Industrial/Organizational Flashcards
(132 cards)
1
Q
The primary purpose of a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is to develop a description of the nature of a particular job including the knowledge and skills necessary to successfully perform the job; methods include interviews, direct observation, work diaries, and questionnaires (e.g., Position Analysis Questionnaire).
A
Job
analysis
2
Q
In regards to job analysis, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_-oriented techniques focus on task requirements of a job, while \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_-oriented techniques identify the personal characteristics, skills, abilities, and knowledge required for successful job performance.
A
Job;
worker
3
Q
This is the process of evaluating a particular person's job performance, typically performed to assist in making decisions regarding promotions, placement, transfers, or dismissals.
A
Performance
evaluation
4
Q
Of the 2 types of "\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ measures" used to evaluate employee job performance, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ measures are quantitative and direct (e.g., number of items sold, salary), while \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ measures focus on less concrete aspects of job performance (e.g., motivation, ability to supervise) and rely more on the judgment of the rater.
A
Criterion;
objective;
subjective
5
Q
What 2 subjective rating techniques involve 1) comparing each employee with every other employee on each job behavior, and 2) categorizing employees into predetermined groups (based on performance) then comparing the groups?
A
- Paired comparisons;
- Forced distribution;
These are generally
referred to as Personnel
Comparison Systems
6
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are descriptions of specific job behaviors that make a significant contribution to the job, either positive or negative, and are defined by supervisors who identify employee behaviors that demonstrate superior or inferior performance.
A
Critical
incidents (aka
behavioral
anchors)
7
Q
This type of subjective rating technique involves a rater (e.g., supervisor) selecting the critical incident for each job dimension that best describes an employee's behavior, then using a Likert-type scale to rate the employee; construction usually involves the input of different groups of workers and supervisors.
A
Behaviorally
Anchored
Rating Scales
(BARS)
8
Q
This subjective rating technique differs from Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS) in that the rater only indicates how often the employee performs each critical incident, rather than rating performance on numerous dimensions.
A
Behavioral-Observation
Scales (BOS)
9
Q
A supervisor who, on a subjective rating of an employee's performance, gives a high rating on "punctuality" and subsequently rates other unrelated dimensions of job behavior highly is demonstrating what type of rater bias?
A
Halo Effect (can be either positive or negative), whereby all aspects of a person's behavior is based on a single attribute
10
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ refers to the inclination for a rater to assign only average ratings for all ratees; the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the tendency to rate all ratees positively; and the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the tendency to provide only negative ratings.
A
Central
tendency;
leniency bias;
strictness bias
11
Q
Assigning erroneously low ratings to an employee after rating numerous employees who demonstrate exceptionally good job performance is an example of what rater bias?
A
Contrast
Effect
12
Q
Of personnel selection procedures, these are regarded as the most valid predictors of job performance across jobs and settings, with validity increasing as job complexity increases.
A
General Mental Ability Tests, such as cognitive ability tests and general intelligence measures
13
Q
If an employer wants to measure the knowledge and abilities required to effectively perform job tasks of an employee seeking promotion, what selection procedure is most likely to be used?
A
Job Knowledge Tests, which provide a good predictor of performance for people with prior experience or training
14
Q
A person seeking employment as a court stenographer is asked demonstrate their typing skills in a situation similar to that in which they will be working, providing a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for the potential employer.
A
Work
sample
15
Q
One way to prevent unreasonable expectations about a job in order to reduce turnover is to conduct this, which often includes work samples.
A
Realistic
job preview
16
Q
Research on interviews indicates \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ interviews are more valid than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ interviews, which are more valid than psychologically-based interviews.
A
Situational;
job-related
17
Q
What types of interviews are associated with the highest corrected validity, according to research?
A
Structured board
interviews using
consensus
ratings
18
Q
Often highly predictive of job success, as well as turnover, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ includes information about an applicant's education, work history, personal interests, and skills.
A
Biodata
(biographical
information)
19
Q
These are used for the selection, promotion, and training of administrative and managerial level employees, and may involved observing how a participant responds to the kinds of tasks actually encountered on the job.
A
Assessment
centers
20
Q
One possible downside to assessment centers is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which occurs when a rater's knowledge of a person's performance on a predictor affects how the rater evaluates the person's performance once on the job, leading to an artificial increase in the correlation between the predictor and criterion (or validity coefficient).
A
Criterion
contamination
21
Q
While having low validity for predicting job success, these types of tests are quite useful at predicting job satisfaction, job persistence, and job choice.
A
Interest tests (e.g., Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory [SCII] and Kuder Occupational Interest Survey)
22
Q
What type of test might be administered to select employees with a lower probability of non-productive job behaviors (e.g., stealing, drinking, etc.)?
A
Integrity
tests
23
Q
According to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs when a hiring procedure produces significantly different rates of selection for different groups of people based on race, gender, age, etc.
A
Adverse
impact
24
Q
Adverse impact is determined using the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which states that adverse impact is occurring when the selection rate for a minority group is less than 4/5ths that of the majority group.
A
80%
(4/5ths)
rule
25
```
TRUE or FALSE: Adverse impact is
permitted in cases where an
employer demonstrates a valid
reason for hiring a significantly
larger proportion of a specific group
(e.g., job requires physical strength,
so more men tend to be hired)
```
TRUE: This is referred
to as a Bona Fide
Occupational
Qualification (BFOQ)
26
```
Two main causes of adverse impact are
________ and ________; the former
occurs when a selection procedure
validly predicts job performance for one
group and lacks validity for another
group, while the latter occurs when one
group's scores on a selection test are
lower than another's, even though job
performance is the same.
```
Differential
validity;
unfairness
27
```
Separate cutoffs, within
group norming, and
banding are methods
that might be
implemented in what
situation?
```
```
When selection test
scores of one group
tend to be lower than
those of another group,
thereby compensating
for bias
```
28
```
TRUE or FALSE: Based on the
Americans with Disabilities Act,
not providing reasonable
accommodations, regardless of
whether it would impose a
hardship on the organization, is
considered discrimination.
```
```
FALSE: Reasonable
accommodations must
be made unless the
organization can
demonstrate it would
lead to hardship
```
29
```
The gain in validity
resulting from adding
new predictors to an
existing selection
system is referred to as
what?
```
Incremental
validity (=
positive hit rate
- base rate)
30
```
A selection procedure's
incremental validity is
greatest when the base
rate is ________ (about
.50), the selection ratio is
________, and the validity
coefficient is ________.
```
Moderate;
| low; high
31
```
An organization interested in
assessing the cost-effectiveness of
a particular selection procedure
would likely employ ________,
whereby the selection procedure
being used is compared to others in
regards to dollar gain in job
performance.
```
Utility analysis
(or cost-utility
analysis)
32
```
When combining predictors into
a single selection test, it is
important that each predictor
have a ________ correlation
with the criterion and ________
correlation with the other
predictors (to avoid
redundancy).
```
High;
| low
33
```
What term refers to
predictors on a
combined predictor
selection test being
highly correlated and
thereby redundant?
```
Multicollinearity
34
```
What method of combining
predictors is being used if an
organization requires applicants
to complete 3 types of
measures then uses the
combined scores to predict job
performance (e.g., amount of
sales in a 3 month period)?
```
```
Multiple regression, which
is a "compensatory"
technique, meaning a low
score on one predictor can
be compensated for by
higher scores on the other
predictors
```
35
```
This method of combining
predictors requires applicants to
score above a minimum limit on all
predictors in order to be hired; it is
noncompensatory in that a low
score on one predictor eliminates
one's chance of being hired
regardless of scores on other
predictors.
```
```
Multiple cutoff,
which is useful when
success requires
competence in
multiple domains
```
36
```
What is the difference
between multiple
cutoff and multiple
hurdle methods of
combining predictors?
```
```
Applicants complete all
predictors at the same time with
multiple cutoff, while multiple
hurdle occurs when each
predictor is given only after an
applicant successfully
completed the previous one
```
37
```
An organization considering
employee training would likely
perform a _______, which
helps to determine if and what
kind of training is necessary
and involves organization, task,
person, and demographic
analyses.
```
Needs
| analysis
38
```
What type of training involves
having trainees perform a job
under the supervision of an
experienced supervisor,
employee, or training instructor
and is typically more
economical than other training
methods?
```
On-the-job-
| training
39
```
A person training to be an airline
pilot is required to successfully and
safely complete a set number of
hours in a flight simulator before
receiving their commercial pilot's
license. This is an example of what
type of training?
```
```
Vestibule training, which is
very useful for jobs where
consequences of errors
are significant or repeated
practice is necessary to
learn the task
```
40
```
This is a systematic
method for collecting,
analyzing, and using data
to develop answers to
basic questions about
projects, policies, and
programs.
```
Program
| evaluation
41
One common approach to program evaluation is
Kirkpatrick's model, which posits 4 levels of
training outcomes: 1. ________ focuses on what
participants thought/felt about the program, 2.
________ provides a quantifiable measure of
what has been learned during the program, 3.
________ addresses the impact the program
had on a participant's performance/behavior in
the workplace, and 4. ________ measures the
effects of the program on broader organizational
goals and objectives.
Reaction criteria;
learning criteria;
behavior criteria;
results criteria
42
```
Phillips proposed this "level 5"
evaluation be done at all 4 of
Kirkpatrick's levels of criteria,
which essentially calculates
the money gained or lost as a
result of program
implementation.
```
Return on
investment
(ROI)
43
```
Career counseling might
involve the administration
of ________, which help
determine and measure
one's potential for learning
a specific set of skills
through future training.
```
Aptitude
| tests
44
Regarding aptitude tests, ________ are used to
assess particular abilities required for a specific
job, such as psychomotor abilities (e.g., Purdue
Peg Board, O'Connor Finger Dexterity Test), and
have a high degree of specificity (i.e., different
aptitudes do not correlate); ________ measure
different aptitudes through the administration of
numerous tests (e.g., Differential Aptitude Test,
General Aptitude Test Battery).
Special Aptitude
Tests; Multiple
Aptitude
Batteries
45
```
What type of tests are intended to
measure one's previously learned
skills and knowledge about a
particular domain and might be
used in career counseling to
determine if a person has the
required skills to effectively perform
a certain job?
```
Achievement
| tests
46
```
What theory proposes
that career choice is
ultimately a function of
one's personality and
social environment?
```
Holland's
Personality and
Environment
Typology
47
The 6 personality types delineated by Holland's
Personality and Environment Typology include
________ (practical, physical, hands-on),
________ (analytical, intellectual, scientific),
________ (creative, original, nonconforming),
________ (cooperative, supportive, nurturing),
________ (competitive, persuasive,
manipulative), and ________ (detail-oriented,
organized, clerical).
```
Realistic;
Investigative; Artistic;
Social; Enterprising;
Conventional
(acronym = RIASEC)
```
48
```
According to Holland,
________ refers to the fit
between one's personality type
and occupational environment,
while ________ occurs when a
person scores high on 1 of the
6 interests and low on all
others.
```
Congruence;
| differentiation
49
```
TRUE or FALSE: Regarding
Holland's Personality and
Environment Typology,
personality-environment match
most accurately predicts
job-related outcomes when
there is a low degree of
differentiation.
```
```
FALSE: Higher
degrees of
differentiation lead
to more accurate
predictions
```
50
```
What are some tests a
career counselor might
use to measure the
personality types as
described by Holland's
Personality Typology?
```
```
Strong-Campbell
Interest Inventory;
Vocational Preference
Inventory;
Self-Directed Search
```
51
```
This theory of vocational
choice posits that parenting
orientation affects children's
needs and personality traits,
which subsequently
influences occupational
outcome.
```
Roe's Fields
and Levels
Theory
52
```
What are the 3
parenting orientations
distinguished by Roe's
Fields and Levels
Theory?
```
```
1. Overprotective, 2.
Avoidant, 3. Acceptant;
This theory also delineates
8 occupational fields (e.g.,
business, science) and 6
occupational levels (e.g.,
managerial, skilled)
```
53
```
This theory states that career
development occurs in a series
of predictable stages and that
the tasks of each stage must
be mastered before a person
progresses to the next stage.
```
Super's Career
Development
Theory
54
```
What are the 5 stages
of career development
distinguished by
Super's Career
Development Theory?
```
1. Growth (birth - 15
years); 2. Exploration
15-24 y/o); 3.
Establishment (25-44 y/o);
4. Maintenance (45-64
y/o); 5. Decline (65+ y/o)
55
```
According to Super's Career
Development Theory, ________
refers to the extent to which a
person has accomplished the tasks
at a certain developmental stage,
while ________ refers to the
different social roles adopted and
varying points during one's life.
```
Career
maturity;
life space
56
```
Super utilizes the ________ to illustrate
the 9 developmental life roles (child,
student, worker, partner, parent, citizen,
homemaker, leisurite, pensioner) a
person adopts during the 5
developmental stages of career
development, while the _______
illustrates the personal and
environmental factors that combine to
determine one's career path.
```
Life Career
Rainbow; Archway
of Career
Determinants
57
```
This model of vocational choice is
based on Erikson's psychosocial
theory of ego identity and poses
career-related correlates to each of
Erikson's 8 psychosocial crisis
resolutions; it was developed as a
reaction against Super's
self-concept model.
```
Tiedman and
O'Hare's
Decision
Making Model
58
```
The Miller-Tiedeman and Tiedman's
Decision Making Model
differentiates between _______
reality and ________ reality, the
former referring to thought or
behavior that one feels is right for
themselves, the latter referring to
what "they" expect of the person.
```
Personal;
| common
59
```
This theory addresses the extent to which
gender and prestige influence and limit
one's choice of careers and suggests
that, starting in childhood, people 1)
begin to progressively eliminate least
preferred career options as they become
more aware of occupational differences
in gender and prestige, and 2) expand
career preferences in recognition of and
accommodation to external constraints.
```
Gottfredson's
Theory of
Circumscription
and Compromise
60
This theory suggests that career transitions
occur as a result of learning experiences from
planned and unplanned encounters with the
people, institutions, and events in each
individual's specific environment, distinguishing
between the following 4 influences on career
decision making: 1) genetic characteristics and
special abilities, 2) environmental conditions and
events, 3) learning experiences (instrumental
and associative), and 4) task approach skills.
Krumboltz's Social
Learning Theory of
Career Decision
Making (SLTCDM)
61
```
This theory of management analyzes and
synthesizes workflows with the purpose
of improving productivity; underlying this
theory are the assumptions that 1)
performance is influenced by worker
motivation, 2) most workers are
motivated exclusively by economic
incentives, and 3) most workers require
constant supervision.
```
Scientific
Management
(F. Taylor), or
Taylorism
62
```
The ________ approach contrasts
against scientific management in
that it assumes worker performance
is influenced primarily by social
factors (e.g., attitudes toward
supervisors and co-workers,
informal work group norms) rather
than economic factors.
```
Human
| relations
63
```
This term refers to the
phenomenon whereby an
aspect of a person's
performance improves due
simply to the fact that they
are being observed and
receiving greater attention.
```
Hawthorne
| Effect
64
```
Organizations taking this approach
tend to assume that workers have
diverse needs; organizations differ
in terms of structure, culture, and
other characteristics; and no single
managerial strategy works
universally well for all people and all
organizations.
```
The
Systems
Approach
65
```
This theory attempts to combine the
best aspects of American
organizational styles with the best
aspects of Japanese organizational
styles, advocating for consensual
decision-making, slow promotion,
long-term employment, and holistic
knowledge of the organization.
```
Theory Z
(Ouchi and
Jaeger)
66
Skill variety (workers trained to perform
numerous skills); task variety (workers work on
entire product or component of a product and
see how it fits into big picture); autonomy,
participation, and power (workers make
decisions; task significance (workers
communicate with external customers); and
feedback (coming directly from work process
rather than management) are characteristics of
what management approach?
Total Quality
| Management
67
```
According to Lewin, Lipitt, and
White, ________ leaders make
decisions alone and instruct
subordinates what to do, ________
leaders involve subordinates in the
decision-making process, and
________ leaders provide minimal
guidance and allow subordinates to
make decisions on their own.
```
Autocratic;
democratic;
laissez-faire
68
```
Research on leadership
styles has shown that
________ leadership in
routine work
environments tends to
increase productivity.
```
Autocratic
69
```
Under what style of leadership, as
distinguished by Lewin, Lipitt, and
White, do subordinates tend to be
most satisfied, more creative, have
better relationships with the leader,
and more likely to continue working
in the absence of the leader?
```
Democratic
70
```
A supervisor who tends toward a more
person-oriented approach to leadership
and emphasizes human relations would
be said to have the ________ structure,
whereas a supervisor who is more
task-oriented and focuses on
goal-setting, rules, and role clarification
demonstrates the ________ structure.
```
Consideration;
| initiating
71
```
TRUE or FALSE:
Research has shown that
there are certain
personality characteristics
that distinguish good
leaders from poor ones.
```
```
FALSE: No single trait or set of
traits distinguishes good
leaders from poor ones, rather
effectiveness of a leader is
influenced by numerous factors
(e.g., supervisee
characteristics, type of task)
```
72
According to McGregor, ________ managers
believe work is inherently unenjoyable, workers
require direction due to lacking ambition, and
workers are motivated by lower-level needs (e.g.,
financial incentive); alternatively, ________
managers believe workers are self-directed and
responsible, work can be enjoyable under proper
conditions, and workers require freedom and
autonomy.
```
Theory X (e.g., Scientific
Management); Theory Y
(e.g., Human Relations
approach) - McGregor
theorized a Theory Y
approach was more
effective
```
73
This theory of leadership postulates that
a leader's effectiveness is determined by
the interaction between 2 factors: 1) style
of leadership, which is measured using
the Least Preferred Coworker (LPC)
scale, and 2) situational
favorableness/control, or the degree to
which a situation enables the leader to
control or influence subordinates.
Fiedler's
Contingency
Theory (LPC
Theory)
74
```
What theory of leadership
postulates that the satisfaction,
motivation, and performance of
subordinates is contingent on the
leader's behavior, further stating
that leaders engage in behaviors
that complement subordinates'
abilities and compensate for
deficiencies.
```
Path-Goal
Theory of
Leadership
(House)
75
The Path-Goal Theory of Leadership suggests 4
leader styles: ________ leaders establish clear
rules and tells subordinates how to perform
tasks; ________ leaders set challenging goals
and expect subordinates to perform at their
highest level; ________ leaders consult with
subordinates and seek their suggestions when
making decisions; and ________ leaders
demonstrate concern for the needs and
preferences of subordinates.
```
Instrumental (or
directive);
achievement-oriented;
participative;
supportive
```
76
```
According to Hersey and
Blanchard's Situational
Leadership Model, optimal
leader style is largely
dependent on subordinates'
________ and ________ to
accept responsibility, or job
maturity.
```
Ability;
| willingness
77
According to the Situational Leadership
Model, determine the optimal leader style
for these 4 "job maturity" levels: 1) ability
and willingness to accept responsibility
are both low, 2) low ability but high
willingness to accept responsibility, 3)
high ability but low willingness to accept
responsibility, 4) ability and willingness to
accept responsibility are both high.
```
1. Telling (high task orientation, low
relationship orientation); 2. Selling
(high task and relationship
orientations); 3. Participating (low
task orientation, high relationship
orientation); 4. Delegating (low task
and relationship orientation)
```
78
```
Inspirational motivation, focus on change,
appeals to higher ideals and values, and
intellectual stimulation are characteristics
of ________ leadership, while the use of
rewards and punishments, threats of
disciplinary action, and a focus on
stability is more characteristic of a
________ leadership style.
```
Transformational;
| transactional
79
This situational leadership theory distinguishes
between 5 styles of leadership based on the
extent to which the leader includes group
members in the decision-making process,
arguing that each of the leadership styles have
both costs and benefits and that the best style
depends on situational characteristics; uses a
"decision tree" to indicate optimal leader style
based on the leader's answers to questions
about situational attributes.
Vroom and
Yetton's Normative
(Decision-Making)
Model
80
```
What theory emphasizes that not all
subordinates (members) of an
organization achieve the same quality of
relationship with leaders, explains how
relationships with various subordinates
can develop, and suggests the
subordinate-leader relationship
determines "in group" or "out group"
status of the subordinate?
```
Leader Member
Exchange
Theory
81
What are the 7
phases of
organizational
development?
```
Entry (identify need for change),
contracting (consultant specifics terms
and conditions of participation), diagnosis
(problem assessed and data collected),
FEEDBACK (help organization
understand diagnostic information so it
can begin to address problem), planning
(corrective-action plan developed),
intervention (plan implemented), and
evaluation (progress assessed)
```
82
```
What quality of work life
intervention involves
having workers from the
same department
voluntarily meet regularly
to discuss how their work
can be improved?
```
Quality
| circles
83
```
With the purpose of helping team
members understand and alter
processes that are undermining
their interactions, ________
focuses on decision-making,
communication, conflict resolution,
and individual roles in groups.
```
Process
| consultation
84
Chin and Benne posit 3 strategies for
overcoming resistance to organizational change:
________ (assumes people are rational and act
in accord with their self-interests), ________
(assumes social norms underlie organizational
behavior patterns, thus change in
attitudes/values leads to acceptance of
organizational change), and ________ (rewards,
punishments, and legitimate authority used to
coerce employees to comply with organizational
change).
Empirical-Rational;
Normative-Reeducative;
Power-Coercive
85
```
TRUE or FALSE: When
employees are asked to
participate in decisions
regarding organizational
change, they become less
likely to support the
change.
```
```
FALSE: When allowed
to fully participate,
employees tend to
support the change
enthusiastically
```
86
A ________ communication network involves all
communication going through one
person/position (e.g., chain of command), while a
________ communication network is
characterized by information flowing more freely
between individuals (e.g., the circle); the former
is more efficient for simple mundane tasks, the
latter is more efficient when tasks require
cooperation and are more complex.
Centralized;
| decentralized
87
Regarding individual decision-making within an
organization, a person utilizing the ________
model gathers all relevant information and must
process the information accurately without bias
in order to find the optimal solution; a person
utilizing the ________ model evaluates solutions
as they become available and selects the first
one that is minimally acceptable, as perfect
rationality is understood to be impossible.
Rational-economic;
| administrative
88
```
According to Driver, Brousseau,
and Hunsaker, ________ make
decisions based on the least
amount of information necessary
and choose 1 or more adequate
solutions, while ________ use all of
the time and resources necessary
to consider all relevant information
before settling on a solution.
```
Satisficers;
| maximizers
89
```
The 5 decision making styles proposed
by Driver, Brousseau, and Hunsaker are:
________ (satisficing and uni-focus),
________ (satisficing and multi-focus),
________ (maximizing and uni-focus),
________ (maximizing and multi-focus),
and ________ (maximizing and both
uni-focus and multi-focus).
```
```
Decisive style;
flexible style;
hierarchic style;
integrative style;
systemic style
```
90
```
This primary concept of
Prospect Theory refers to the
tendency for people to be more
influenced by potential losses
than potential gains when
making decisions; essentially,
people prefer avoiding losses
more than acquiring gains.
```
Loss aversion
(people are
more adverse to
loss than to risk)
91
```
The degree to which workers perceive
they are being treated fairly is referred to
as ________ and involves these 3
dimensions: ________ (perceived
fairness of outcomes such as hiring and
raise requests), ________ (perceived
fairness of processes/methods used to
allocate outcomes), and ________
(perceived fairness of interpersonal
treatment).
```
```
Organizational
justice; distributive
justice; procedural
justice;
interactional justice
```
92
```
What dimension of
organizational justice is
the best predictor of
work performance and
counterproductive work
behavior?
```
Procedural
| justice
93
```
According to Schein, there are 3
levels characterizing this concept:
1) behavior and observable artifacts
(e.g., physical layout of workplace,
dress codes), 2) values (e.g.,
organizations ideologies, norms,
goals), and 3) underlying
assumptions (e.g., unconscious
thoughts, emotions, assumptions).
```
Organizational
| culture
94
```
TRUE or FALSE: Physically
attractive women, when
competing with equally
qualified women who are less
attractive, are usually
deemed less suitable for the
job by male executives.
```
```
TRUE: Though
physically attractive
males are usually
deemed more
suitable
```
95
```
According to research,
how are women
managers, particularly
those who utilize
stereotypically male
leadership styles,
evaluated?
```
```
Only slightly less
favorable, while men
using stereotypically
female leadership styles
are not evaluated any
differently
```
96
```
The notion that men and
women should receive
equal pay for performing
jobs that have
equivalent worth is
referred to as what?
```
Comparable
| worth
97
```
TRUE or FALSE: Based
on research findings,
males and females in
leadership roles do not
consistently differ in terms
of their leader style.
```
```
TRUE: There is some
evidence, however, that
women adopt a more
participatory style while
men are more
autocratic/directive
```
98
```
What is utilized to
help an organization
determine the worth of
jobs in order to set
salaries and wages?
```
Job
| evaluation
99
```
These are used to assess
employee attitudes and
opinions and can provide
valuable information and
solutions to help solve
organizational problems, which
usually leads to increased
employee satisfaction.
```
Employee
| surveys
100
```
This theory, when applied to the
workplace, suggests that workers are
motivated by need deficiencies, thereby
exerting effort to meet their lowest
unsatisfied need (e.g., higher-level
workers motivated by esteem needs
while lower-level workers motivated by
physiological needs); empirically, there is
not much support for this theory.
```
Maslow's
Hierarchy of Needs
(as applied to work
motivation)
101
```
Alderfer's ERG theory
proposes what 3 needs,
which do not arise in
hierarchical order as
Maslow suggests,
contribute to work
motivation?
```
Existence,
relatedness,
and growth
102
```
According to McClelland, ________ is the
primary motivator in work situations,
whereby people with high levels desire
autonomy, personal responsibility, and
recognition for their efforts; those with a
high ________ are motivated by control,
prestige, and status, while those with a
high ________ are motivated by good
interpersonal relationships and the
avoidance of conflict.
```
Need for achievement
(nACh); need for
power (nPOW); need
for affection (nAFF)
103
This theory proposes that: the absence of
hygiene factors (e.g., pay, benefits) leads
to worker dissatisfaction, while the
presence has no effect on satisfaction;
the presence of motivator factors (e.g.,
decision-making authority, responsibility)
leads to satisfaction and motivation, while
the absence does not cause
dissatisfaction.
```
Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory
(note: there is some empirical
support that motivators are
more effective than hygiene
factors, though little support for
the distinction between factors
that produce satisfaction and
dissatisfaction)
```
104
```
According to Herzberg's
Two-Factor Theory,
redesigning a job to provide a
worker with increased
responsibility, decision-making
authority, opportunities for
advancement, and challenge is
referred to as what?
```
Job
| enrichment
105
```
This term refers to simply
increasing the number and
variety of tasks a worker
performs in order to reduce
boredom without the intent of
increasing job motivation and
satisfaction.
```
Job
| enlargement
106
According to the Job Characteristics Model,
________ (job meaning increases with skill
requirement), ________ (jobs constituting whole
pieces of work rather than pieces of a whole are
more meaningful), ________ (important jobs are
more meaningful), ________ (independence,
freedom, decision-making authority increases
meaning), and ________ (regular reviews
increase meaning) all influence motivation and
job satisfaction.
```
Skill variety; task
identity; task
significance;
autonomy;
feedback
```
107
```
According to Goal-Setting
Theory, which suggests that
conscious acceptance of and
commitment to goals are the
most important factors in a
worker's willingness to achieve
goals, what conditions
maximize goal attainment?
```
```
Goals are specific and
moderately difficult, and
regular feedback about
progress toward goal
attainment is provided
```
108
```
An employee and his manager agree to a
particular set of measurable goals that
the employee will accomplish during a
certain period of time. At the end of this
time period, the employee's progress
toward these goals is evaluated and
changes in goals or work behaviors are
made. This exemplifies what technique
based on Goal-Setting Theory?
```
Management
| by Objective
109
```
TRUE or FALSE: Setting
goals and receiving
regular feedback has been
shown to positively effect
performance, while adding
incentives does not appear
to increase performance.
```
```
TRUE: This
suggests extrinsic
motivation does not
necessarily improve
performance
```
110
```
This cognitive theory of work motivation
posits that workers assess both their
contributions to (input) and rewards of
(outcomes) their work, unconsciously
comparing this input/outcome ratio to that
of other workers; workers are motivated
to create ratios comparable to that of
other workers
```
Equity
| Theory
111
```
According to Equity
Theory, an employee
given a pay raise will be
motivated to increase the
quality and quantity of their
work if they believe the
raise resulted in what?
```
Them being
overpaid
compared to
other employees
112
```
The 3 concepts underlying
Expectancy Theory (Vroom) are
________ (belief that increased
effort leads to better job
performance), ________ (belief that
better job performance leads to
certain outcomes/rewards), and
________ (rewards are
desired/valued by the worker).
```
Expectancy;
instrumentality;
valence
113
```
Similar in principle to Operant
Conditioning, what
reinforcement theory of work
motivation places particular
importance on extrinsic
rewards, especially material
rewards (e.g., salary, benefits)?
```
Incentive
| Theory
114
```
TRUE or FALSE: A young,
Hispanic, lower-level
employee is likely to report
greater satisfaction with
his job than an older,
White, manager.
```
```
FALSE: In terms of job
satisfaction, older age,
higher-level jobs, and
being white are correlated
with lower reports of job
dissatisfaction
```
115
```
Researchers have found
that the strongest
predictor of job success
for a number of jobs
was what?
```
The employees'
ability to utilize
their skills
116
```
The correlation between
job satisfaction and job
performance is
________ and
________.
```
Positive;
| weak
117
```
This term refers to an employee's
psychological attachment to their
place of work, or the extent to which
they identify with their workplace
and are willing to help it achieve its
goals; higher levels are negatively
correlated with absenteeism and
turnover.
```
Organizational
| Commitment
118
```
TRUE or FALSE: When
working
interdependently on a
task, it is best to
develop both individual
and group goals.
```
```
FALSE: Research
indicates individual
plus group goals
are no better than
group goals alone
```
119
```
One main focus of engineering
(ergonomic) psychology is the
________, which refers to the
extent to which humans and
machines must work together
to accomplish a job.
```
Person-Machine
| Systems
120
```
Regarding work
schedules, working a 10
hour per day, 4 day per
week schedule is an
example of what?
```
Compressed
work week
(CWW)
121
```
Employees who are allowed to
determine their own daily
schedules as long as they work
the required number of hours
and are at work during specific
core times are on a ________
work arrangement.
```
Flextime
122
```
Research indicates that people
working a ________, a type of
shift-work schedule, are more prone
to making errors and having serious
accidents; even worse, people on a
________ shift have lower
productivity, higher accident rates,
and more health problems (physical
and mental).
```
Night-shift;
| rotating
123
```
One way to combat work
________, or the subjective
tiredness due to physical or
mental exertion, is to take
periodic ________, which help
to reduce work-related
accidents and increase
employee satisfaction.
```
Fatigue;
| rest breaks
124
```
Work stress is typically
caused by ________ (too
much work to do in available
time), ________ (work is too
difficult), and/or ________
(not enough work/work is too
easy).
```
```
Quantitative
overload;
qualitative
overload; work
underload
```
125
```
What is the single most
stressful aspect of work
for psychotherapists,
which could lead to
burnout, according to
research?
```
Lack of
therapeutic
success
126
```
This term refers to the physical and
emotional exhaustion that can be
caused by chronic work stress and
is usually accompanied by a sense
of reduced personal
accomplishment and a tendency to
think in impersonal terms.
```
Burnout
127
Who is most
likely to
experience
burnout?
```
Women, employees
who are single or
divorced, those who
work frequently with
others
```
128
```
Problems that occur as a result
of role expectations at work
and at home being
incompatible is referred to as
________, which can lead to
burnout, lowered work
productivity, depression, and
marital/family dissatisfaction.
```
Work-family
| conflict
129
```
TRUE or FALSE: To make sure
employees are operating in a
safe fashion, it is recommended
organizations utilize tactics to
frighten the employees, such
as posting graphic details of
what could happen if something
is done out of safety code.
```
```
FALSE: Research
indicates positive
themed programs
with a specific point
are more effective
```
130
```
________, ________,
and ________ noises
are more distracting
than ________,
________, ________
noises.
```
```
Intermittent; irrelevant;
meaningful (e.g.,
conversations);
constant; relevant;
non-meaningful (e.g.,
construction noise)
```
131
```
What is the best
way to reduce
employee
complaints about
distracting noise?
```
Provide them
some control
over the noise
132
This type of
training is useful
for improving
rater accuracy.
Frame-of-reference
| training
