1
Q
The DSM is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in nature and, as such, only addresses the etiology of disorders for which the cause is clearly known (e.g., PTSD).
A
Atheoretical
2
Q
Regarding multiaxial assessment, identify and describe the 5 axes used with each individual diagnosis.
A
Axis I: Clinical disorders and other conditions that may be a focus of clinical attention; Axis II: Mental retardation and personality disorders; Axis III: General medical conditions; Axis IV: Psychosocial and environmental problems; Axis V: GAF
3
Q
The DSM-IV-TR defines \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ as a "clinically significant behavioral or psychological syndrome or pattern that occurs in an individual and is associated with present distress... disability... or with a significant increased risk of suffering death, pain, disability, or important loss of freedom..."
A
Mental
disorder
4
Q
When a therapist applies diagnoses for a person on both Axis I and Axis II, what words should be used to emphasize the one that is the focus of treatment?
A
Principal
Diagnosis (or
Reason for
Visit)
5
Q
Routinely used defense mechanisms and maladaptive personality traits that are not pervasive enough to qualify for a personality disorder can be recorded on what axis?
A
Axis II
6
Q
TRUE or FALSE: A therapist should not consider impairment caused by a client's physical or environmental limitations when using the GAF scale (Axis V).
A
TRUE: Physical limitations are usually coded on Axis III, while environmental stressors would be coded on Axis IV
7
Q
The DSM-IV-TR takes a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ approach to mental disorder diagnosis, classifying a person as either meeting or not meeting a disorder's given criteria. This differs from a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ approach, which quantifies a persons symptoms rather than classifying them.
A
Categorical;
dimensional
8
Q
This diagnosis requires the following three criteria: (1) Significantly sub-average intellectual functioning, (2) concurrent impairments or deficits in at least 2 areas of adaptive functioning, and (3) onset before age 18.
A
Mental
Retardation
9
Q
What are the 4 degrees of mental retardation and their corresponding IQ scores, as defined by the DSM?
A
Mild (IQ = 50-55 to 70); Moderate (IQ = 35-40 to 50-55); Severe (IQ = 20-25 to 35-40); Profound (IQ = 20-25 or below)
10
Q
People with this degree of mental retardation are able to develop social and communication skills during childhood, acquire about a 6th grade level of academic skills, and are able to work and live independently as adults.
A
Mild Retardation
(85% of all
mentally
retarded people)
11
Q
With this level of mental retardation, people may require guidance and some supervision in social and occupational settings; they usually have no more than a 2nd grade academic level; and as adults, they can contribute to their own support by performing unskilled or semiskilled work under close supervision
A
Moderate
Retardation (10%
of all mentally
retarded people)
12
Q
People with this degree of mental retardation have poor motor skills and communication skills as a child, though may learn to talk and can be trained in simple hygiene tasks; and they are often able to perform simple tasks as a adults, often living in highly supervised settings (e.g., group homes, with family).
A
Severe
Retardation (3-4%
of all mentally
retarded people)
13
Q
At this level of mental retardation, people demonstrate extreme limitations in motor and sensory function; require highly structured environments, usually assisted by a caregiver; and can sometimes perform simple tasks under close supervision in a sheltered workshop
A
Profound
Retardation (1-2%
of all mentally
retarded people)
14
Q
What biological antecedent to mental retardation is caused by a lack of the enzyme necessary to oxidize phenylalanine (and amino acid in protein foods)?
A
Phenylketonuria
PKU
15
Q
This biological cause of mental retardation occurs due to a faulty distribution of chromosomes when the egg or sperm is formed, leaving the person with 47 rather than 46 chromosomes
A
Down’s
Syndrome (aka
Trisomy-21)
16
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ retardation is often related to early deprivation of nurturance, deficiencies in health care, early deficiencies in social, cognitive, and other stimulation, and poverty
A
Cultural-familial
17
Q
What disorder is characterized by delayed or abnormal functioning in: social interaction, language as used in social communication, or symbolic or imaginative play by age 3?
A
Autism
Disorder
18
Q
TRUE or FALSE: As people with Autism grow older, they may become more interested in developing relationships, which is usually absent in Autistic children.
A
TRUE: They usually do not understand the customs that regulate social interaction
19
Q
What is the term used to define a person's tendency to repeat the words or phrases of others?
A
Echolalia
20
Q
What form of therapy has been shown to be fairly successful in treating people with Autism?
A
Behavioral therapy, particularly techniques such as shaping and operant conditioning, has helped people with Autism replace abnormal behaviors with more desirable ones
21
Q
The core feature of this disorder is a progressive pattern of developmental regression that begins before age 4 and is characterized by decelerated head growth, loss of hand skills, lack of bodily coordination, severe deficiencies in overall language development, psychomotor retardation, and lacking social interest.
A
Rett’s Disorder
(only been
found in
females)
22
Q
People with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ experience a significant loss of developed skills (language, social, adaptive behavior, bowel/bladder control, play, and/or motor) after 2 or more years of seemingly normal development.
A
Childhood Disintegrative Disorder (similar social/communication and behavior to those with Autism)
23
Q
What are the significant differences between a person with Autism and a person with Asperger's Disorder?
A
While both involve deficits in social interaction and behavior, people with Asperger's show no impairment in language development, self-help skills, cognitive development, or interest in the environment
24
Q
What are the 3
Learning Disorders
described in the
DSM?
A
Reading Disorder, Mathematics Disorder, and Disorder of Written Expression
25
```
TRUE or FALSE: Learning
disorders cannot be
caused by mental
retardation, but mental
retardation can be
co-diagnosed with a
learning disorder.
```
```
TRUE: Learning
Disorders and Mental
Retardation are distinct
phenomena that, while
not caused by the other,
can be co-diagnosed
```
26
A person with ________ is able to read
regularly spelled words, but unable to
decipher words spelled irregularly (e.g.,
reads "fight" as "fit"); a person with
________ might produce responses that
are related to the target word in meaning
but not visually or phonologically (e.g.,
substitutes "down" for "up" or "hot" for
"cold"), which is referred to as "semantic
paralexia."
Surface
dyslexia;
deep dyslexia
27
```
What condition involves
inflammation of the middle ear
accompanied by accumulation of
liquid in the middle ear cleft and is
said to cause cerebellar-vestibular
dysfunction, which has been linked
to the development of learning
disorders?
```
Otitis Media
with Effusion
(OME)
28
```
After administering a battery of
standardized tests of intelligence to
a client, results reveal severe
deficits in both receptive and
expressive language development,
while the client's performance on
nonverbal measures are
considerably higher. What is the
likely diagnosis?
```
Mixed
Receptive-Expressive
Language Disorder
29
```
This diagnosis would likely
apply when a person's
academic/occupational or
social abilities are
impeded by their
inappropriate use of
speech sounds.
```
Phonological
| Disorder
30
```
While considered "normal
childhood dysfluency"
when it occurs in young
children, ________ is said
to be aggravated by
tension or anxiety in more
mature individuals.
```
Stuttering
31
```
A young person whose
scholastic achievement
is impeded by abnormal
clumsiness would likely
receive a diagnosis of
________
```
Motor
Skills
Disorder
32
The 3 types of ADHD include ________, which is
characterized by 6 or more symptoms of
inattention and 6 or more symptoms of
hyperactivity-impulsiveness; ________, which is
diagnosed when a person has 6 or more
symptoms of inattention but fewer than 6
symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsiveness; and
________, which is characterized by 6 or more
symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsiveness but
fewer than 6 symptoms of inattention
```
Combined;
Predominantly
Inattentive;
Predominantly
Hyperactivity-Impulsive
```
33
```
Onset of symptoms
must be before what
age, and for what
duration, in order to
assign an ADHD
diagnosis?
```
```
Onset must be before 7
y/o and last for a duration
of at least 6 months, with
symptoms present in 2 or
more settings (e.g., home
and school)
```
34
```
What are common
comorbid problems
experienced by children
and adolescents
diagnosed with ADHD?
```
```
50% meet criteria for Conduct
Disorder, 25% have emotional
disorder, 20% have Learning
Disorder, and others
experience social
maladjustment, motor
incoordination, and visual/audio
impairments
```
35
```
TRUE or FALSE:
Children classified as
ADHD tend to become
delinquent and
antisocial young adults?
```
TRUE: About 70%
exhibit signs of
ADHD throughout
their lives
36
```
What personality
characteristics have
been noted to
develop as a result
of untreated ADHD?
```
```
Narcissism and
passive-aggressive
traits (usually
subside once
ADHD is treated)
```
37
```
ADHD has been linked to
abnormalities in the ________
by research that found
diminished glucose metabolism
and decreased blood flow in
this region, as well as pathways
connecting this region to the
caudate nucleus.
```
Prefrontal
| cortex
38
TRUE or FALSE:
There is no
genetic link
regarding ADHD
```
FALSE: About 57% of
children whose parents
have ADHD are later
diagnosed, while twin
studies have revealed a
.80 average heritability for
hyperactivity/impulsivity
```
39
```
This idea suggests that the
core of ADHD is not
attention deficits but rather
a lack of ability to adjust
activity levels to fit the
requirements of different
settings.
```
Behavioral
disinhibition
hypothesis
(Barkley)
40
```
What are some of the
undesirable side-effects
of methylphenidate
(Ritalin), which is often
used to treat ADHD?
```
```
Somatic symptoms (decreased
appetite, insomnia, stomach
aches); movement abnormalities
(motor and vocal tics, stereotyped
movements); obsessive-compulsive
symptoms (though more common
with dextroamphetamine); growth
suppression (hence "drug holidays")
```
41
```
A child or adolescent who
persistently violates social
rules and norms, such as
acting aggressively toward
animals, destroying property,
or stealing, is likely to receive
what diagnosis?
```
Conduct
| Disorder
42
```
To diagnose Conduct
Disorder, the person has to
display ________ or more
signs for at least ________
months, with at least one sign
present in the past ________
months.
```
3; 12; 6
43
```
Regarding Conduct
Disorder, what
differentiates "Childhood
Onset" from "Adolescent
Onset?"
```
```
Childhood Onset
diagnosed when
symptoms present prior
to age 10; Adolescent
Onset when symptoms
occur at age 10 or later
```
44
```
In people diagnosed with Conduct
Disorder, those with ________
Onset have a worse prognosis and
are more likely to receive a later
diagnosis of Antisocial Personality
Disorder, while problematic
behavior of those with ________
Onset is usually a product of their
relationships with delinquent peers.
```
Childhood;
| Adolescent
45
```
What diagnosis best applies for a
child or young adolescent who is
very negative, argumentative, and
defiant to adults (usually parents),
rarely accepts responsibility for their
actions, but tends not to get into
much trouble outside of the home?
```
Oppositional
Defiant
Disorder
46
```
This disorder involves
persistently eating non-nutritive
substances such as paint,
cloth, sand, grass, etc. for at
least 1 month; it is typically
associated with Mental
Retardation
```
Pica
47
```
What is the diagnosis of a
child who, for at least one
month following normal
functioning, recurrently
regurgitates and re-chews
their food?
```
Rumination
| Disorder
48
```
What disorder is diagnosed for
a child who, before age 6,
chronically fails to eat enough
food for at least one month,
which leads to weight loss or
failure to gain weight? It is
commonly referred to as
________.
```
Feeding Disorder
of Infancy or
Early Childhood;
failure to thrive
49
```
This Tic Disorder has its onset
before age 18 and is characterized
by involuntary jerky movements,
vocal sounds (grunts, clicks), and
sometimes coprolalia (uttering
obscene words); people with this
diagnosis often have attention and
hyperactivity problems
```
Tourette's
| Disorder
50
```
A person presenting with
symptoms similar to Tourette's
Disorder who experiences tics
in only one domain
(movements or vocal sounds)
would be most appropriately
diagnosed:
```
Chronic Motor
or Vocal Tic
Disorder
51
```
Regarding elimination
disorders, ________ and
________ refer to
repeated involuntary or
intentional elimination of
feces and urine,
respectively.
```
Encopresis;
| enuresis
52
```
Treatment of enuresis often
includes ________, which
involves placing a pad under
the child that sounds an alarm
as soon urine touches it and
are associated with the highest
long-term success rate.
```
Moisture
alarms (aka
bell-and-pad)
53
```
What diagnosis is most appropriate
for a child who experiences
excessive anxiety, lasting for at
least 4 weeks, in response to
separation from home or a
significant figure of attachment
(parent) and is often accompanied
by somatic complaints (nausea,
dizziness)?
```
Separation
Anxiety
Disorder
54
```
Usually caused by separation
anxiety, ________ refers to the
experience of intense anxiety
about going to school and is
often an early sign of
depression or another serious
mental disorder
```
School
| Phobia
55
```
TRUE or FALSE: It is
recommended that a child
with school phobia be
removed from the
academic setting until his
fear is appropriately
resolved.
```
FALSE: The
consensus is that
he child should be
returned to school
56
```
What disorder is characterized
by a chronic failure to talk in
certain situations (e.g., school)
for at least 1 month, despite
competently and easily talking
in other situations (e.g., home)?
```
Selective
| Mutism
57
```
A child with this disorder presents
with extremely disturbed and
developmentally inappropriate
relatedness; the Inhibited Type fails
to initiate or respond in
age-expected manners to social
interactions, while the Disinhibited
Type is socially indiscriminate (e.g.,
easily affectionate with strangers)
```
Reactive
Attachment
Disorde
58
```
Often associated with Mental
Retardation, ________ is
characterized by repetitive motor
behaviors that are not functional,
such as head banging or
body-rocking, and cause physical
harm or significantly interfere with
normal activities
```
Stereotypic
Movement
Disorder
59
```
A child who has a short nose,
narrow upper lip, small chin,
and flat mid-face, and who
experiences developmental
delays, failure to thrive, and is
usually mild to moderately
mentally retarded characterizes
what non-DSM condition?
```
```
Fetal Alcohol
Syndrome (caused by
chronic consumption
of alcohol by mother
during pregnancy)
```
60
```
What is the 3rd most
frequent cause of
death for infants
between 1 month
and 1 year old?
```
Sudden Infant
Death
Syndrome
(SIDS)
61
```
A child diagnosed with ________
may present similarly as depressed
adults, though often mask their
feelings with delinquency, phobias,
underachievement, psychosomatic
complaints, hyperactivity, or
aggression; it is often associated
with family abuse or neglect.
```
Childhood
| Depression
62
```
A person presents for therapy after
family members noticed
significantly increased paranoia
following a car accident where the
person sustained a head injury.
Collateral information suggests the
paranoia presented only after the
accident. What is the most likely
primary diagnosis?
```
Personality
Change Due to a
General Medical
Condition
63
```
What are the
subtypes of
Personality Change
Due to a General
Medical Condition?
```
```
Labile, Disinhibited,
Aggressive,
Apathetic, Paranoid,
Other, Unspecified,
and Combined
```
64
```
What is the most likely
diagnosis for a person
who becomes catatonic
as a direct result of
cerebrovascular
disease?
```
Catatonic
Disorder Due to a
General Medical
Condition
65
```
What is diagnosed when maladaptive
behavioral or psychological changes
occur during or shortly after using or
being exposed to a substance (e.g.,
alcohol, caffeine, opioids), and the
changes are due to the physiological
effects of the substance on the central
nervous system?
```
Substance
| Intoxication
66
```
This diagnosis is given when a
reversible syndrome develops
in a person due to recently
terminating or reducing the use
of a substance after using it in
large quantities over a long
period of time.
```
Substance
| Withdrawal
67
```
A client who discloses a history
of extensive LSD use, though
he no longer uses, reports that
he occasionally re-experiences
hallucinations similar to those
he experienced when using the
LSD. What is the most
appropriate diagnosis?
```
Hallucinogen
Persisting
Perception
Disorder
68
A person with ________ experiences a reduced
level of awareness and understanding of the
environment, impaired ability to focus, maintain,
or switch attention (disturbances of
consciousness), as well as memory impairment,
disorientation, or language difficulties (cognitive
disturbances); sometimes illusions or
hallucinations (perceptual disturbance) occur
instead of cognitive disturbances
Delirium
69
Describe the
typical onset
and duration of
delirium.
Onset is usually
rapid and duration
is brief, typically
less than 1 month
70
```
What four groups
has research found
to be most at risk
for developing
delirium?
```
```
Older people (60+ y/o);
people with decreased
cerebral reserve (e.g., prior
CNS injury or impaired
cognition); post-cardiotomy
patients; people going
through drug withdrawal
```
71
```
A client is relatively alert, though her
memory has significantly declined and
she has been experiencing increased
difficulty recognizing objects, organizing
her thoughts, and understanding abstract
concepts. These problems have seriously
impeded her normal functioning. What is
her most likely diagnosis?
```
Dementia
72
What percent
of people over
age 85 have
dementia?
20%
73
```
What is the term used
when an elderly person's
experience of depression
impairs their cognitive
ability, but is unrelated to a
general medical condition
or substance use?
```
Pseudo-dementia
74
The initial stages of ________ involves
forgetting tasks and repeating questions,
which progresses to impaired ability to
perform day-to-day tasks independently
(e.g., cooking, driving, getting dressed).
In the final stages, incontinence, severe
language impairment, and the inability to
walk or sit-up are typical
Alzheimer's
| Disease
75
```
What is the only way
to confirm with
certainty that a person
has Alzheimer's
Disease?
```
Postmortem
brain autopsy
or biopsy
76
```
A person who presents with
significant problems in memory
and/or other cognitive
disturbances following a
cerebrovascular disease (e.g.,
stroke or infarction) would
receive what diagnosis?
```
Vascular
| Dementia
77
```
What is another
term for what the
DSM calls
Dementia Due to
HIV Disease?
```
AIDS
Dementia
Complex
78
```
When a person's dementia is
caused by the persisting
effects of substance use,
rather than the direct effects
of intoxication or withdrawal,
the most appropriate
diagnosis is what?
```
Substance-Induced
Persisting Dementia
(with the responsible
substance indicated)
79
```
Significant impairment in one's
ability to learn new information
is referred to as ________
amnesia, while marked
diminishment in one's ability to
recall learned information or
events is called ________
amnesia
```
Anterograde;
| retrograde
80
```
When a person's
amnesia is due to a
medical condition, such
as hypoxia, seizures, or
head trauma, the correct
diagnosis is:
```
```
Amnestic Disorder
Due to a General
Medical Condition
(with specific
condition indicated)
```
81
```
Alcohol-Induced
Persisting Amnestic
Disorder due to thiamine
and other vitamin B
deficiencies is know as
________.
```
Korsakoff's
| Syndrome
82
```
What drug produces
severe nausea when
taken in conjunction with
alcohol and is used to
assist in the treatment of
alcoholism?
```
Antabuse
83
```
The DSM defines Substance _______ as
a cluster of cognitive, behavioral, and
physiological symptoms indicating that
the individual continues use of the
substance despite significant
substance-related problems, while
Substance ________ refers to less
severe maladaptive substance use that
leads to general problems in life (e.g.,
academic, relational, legal).
```
Dependence;
| Abuse
84
```
TRUE or FALSE: A
person cannot be
diagnosed with both
Substance Abuse and
Substance
Dependence.
```
```
True- if a person
meets the criteria
for Dependence,
Abuse is not
diagnosed
```
85
```
Research has shown that
alcoholics who are
administered the WAIS perform
relatively normal on _______
subtests, while their ________
subtest scores are often poorer
than expected, especially on
visual-spatial measures
```
Verbal;
| performance
86
```
Occurring during alcohol
withdrawal, ________ involve
typical signs of delirium, in addition
to hallucinations, delusions,
autonomic hyperactivity, and
agitation; they are often associated
with a co-occurring medical
condition (e.g., liver failure)
```
Delirium
| tremens
87
```
Withdrawal and
Intoxication by what
2 substances share
the same diagnostic
criteria in the DSM?
```
Cocaine and
| amphetamine
88
```
What substance does not lead
to physical dependence, has no
significant withdrawal
symptoms, and has no
evidence of causing any
long-term negative or toxic
effects to it's users (based on
governmental studies)?
```
Cannabis
| Marijuana
89
```
A client presents to therapy complaining
of nervousness, speaking rapidly, and
has a flushed face. He reports having a
difficult time sleeping and mentions
increased diarrhea. During the session,
he coyly states he has started consuming
copious quantities of "Red Bull" energy
drinks. What is a possible diagnosis?
```
Caffeine
| Intoxication
90
```
What term is used to
describe the phenomenon
that a person's substance
use relapse leads to
feelings of guilt and failure,
which in turn lead to more
relapses?
```
Abstinence
Violation
Effect (AVE)
91
```
In any substance
abuse treatment,
the first and most
important step
involves what?
```
```
Getting the person
to acknowledge
that they have a
problem, as denial
is common
```
92
```
What 2 forms of treatment,
when done in tandem,
have the highest benefit
for people in treatment for
nicotine dependence (e.g.,
looking to quit smoking)?
```
```
Nicotine replacement
therapy (gum, patch)
and behavioral
intervention (stimulus
control, aversive
techniques)
```
93
```
An approach used for the treatment of
substance dependence, ________
contends substance dependence is a
collection of maladaptive, over-learned
habit patterns, rather than physiological
responses to substance use; it does not
label or blame people, but rather views
them as responsible for learning more
adaptive habits
```
Relapse
Prevention
Therapy (CBT
in nature)
94
```
The symptoms of what disorder
affect content of thought, form
of thought, perception, affect,
sense of self, volition,
interpersonal functioning,
and/or psychomotor behavior,
and literally means "splitting of
the mind?"
```
Schizophrenia
95
```
The ________ symptoms of
schizophrenia are distortions of normal
functions, such as delusions and
hallucinations; the ________ symptoms
represent a decrease or loss of functions
that are usually present, such as alogia
(restricted fluency of thought/speech),
avolition (restricted initiation of
goal-directed behavior), and flat affect
```
Positive;
| negative
96
```
A person diagnosed with
Schizophrenia ________ Type
might present with loose
associations, incoherence, flat or
inappropriate affect, and regressed
behavior that is largely uninhibited
(e.g., laugh w/ out reason,
incongruous facial gestures)
```
Disorganized
97
```
What type of Schizophrenia is
characterized by psychomotor
motor disturbance, including
posturing, mutism, rigidity,
motoric immobility, extreme
negativism, and/or extreme
excitement?
```
Catatonic
| Type
98
```
A client who speaks candidly
and lucidly about a nonexistent
world, is preoccupied with
voices telling her "the world is
ending," and whose speech,
overt behavior, and affect are
largely appropriate best fits
what type of Schizophrenia?
```
Paranoid
| Type
99
```
A person who presents
with symptoms of
Schizophrenia though
does not clearly qualify as
disorganized, catatonic, or
paranoid types would be
classified as what type?
```
Undifferentiated
| Type
100
```
A client who has had an episode of
Schizophrenia and continues to
display less severe negative and/or
positive symptoms (e.g., flat affect,
odd beliefs), though no prominent
positive psychotic symptoms are
present would be classified as what
type?
```
Residual
| Type
101
```
What type of speech is a
common symptom of psychosis
characterized by responses
that do not relate to questions
asked, or one paragraph,
sentence, or phrase is not
logically connected to those
that occur before or after?
```
Loosening of
Associations
(Loose
Associations)
102
```
This term refers to a style of
speech that is less serious than
loose associations and is
characterized by excessive
attention to irrelevant and
digressive details; often the
point is eventually reached.
```
Circumstantiality
103
```
What term refers to the idea that
schizophrenia is associated with
either an excess of the monoamine
neurotransmitters (dopamine,
norepinephrine, serotonin,
glutamate) or with increased
sensitivity to the dopamine
ordinarily present in the brain?
```
Dopamine
| hypothesis
104
```
According to Gottesman, what
are the lifetime probabilities for
developing Schizophrenia
among biological siblings,
dizygotic (fraternal) twins, and
monozygotic (identical) twins, in
percentages?
```
Biological = 10%;
dizygotic twins =
16%; monozygotic
twins = 48%
105
```
The theory (Mednick) that
proposes Schizophrenia occurs
in people physiologically
predisposed to the condition
who are confronted with an
adverse and stressful
environment is referred to as
what?
```
Diathesis-stress
(vulnerability)
theory
106
```
Research suggests that
Schizophrenic patients from
________ countries tend to
have a more acute onset, but
shorter clinical course, and
usually a complete remission
when compared to patients
from ________ countries.
```
Non-industrialized;
| industrialized
107
```
One side-effect of
pharmacological treatment of
Schizophrenia, ________ is
characterized by repetitive,
involuntary, purposeless
movements, such as grimacing,
lip smacking, rapid eye blinking,
and lip puckering.
```
Tardive
| dyskinesia
108
```
What is the likely diagnosis of a
person who presents with
symptoms identical to
Schizophrenia, which he has
been experiencing for less than
6 months, though he has not
experienced a significant
decline in overall functioning?
```
Schizophreniform
| Disorder
109
```
This disorder is characterized by
symptoms of both a Mood Disorder
and Schizophrenia, where
psychotic symptoms are present
and mood symptoms absent for 2
weeks or more; psychotic features
are more prominent than in a Mood
Disorder with Psychotic Features.
```
Schizoaffective
| Disorder
110
```
A person who presents with
delusions that are theoretically
plausible (non-bizarre),
appropriate behavior, and no
marked impairment in
functioning would receive what
diagnosis?
```
Delusional
| Disorder
111
```
This Delusional Disorder
type is characterized by
the delusion that a
person, typically of
higher status, is in love
with the patient.
```
Erotomanic
| Type
112
```
Delusional Disorder
________ Type is
characterized by the
delusion that one has
made a truly meaningful
discovery and/or has a
remarkable talent.
```
Grandiose
| Type
113
```
What Delusional Disorder
type does a man who is
convinced his wife is
cheating, based on the
fact she came home from
work with a wrinkled shirt,
best fit?
```
Jealous
| Type
114
```
A person with Delusional
Disorder who believes
they, or someone they
know, is being
malevolently mistreated
best qualify for what type
of the disorder?
```
Persecutory
| Type
115
```
This type of Delusional
Disorder is characterized
by the irrational conviction
that one has a physical
defect, disorder, or
disease.
```
Somatic
| Type
116
```
When a client's delusional
belief cannot be clearly
determined or is not
described by the specific
types, they would receive
a diagnosis of Delusional
Disorder ________ Type.
```
Unspecified
117
```
TRUE or FALSE: A
person can present
with more than one
type of Delusional
Disorder?
```
TRUE: This is
referred to as
Mixed Type
118
```
A person experiences the sudden
onset of at least one psychotic
symptom (delusion, hallucination,
etc.) that lasts from several hours
up to a month, and then returns to
premorbid level of functioning, the
most appropriate diagnosis is:
```
Brief
Psychotic
Disorder
119
```
If a Brief Psychotic
Disorder is in response to
a very stressful event, it is
sometimes referred to a
________ and the
diagnosis would include
the specifier ________.
```
Brief Reactive
Psychosis; With
Marked
Stressor(s)
120
```
This French term often
refers to when a person in
close relation to another
person who has a
psychotic disorder begins
experiencing similar
delusions
```
Folie a Deux
(aka Shared
Psychotic
Disorder)
121
A ________ Episode involves impaired
functionality as a result of abnormally elevated,
expansive, or irritable mood for a period of at
least 1 week, in addition to symptoms such as
grandiosity, flight of ideas, and increased
verbosity; a ________ Episode is similar,
however the duration must be 4 days, no
psychotic features or functional impairment is
present, and hospitalization is not needed.
Manic;
| Hypomanic
122
```
A person who reports
experiencing both mania
and major depression in
a single day, for at least
1 week, is experiencing
a:
```
Mixed
| Episode
123
```
This is characterized by a
change in prior functioning due
to the experience of depressed
mood or loss of pleasure, in
addition to at least 5 other
symptoms of depression,
during a two-week period
```
Major
Depressive
Episode
124
```
________ involves the presence of
at least 1 manic or mixed episode
at some time, and the person may
or may not have experienced 1 or
more major depressive episodes;
the diagnosis of ________ is given
when 1 or more major depressive
episodes and at least one
hypomanic episode are present.
```
Bipolar I;
| Bipolar II
125
```
Considered a Bipolar Disorder,
________ Disorder involves a
mood disturbance of at least 2
years where the person
alternates between hypomania
and mild to moderate
depressive states; functioning
is often unimpaired.
```
Cyclothymic
126
```
According to the DSM,
approximately what
percentage of people
with Major Depressive
Disorder die by suicide?
```
15%
127
```
A person experiencing their first
(and perhaps only) depressive
episode would be diagnosed with
Major Depressive Disorder,
________, while one who has
experienced more than one episode
in a 2 year period would receive the
indicator ________.
```
Single
Episode;
Recurrent
128
```
Research has shown that
women appear to
experience depression at
a higher rate than men.
What are some of the
possible reasons for this?
```
```
Men are likely underrepresented
due to underreporting; coping styles
differ- men employ action and
mastery strategies, women tend to
brood and dwell on problems;
women tend to express more
extreme levels of well-being than
men
```
129
```
What is the appropriate
diagnosis for a woman who,
within 4 weeks after giving
birth, experiences mood
swings, tearfulness, and other
depressive symptoms
suggestive of a Mood Disorder?
```
Postpartum
| Depression
130
A 24 y/o client reports he has felt "pretty
down" for most his life, stating he
experiences difficulty falling asleep, low
self-image, decreased energy, feelings of
hopelessness, and difficulty
concentrating and making decisions. He
explains, however, that it rarely affected
his functional capacities. What's the likely
diagnosis?
Dysthymic
| Disorder
131
```
A person who has both
Major Depressive Disorder
and Dysthymic Disorder is
best characterized by the
condition known as what?
```
Double
| Depression
132
```
This etiological explanation of depression
holds that depression is caused by low
levels of norepinephrine in the brain,
while mania is due to excess
norepinephrine levels; there is some
evidence that effective antidepressants
(tricyclics, MAOIs) increase
norepinephrine in the brain and mood
stabilizers (lithium) decrease it, which
supports this theory
```
Catecholamine
| Hypothesis
133
```
The ________ Theory suggests
depression is a result of low
serotonin and low norepinephrine
levels, while mania is caused by
low serotonin and high
norepinephrine levels; the
effectiveness of SSRIs support this
theory.
```
Permissive
134
```
A person experiencing
depression often views
negative events as stable over
time rather than transient,
global rather than specific, and
internal rather than external.
What is the term used to
describe this attributional style?
```
Learned
Helplessness
(M. Seligman)
135
```
While ________ and ________ are
considered most effective for
treating the classic symptoms of
depression, ________ are more
likely to be prescribed if the person
has atypical symptoms, such as
hypochondria or
obsessive-compulsiveness.
```
SSRIs;
tricyclics;
MAOIs
136
```
Practitioners of ________ contend
depression is caused by difficulties in
relationships stemming from early life,
particularly those related to the
development of attachment, and serve to
maintain depression later in life; this
approach embraces the medical model
and views depression as a an illness to
be treated with both medication and
concurrent therapy
```
Interpersonal
Therapy
(IPT)
137
```
This is diagnosed when a
person displays onset and
remission of Major Depressive
Episodes at characteristic times
of the year; typically onset is in
fall or winter and remission is in
spring.
```
Seasonal
Affective
Disorder (SAD)
138
```
It has been proposed that
Seasonal Affective Disorder is
related to abnormal regulation
of ________ secretions by the
pineal gland, hence the benefit
of light therapy for people with
this condition
```
Melatonin
139
```
A discrete period of intense
apprehension, fear, or
discomfort, often involving a
sense of doom, and
characterized by at least 4
somatic or cognitive symptoms
(sweating, trembling, nausea,
etc.) is referred to as what?
```
Panic
| Attack
140
```
As defined by the DSM, this
condition involves "anxiety about
being in places or situations from
which escape might be difficult (or
embarrassing) or in which help may
not be available in the event of
having an unexpected or
situationally predisposed panic
attack or panic like symptoms."
```
Agoraphobia
141
```
A client reports experiencing
numerous panic attacks that are
unexpected and, consequently,
worries excessively (for at least 1
month) about having another
attack. This worry, particularly
about losing control, has caused
behavioral changes. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
```
Panic
| Disorder
142
```
A person diagnosed with ________
makes efforts to avoid social or
performance situations that might
place him under the judgment,
scrutiny, or observation of others, or
expose him to strangers; being in
such situations provokes a severe
anxiety response
```
Social
| Phobia
143
```
Those people who
experience intense fears
of certain stimuli, such as
heights, animals, and
closed spaces, are placed
in what general diagnostic
category?
```
Specific
| Phobia
144
```
________ panic attacks
are most characteristic of
Specific Phobia and Social
Phobia, occurring every
time a person is exposed
to a specific stimulus.
```
Situationally
| bound
145
```
What is the term used to
describe panic attacks that
occur without warning and
in the absence of a trigger
(must occur for a
diagnosis of Panic
Disorder)?
```
Unexpected
panic
attacks
146
```
An example of ________ panic
attacks would be a person who
only occasionally experiences
panic attacks in certain
situations, and may experience
attacks in other unrelated
situations as well.
```
Situationally
| predisposed
147
```
This behavioral approach to
treating Specific Phobias
involves directly exposing the
client to the object of fear until
they recognizes there is
nothing to fear, which leads to
the fear being extinguished.
```
In-vivo
| exposure
148
```
________ are persistent
thoughts a person experiences
as intrusive, inappropriate,
distressing, and uncontrollable;
________ are repetitive
behaviors performed according
to a rigid set of rules, usually in
response to the former.
```
Obsessions;
| compulsions
149
```
TRUE or FALSE:
People diagnosed with
OCD are of a
disproportionately
higher SES and higher
intelligence.
```
```
TRUE: OCD is a
condition with higher
prevalence rates among
people with higher SES
and intelligence
```
150
```
A client reports increased distress
following her witnessing of a tragic
car accident 2 months prior. She
says she has since had difficulty
falling asleep, and when she does
sleep she has nightmares about the
incident. What is the likely
diagnosis?
```
Post-traumatic
Stress Disorder
(PTSD)
151
```
PTSD can be either
________, which is when
symptoms last less than 3
months, or ________,
when the duration of
symptoms is more than 3
months.
```
Acute;
| chronic
152
```
A woman presents to a clinic reporting
she was raped 5 days prior and has since
been very fearful, helpless, and has had
some flashbacks of the event. During the
interview, it is determined she has also
been experiencing depersonalization,
sense of detachment, and reduced
awareness of her surroundings. What's
the most appropriate diagnosis?
```
```
Acute Stress Disorder
(PTSD should be
considered once
symptoms persist
beyond 1 month)
```
153
```
A person with ________
experiences excessive anxiety and
worry about numerous life
circumstances and feels incapable
of controlling their worry;
symptoms, lasting at least 6
months, include restlessness,
irritability, difficulty concentrating,
etc.
```
Generalized
Anxiety
Disorder
154
```
Disorders included in this
general class, according to the
DSM, are characterized by
physical symptoms that have
no known physiological cause
and are believe to be
attributable to psychological
factors.
```
Somatoform
| Disorders
155
```
A client presents to therapy
reporting he is blind and reveals his
loss of sight occurred shortly after
witnessing the suicide of a
colleague. Medical records,
however, suggest no physiological
explanation for the blindness.
What's the likely diagnosis?
```
```
Conversion Disorder
(impaired voluntary
motor or sensory
function that has
psychological cause)
```
156
```
The 2 possible explanations for the
development of Conversion Disorder are
________, which is when the symptom
reduces anxiety and keeps internal
conflict out of awareness, and ________,
which is when the symptom helps the
person to avoid an unpleasant activity or
obtain otherwise unavailable support.
```
Primary gain;
secondary
gain
157
```
A person who presents as
dramatic, vague, and
exaggerated and who has
made numerous physical
complaints over several years,
though those complaints have
no clear physical cause, would
receive what diagnosis?
```
Somatization
| Disorder
158
```
People with Somatization
Disorder frequently exhibit
________ and ________,
which are often the
reasons for their initial
therapy visit.
```
Anxiety;
| depression
159
```
What is the best diagnosis for a
person who has at least 1
physical complaint that has
persisted for at least 6 months
and cannot be fully explained
by a medical condition or
substance use (e.g., chronic
fatigue, appetite loss)?
```
```
Undifferentiated
Somatoform Disorder
(if less than 6 months
= Somatoform
Disorder NOS)
```
160
```
A client reports to her therapist that
she experiences immense pain in
her abdomen area; however, she
discloses doctors have found no
physical cause. Recognizing the
client's preoccupation with the pain,
the therapist is likely to diagnosis
what?
```
Pain
| Disorder
161
```
What condition is characterized
by a preoccupation with fears
one has a serious disease
based on a misunderstanding
of normal bodily functions,
despite medical evidence and
reassurance that nothing is
wrong?
```
Hypochondriasis
(no delusions;
person is aware of
exaggerated fears)
162
```
A preoccupation with
non-existent physical flaws that
interferes with one's functioning
and is often dealt with via
excessive plastic surgery is
characteristic of what disorder?
```
Body
Dysmorphic
Disorder
163
```
The core feature of ________
Disorders are deliberately
produced physical or
psychological symptoms;
people with this condition
possess a desire to assume the
role of a sick person.
```
Factitious
164
```
A person diagnosed with
Factitious Disorder with
Psychological Symptoms
is likely to induce their
psychological symptoms
by the use of ________.
```
Psychoactive
| substances
165
```
A person who voluntarily
produces or fakes physical
symptoms and who has spent
enough time in hospital settings
to develop rather extensive
medical knowledge would be
best diagnosed with what?
```
```
Munchausen Syndrome
(or Factitious Disorder
with Physical
Symptoms; hospital
addiction)
```
166
```
A physician at a hospital discovers
that a child she has treated on
numerous occasions for similar
conditions is likely having
symptoms fabricated by his mother.
This being the case, the mother
would most appropriately be
diagnosed with what?
```
Factitious
Disorder by Proxy
(or Munchausen
by Proxy)
167
```
This term refers to one's
deliberate production of
either fraudulent or
exaggerated symptoms
motivated by external
incentives (secondary
gain).
```
Malingering
168
```
A pervasive pattern of distrust
and suspiciousness in which
the person consistently
interprets the motives of
others as malicious is
characteristic of what
disorder?
```
Paranoid
Personality
Disorder
169
```
What is the main
difference between
Paranoid Personality
Disorder and Psychotic
Disorders involving
paranoia?
```
```
Paranoid Personality
Disorder does not
involve delusions,
while Psychotic
Disorders do
```
170
```
People with this disorder are
pervasively indifferent to social
relationships, express a limited
range of emotions in social
situations, often prefer to be
"loners," and usually function
adequately in non-social
situations.
```
Schizoid
Personality
Disorder
171
```
What disorder is characterized by a
pattern of social and interpersonal
deficits involving severe discomfort
with and limited capacity for close
relationships, as well as perceptual
and cognitive distortions and
odd/eccentric behavior?
```
Schizotypal
Personality
Disorder
172
```
People with this disorder often act
sexually seductive, have
exaggerated though shallow
emotions that shift rapidly, are
easily influenced by others, seek
constant reassurance/praise, and
may consider relationships to be
more close than they really are
```
Histrionic
Personality
Disorder
173
```
Often preoccupied with
fantasies of power and
success, people with ________
display a pattern of grandiosity,
need for admiration, and lack of
empathy, which can lead to
exploitative relationships.
```
Narcissistic
Personality
Disorder
174
```
This disorder is characterized
by a pattern of instability of
interpersonal relationships,
self-image, and affect,
significant impulsivity (e.g.,
suicide threats, substance use),
and fear of
abandonment/domination
```
Borderline
Personality
Disorder
175
```
What are the dominant
defense mechanisms
used by a person with
Borderline Personality
Disorder?
```
Splitting,
idealization,
and projective
identification
176
```
Developed for the
treatment of Borderline
Personality Disorder,
________emphasizes
mindfulness, social skills
training, and affect
regulation.
```
Dialectical
Behavior
Therapy (DBT)
177
```
A person with this condition must
have had symptoms of Conduct
Disorder before 15 y/o and
demonstrate a pattern of disregard
for and violation of others' rights;
some symptoms include lack
remorse/empathy, impulsivity,
irritability and aggressiveness, and
deceitfulness
```
Antisocial
Personality
Disorder
178
```
What is another term
used to refer to
people diagnosed with
Antisocial Personality
Disorder?
```
Sociopath
179
```
This condition is characterized by a
persistent pattern of social
inhibition, feelings of inadequacy,
and hypersensitivity to negative
evaluation, resulting in limited social
contacts despite a longing for
contact and relationships
```
Avoidant
Personality
Disorder
180
```
What diagnosis is given when there
is a pervasive and excessive need
to be taken care of, leading to
clinging and submissive behavior
and fears of separation; people with
this disorder often struggle to make
decisions and take responsibility for
their lives?
```
Dependent
Personality
Disorder
181
```
Typically, _______
refers to a person's
deliberate or inadvertent
support of another's
addiction or
dependence.
```
Codependency
182
```
What condition is characterized
by a persistent preoccupation
with perfectionism, orderliness,
and mental and interpersonal
control, which severely limits
openness, flexibility, and
efficiency?
```
Obsessive-Compulsive
| Personality Disorder
183
```
What defense
mechanism do people
diagnosed with
Obsessive-Compulsive
Personality Disorder
most often rely on?
```
Reaction formation-defending against an
unacceptable impulse
by expressing its
opposite
184
```
This condition is characterized by a
refusal to maintain age and height
appropriate body weight, fear of
losing control of one's weight, a
distorted body image, and often
amenorrhea; weight is usually
controlled by restricting caloric
intake or bingeing/purging.
```
Anorexia
| Nervosa
185
```
Developed by Minuchin for
the treatment of Anorexia
Nervosa, the ________
refers to family members
and the therapist eating a
meal together.
```
Family
| lunch
186
```
What condition is given when a
person persistently binge eats and
engages in inappropriate
compensatory behavior to prevent
weight gain (e.g., excessive
exercise, self-induced vomiting) at
an average rate of twice per week
for 3 months?
```
Bulimia
| Nervosa
187
```
RUE or FALSE: Bulimics
are more likely than
Anorexics to become
engaged in treatment due
to their awareness that
their behavior is
abnormal?
```
```
TRUE: People with
Anorexia usually deny that
they have a problem, while
people with Bulimia are
often aware of their
abnormal eating habits
```
188
```
A person who presents with an
inability to recall important
personal information, usually of
a stressful or traumatic nature,
and too extensive to be
attributed to ordinary
forgetfulness, would receive
what diagnosis?
```
Dissociative
| Amnesia
189
```
This condition is characterized
by unanticipated travel away
from home or work, an inability
to remember some or all of
one's past, and confusion about
personal identity or the
adoption of a new identity
```
Dissociative
| Fugue
190
```
This diagnosis is given when a
person develops at least 2
identifiable personality states that
recurrently take control of the
person's behavior, and the person
is unable to recall important
personal information to an extent
greater than ordinary forgetfulness.
```
```
Dissociative
Identity Disorder
(previously Multiple
Personality
Disorder)
```
191
```
A person who repeatedly
experiences a sense of
estrangement from self,
feelings of unreality, dreamlike
states, and ego-dystonic bodily
sensations, while reality testing
remains intact, would best be
diagnosed with what?
```
Depersonalization
| Disorder
192
```
Often diagnosed as
Dissociative Disorder NOS,
________ is characterized by
a person providing answers
to questions that are close to
the truth but not completely
True-
```
```
Ganser's
Syndrome (aka
syndrome of
approximate
answers)
```
193
```
People with ________ have
repeated, powerful sexually
arousing fantasies or urges to
engage in sexual behaviors
involving nonhuman objects,
suffering/humiliation of self/partner,
or children or other non-consenting
partners, and the symptoms cause
marked distress or impairment.
```
Paraphilias
194
```
This term refers to
people who are sexually
aroused by wearing
clothing usually worn by
the opposite sex.
```
Transvestism
195
```
The 4 stages of the Sexual Response
Cycle are ________, characterized by
sexual fantasies; ________, which entails
feeling sexual pleasure and consequent
physiological changes; ________, or the
culmination of the sexual pleasure with
release of sexual tension; and ________,
consisting of general muscle relaxation
and well-being.
```
Desire;
excitement;
orgasm;
resolution
196
```
Affecting the Desire stage of
the Sexual Response Cycle,
________ refers to
absent/deficient sexual desires
and ________ refers to
extreme eversion to and
avoidance of sexual contact
```
Hypoactive
Sexual Desire
Disorder; Sexual
Aversion Disorder
197
```
Disorders of the Excitement stage
of the Sexual Response Cycle
include ________, involving
inadequate lubrication/swelling of
the genitals and/or subjective lack
of excitement, and ________,
characterized by recurrent failure to
attain or maintain an erection
```
Female Sexual
Arousal
Disorder; Male
Erectile Disorder
198
```
What three
conditions are parts
of the orgasm stage
of the Sexual
Response Cycle?
```
```
Female Orgasmic
Disorder, Male
Orgasmic Disorder,
and Premature
Ejaculation
```
199
```
This term refers to
vaginal muscle
contractions that make
penile penetration
difficult and painful.
```
Vaginismus
200
```
This term refers to
sexual pain this is
not due to
Vaginismus (usually
not in males).
```
Dyspareunia
201
```
________ is the most
common sexual
dysfunction in males,
while ________ is the
most common sexual
dysfunction in females
```
Premature
Ejaculation;
Orgasmic
Disorder
202
```
As treatment for sexual disorders,
________ requires partners to
touch and stroke each other's
naked bodies in a comfortable,
relaxed setting, desensitizing the
couple to anxiety cues usually
encountered during sexual play
```
Sensate
| focus
203
```
This is the most effective
treatment for premature
ejaculation- it involves one
partner squeezing the penis of
the aroused partner just before
ejaculation, thus inhibiting
ejaculation and promoting
self-control.
```
Squeeze
technique (aka
"stop and
start")
204
```
What exercise involves women
tightening pelvic floor muscles,
as if to stop urinating, and is
used to strengthen the
perineum to prepare for
pregnancy, treat incontinence,
and enhance sexual pleasure?
```
Kegel
| exercise
205
```
A person whose experience
of discomfort with their actual
gender role and intense
identification with the
opposite gender causes
functional impairment would
receive what diagnosis?
```
Gender
Identity
Disorder
206
```
What is diagnosed when a
person displays a sexual
disorder that does not meet
the criteria for a more specific
sexual disorder, such as
Ego-Dystonic
Homosexuality?
```
Sexual
Disorder
NOS
207
```
________ are
characterized by
disturbances in the
amount, quality, and
timing of sleep.
```
Dyssomnias
208
```
A person experiencing
________ has trouble
falling or staying asleep, or
does not feel rested after a
sufficient period of sleep,
leading to marked distress
of impaired functioning.
```
Insomnia
209
```
What is the diagnosis when
functioning is impaired due to
extreme sleepiness for at least
1 month, which has manifested
as either prolonged sleep
episodes or daytime
sleepiness, not due to lack of
sleep?
```
Hypersomnia
210
```
This disorder is characterized
by irresistible episodes of
restorative sleep that occur
nearly every day for a period of
at least 3 months and either
cataplexy or repeated
intrusions of REM sleep.
```
Narcolepsy
211
```
Breathing-Related Sleep Disorders
include ________ (episodes of
breathing cessation), ________
(abnormally low or shallow
breathing), and ________
(abnormal blood oxygen and
carbon dioxide due to impaired
ventilatory control).
```
Sleep apnea;
hypopneas;
hypoventilation
212
```
A person whose arousal
increases at night but is
very tired during the day,
impairing work
functionality, might be
diagnosed with this
disorder.
```
Circadian
Rhythm Sleep
Disorder
213
```
What disorders involve
abnormal behavioral or
physiological events
during sleep or at the
threshold between sleep
and awakening?
```
Parasomnias
214
```
This disorder is characterized
by repeated awakenings due to
frightening dreams that usually
involve threats to self-esteem,
survival, or security, and
causes significant distress or
functional impairment.
```
Nightmare
| Disorder
215
```
A person who awakens
suddenly, usually
accompanied by a panicky
scream, though has
difficulty recalling the
dream would receive what
diagnosis?
```
Sleep
Terror
Disorder
216
```
This disorder is characterized
by repeated episodes of
elaborated behaviors that lead
to leaving the bed and walking
around, without the person
being aware of the episode or
remembering it later.
```
Sleepwalking
| Disorder
217
```
Impulse Control
Disorders, characterized
by failure to resist an
impulse to perform a
harmful act, include
what?
```
```
Pathological Gambling,
Pyromania,
Kleptomania,
Intermittent Explosive
Disorder, and
Trichotillomania
```
218
```
This is diagnosed when a person
develops emotional or behavioral
symptoms in reaction to an
identifiable stressor/s within 3
months of the onset of the
stressor/s; once the stressor is
terminated, symptoms last less than
6 months.
```
Adjustment
| Disorder
219
```
The difference between ________
and ________ is the former refers
to the misperception or
misinterpretation of an actual
stimulus, whereas the latter refers
to false beliefs that are firmly held
despite contradictory evidence (and
do not represent beliefs widely
accepted by one's culture).
```
Illusions;
| delusions
220
```
What are sensory
perceptions that seem
real but occur without
the presence of an
external stimulus?
```
Hallucinations
221
```
A client who reports that certain
external events have a
particular personal meaning
would be demonstrating what
type of symptom (e.g., belief
that newscasters are talking
directly to the client)?
```
Ideas of
| reference
222
```
This is a nervous system
disorder that involves
recurring seizures with no
identifiable cause; it
affects about .5% of the
population.
```
Epilepsy
223
```
Once referred to as grand-mal
seizures, ________ involve
episodes of violent shaking,
during which the person
becomes blue and stiff, and
can last up to an hour. After a
seizure of this type, the person
usually falls into a deep sleep
```
Generalized
tonic-clonic
seizures
224
```
What types of seizures are
similar to tonic-clonic
seizures, but are very brief
and not characterized by
post-seizure deep sleep?
```
Generalized
absence
seizures (aka
petit-mal)
225
```
A person undergoing this seizure
appears confused and clumsy and
is often mistakenly identified as
intoxicated- the person may stare
blankly, make chewing movements,
and get up and walk around. They
can occur in the temporal or frontal
lobes
```
Complex-partial
| seizures
226
```
Also known as Jacksonian
seizures, ________ affect
only one side of the body
and involve an
uncontrollable trembling or
jerking of an arm or leg.
```
Simple
partial
seizures
227
```
What are caused by
sustained contractions of
muscles in the forehead,
scalp, and neck, and are
often experienced as a
band being tightened
around one's head?
```
Tension
| headaches
228
```
What is the most
commonly used
modality of biofeedback
treatment for tension
headaches?
```
EMG
| biofeedback
229
```
Thought to be caused by
dilation and spasms of the
cerebral blood vessels,
________ are experienced as
intense throbbing, usually on
one side of the head, and often
accompanied by nausea and/or
other gastrointestinal problems.
```
Migraine
| headaches
230
```
What is the most
commonly used
modality of biofeedback
treatment for migraine
headaches?
```
```
Thermal hand
warming
biofeedback
(person trained to
warm their hands)
```
231
```
High blood pressure that
has an unknown cause is
referred to as ________,
whereas if the high blood
pressure is the result of a
known disorder it is called
________
```
Essential
hypertension;
secondary
hypertension
232
```
A woman's experience of
irritability, depressed
affect, fatigue, and
nervousness a few days
before her menstrual
period starts is termed
what?
```
Premenstrual
Syndrome
(PMS)
233
```
What condition is characterized by a
woman's routine experience of 5
symptoms such as marked depression,
hopelessness, affective lability, lethargy,
and sleep disturbance (to name a few)
during the last week of the luteal phase,
with symptoms easing within a few days
of the onset of menses and absent the
week following menses?
```
Premenstrual
Dysphoric
Disorder
234
```
Selye, who studied
reactions to stress, has
described the ________,
which is a set of
characteristic responses
over time under conditions
of stress
```
General
Adaptation
Syndrome
235
The three stages of General Adaptation
Syndrome are ________, in which the body's
sympathetic arousal system is mobilized; with
prolonged stress the ________ stage occurs, in
which defenses are stabilized and symptoms
disappear, but at a cost; the final stage,
________, results from prolonged resistance that
leaves the body susceptible to organ failure or
complete collapse
```
Alarm reaction;
resistance;
exhaustion
(remembered by
acronym "ARE")
```
236
```
A person with this type of
personality is competitive,
achievement oriented,
highly involved with work,
and is active and
aggressive.
```
Type A
237
```
Friedman believes what
four components
comprise the pathogenic
core of Type A behavior
patterns?
```
Irritation,
impatience,
aggravation,
and anger
238
```
What aspects of
Type A behavior
are more likely to
increase the risk of
heart attack?
```
```
Emotional and
temperamental
(anger, hostility), as
opposed to behavioral
(job involvement)
```
239
```
The ________, a
comprehensive quality of
life measure, is used to
assess the impact of
disease on a person's
physical and emotional
functioning
```
Sickness
Impact
Profile (SIP)
240
```
What controversial PTSD
treatment combines both CBT
and client-centered approaches
with lateral eye-movements,
usually involving the client
following the finger movements
of the therapist?
```
Eye Movement
Desensitization
and Reprocessing
(EMDR)
