What is the minimum enroute altitude? (Mountainous terrain)
2000' above all obstacles w/in 4 miles
69
Below what RVR value do airport SMGCS come into effect?
1200 RVR
70
What PIC actions if mechanical irregularity discovered prior to block out?
Contacts maintenance Enters discrepancy is eAML Maintenance determines the action required
71
What PIC actions if mechanical irregularity discovered after block out, but prior to takeoff?
Follow QRH: -if fixed, can continue. (Contact Mtx later, and eAML) -if not fixed, return to ramp, contact Mtx & enter eAML Circuit Breakers: - same as above prior to block out - if in-flight, reset only if PIC determines needed for safety of flight
72
How do we determine the airworthiness of the aircraft?
-Verify the aircraft status is In Service (IS) -review the DMIs for compliance -Ensure all MELs and CDLs are accurately documented on the release -Review the Maintenance Log -If you have bad connection: i) contact dispatcher and go thru the same process ii) obtain a paper copy of last 14 days
73
International Ops: What are the reqd documents and where are they kept?
-General, crewmember, and customs declarations -Aircraft/vessel report -Kept in a yellow pouch (customer service has it)
74
International Ops: Where can we look to see we have all of the reqd documents?
Look in the FOM Chapter 8
75
International Ops: In Canada, can you have a 2 hour sit?
No. You have to deplane after 90 minutes.
76
FOR SUPP&Non-routine Flight Ops, Where do you look in the FOM?
Supplemental Operations
77
OR SUPP&Non-routine Flight Ops: When are pax allowed in the flight deck?
After the flight terminates
78
When do we need a "Special Flight" permit?
When the aircraft no longer meets airworthiness standards for revenue flights, but is still in a safe condition to fly.
79
Who can carry do In-flight Functional check (mtx)?
Group 1: any pilot (landing gear, flaps, AP, pressn.) Group 2: PIC Line Check Airman (ADG drop, R&I of both power plants, etc.)
80
Emergency/Irregular Ops: During an accident, what are the crew responsibilities?
Preservation of records and pax safety
81
What is an IOR?
Irregular Operations Report
82
When does an IOR need to be filed?
-When diverting for other than wx -Diverting to an airport that wasn't a planned alternate -Rejecting a takeoff/any extreme irregularity
83
How long does the PIC have to submit an IOR?
24 hours (SW needs to send it to FAA w/in 10 days)
84
When diverting, when do we need to notify dispatch?
As soon as practical
85
What defines a "suitable airport"?
-PIC must determine this based on all available information -Some procedures may require you to land immediately
86
Who is ultimately responsible in an emergency?
The PIC
87
OPSPEC: What weather criteria reqd for LAHSO clearance to be accepted?
-Without PAPI: 1500' & 5sm -With PAPI: 1000' & 3sm -No windshear in last 20minutes -Less than 3kts tailwind -Runway CANNOT be wet -Night landing LAHSO only is FAA approved lighting system is installed -Land in the first third, or 3000' -Accept clearance above 1000'
88
OPSPEC: What is reqd for a visual approach?
-Stays in B,C or D airspace -w/in 35 miles of destination if Class E airspace -Under control of ATC -Must maintain basic cloud clearances and basic VFR -must have airport or preceding aircraft in sight (If following a/c, then ATC not separating. If airport visual, then ATC are providing separation)
89
What is required to cancel IFR?
1. must maintain basic VFR minimums and cloud clearances (outside of class A) 2. For controlled airports: -remains in B,C,D airspace -w/in 10miles of destn if in Class E -maintains direct contact with ATC 3. Uncontrolled airports: -w/in 10miles of destn, or -visual reference of the landing surface is established and maintained -crew monitors the CTAF
90
What criteria is required to depart VFR?
Need at least 1000' and 3sm. Must pickup IFR clearance within 50nm
91
Fuel requirements
The same in the USA - Outside the USA destination plus 10%, then most distant alternate + 30 min at holding speed - If no alternate listed: destination + 2 hours
92
What are the takeoff minimums?
Standard t/off mins are 1sm/5000RVR (1or2 engines) If a t/off minimum is not specifically published, we can use STD or lower mins
93
For 1/4mile or 1600RVR:
Either: HIRL or CL or RCLM, or "adequate vis reference", or TDZ is controlling, MID may be substituted for TDZ
94
For less than 1600RVR:
Need two reports, all RVR if available are controlling: ~~incomplete~~~~~~~~
95
What are approved sources of weather?
NWS, WSI, AWOS and ASOS, WMA, OCC
96
When can we descend on an approach after cleared?
Once we are on a published segment of the approach (feeder routes to IAFs do not count) (Make sure to stay w/in Class B shelf)
97
Can we continue the approach if weather goes below the minima?
Yes. If we are already past the FAF.
98
What do we need to descend from DA or MDA?
- Flight vis as reqd on the plate -Land using normal manoeuvres in the TDZ -If ALS in sight, descent to 100' above the TDZ - Unless the red side row or terminating bars are in sight -Runway, runway lights, runway markings, TDZ, TDZ lights, TDZ markings, threshold, threshold lights, threshold markings, VASI, REIL
99
Can we do contact approaches?
No
100
Circling to land?
-only within 3sm and 1000'AGL -if chart is higher you have to use that -if chart is lower you need to bump it up to 1000'AGL
101
What speed should we maintain until 1000'AGL with engine failure?
V2
101
Reduced CAT I Landing Minima?
-it has to show 1800 somewhere on the chart -if TDZ lights and centreline lights (RCL) are out you can still use 1800 -Need HUD, Autopilot, or FD
102
CAT II landing minima
-Anything below 1800RVR becomes CAT II down to 1200RVR -Check the AFM and airman quals - MUST HAVE TDZ report CANNOT be replaced - If MID is not necessary, but if available it is controlling (have to abide by it) - Lowest mins 12-6-3 Must have rollout if below 1600RVR (can be substitued by MID or Far-end) - Needs to have HIRL and TDZ and CL and ALSF I/II - Crosswind less than 15 kts
103
How do you qualify for "Speical Qualification Airports"?
- PIC or SIC using a Level D simulator including takeoff and landing, in the last 12 months - Qualifiaction = pictorial
104
How many segments to the climb are there?
FOUR
105
Define "first segment" of climb
- MEasuredf rom the point at which the aircraft becomes airborne until it reaches the 35ft height at end of runway distance required - Speed must be V2 by end of 35ft height
106
Define "Second segment" of climb
-Most critical segment - Climb from 35ft to 400ft -done at full takeoff power at V2 speed
107
Define "third segment" of climb
-accelerates from V2 to Vfs speed
108
Define "fourth segment" of climb
-from 400' to 1500' AGL
109
Details for a flight change. When would we need a NEW release (not an amended one)?
-Captain change -Aircraft change -Return to field after takeoff -Unscheduled stop somewhere
110
What defines a "significant disruption of service"?
-Airborne holding that would result in delays of 15 minutes or more -arrival/departure delays of 15 minutes or more -would result in placing other aircraft in jeopardy of violating 3 hour tarmac delay rule
111
When would you notify dispatch of changes to flight progress/route?
-EAT greater than 15 minutes change -Aircraft 100 miles off planned course -4000' different from planned flight altitude
112
113
What is the FAA BAC limit?
0.04