Industrial Organizational Psychology Flashcards
(128 cards)
1
Q
What is the Position Analysis Questionnaire?
A
It is used in job analysis and provides information on worker attributes needed to perform a job successfully.
2
Q
What is the purpose of job analysis?
A
It is used to obtain information about knowledge, skills, attitudes, and other characteristics required by the job in order to write a job description or specification.
3
Q
What is the purpose of a job evaluation?
A
It is used to determine the relative value of jobs in order to set wages and salaries. It helps establish comparable worth, which is the doctrine that jobs requiring comparable knowledge, skills, experience, and responsibility should provide the same salary regardless of the employee’s gender.
4
Q
What are criterion measures of job performance?
A
Measures of job performance that are used to provide employees with feedback and help make decisions about salary increases and bonuses, training needs, promotions, and termination
5
Q
What are absolute criterion measures?
A
Involve rating an employee without considering the performance of other employees.
6
Q
What is the Critical Incident Technique?
A
It is used to reduce rater bias and involves having the supervisor observe employees and record behaviors that are associated with successful or unsuccessful job performance.
7
Q
What is a Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS)?
A
The BARS are anchor points on the scale associated with descriptions of specific behaviors representing poor to excellent behaviors. It is used to reduce rater bias.
8
Q
6 steps to identifying and validating predictors
A
Step 1: Conduct a Job Analysis.
Step 2: Select/Develop the Predictor and Criterion
Step 3: Obtain and Correlate Scores on the Predictor and Criterion
Step 4: Check for Adverse Impact
Step 5: Evaluate Incremental Validity (does the predictor increase decision-making accuracy?)
Step 6: Cross-validate (administer the predictor and criterion to a new sample)
9
Q
How do you calculate adverse impact?
A
Multiply the hiring rate of the majority group by 80% to obtain the minimum hiring rate for the minority group. If the actual hiring rate is lower, you have identified an adverse impact on the minority group.
10
Q
What is differential validity?
A
When a predictor has different validity coefficients for different groups, which indicates that a larger proportion of one group may be being hired.
11
Q
When does unfairness occur in hiring decisions?
A
It occurs when a predictor has similar validity coefficients for both groups, but members of one group obtain lower scores on the predictor even thought they do as well on the criterion.
12
Q
How do you respond to adverse impact?
A
When it is due to differential validity, use a different predictor that is equally valid for both groups.
When it is due to unfairness, use different predictor cutoff scores for members of different groups.
13
Q
What is a multiple regression for hiring?
A
A compensatory method in which good performance on one predictor can offset poor performance on another predictor
14
Q
What is multiple cut off for hiring?
A
A noncompensatory method that requires that a minimum score on each predictor be obtained before an applicant is considered for selection
15
Q
What are multiple hurdles in job hiring?
A
A noncompensatory method that involves administering predictors one at a time, with each predictor being administered only if the applicant has passed the previous one
16
Q
Of the Big 5 personality traits, which is the best predictor of job performance?
A
Conscientiousness
17
Q
What are the 3 components of a Needs Assessment?
A
- Organization Analysis (clarify organizational goals and determine if training is needed to meet those goals).
- Job Analysis (identifies what knowledge and skills are needed to perform the job successfully).
- Personal analysis (conducted to determine which employees would benefit from training).
18
Q
What is job rotation training?
A
Job rotation is used to train managers by having them to learn the jobs of all employees they will be supervising.
19
Q
What is off-the-job training?
A
It provides opportunities to practice specific aspects of the job and can tolerate training errors and accidents.
20
Q
What is vestibule training?
A
It makes use of a physical replication or simulation and is useful when on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous.
21
Q
What is a formative evaluation?
A
It is conducted while a program is being developed to determine if modifications are necessary.
22
Q
What is a summative evaluation?
A
It is conducted after a program has been implemented to assess its impact.
23
Q
What is reaction criteria?
A
It evaluates trainee satisfaction with the program.
24
Q
What is learning criteria?
A
It assess how much trainees learned from the program.
25
What is behavioral criteria?
It is used to evaluate the transfer-of-training.
26
What are results criteria?
They provide information on the extent to which the program contributed to achievement of organizational goals.
27
What 4 criterion does Kirkpatrick's Model of Summative Evaluation include?
1. Reaction Criteria
2. Learning Criteria
3. Behavioral Criteria
4. Results Criteria
28
What is Super's Life-Space, Life-Span Theory?
It proposes that the ideal situation is for a person to choose an occupation that is consistent with his or her self-concept.
29
According to Super's Life-Space, Life-Span Theory, what are the five stages of career development.
1. Growth
2. Exploration
3. Establishment
4. Maintenance
5. Disengagement
30
According to Super's Life-Space, Life-Span Theory, what is career maturity?
Career maturity is the extent to which a person successfully completes the developmental tasks of his/her current life stage.
31
According to Super's Life-Space, Life-Span Theory, how many life roles does a person adopt in their lifetime?
9
32
What did Super use to help clients think about the impact of their current and future life stages and roles on career planning?
Life Career Rainbow
33
What is Holland's Theory of Career Choice?
Emphasizes the importance of matching the person’s characteristics to the characteristics of the job
34
What 6 themes are used to describe a person and their job characteristics and how are they depicted, according to Holland's Theory of Career Choice?
Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising, and Conventional.
They are depicted in a hexagon. The closer the themes are together, the more similar they are.
35
According to Holland's Theory of Career Choice, what is the most accurate predictor of job performance and satisfaction?
The match between a person’s characteristics and the characteristics of the job
36
According to Holland's Theory of Career Choice, who is most likely to find a career that accommodates all aspects of their personality?
People who have a high consistency in score profiles.
37
What is Scientific Management developed by Taylor?
It involves scientifically designing work methods; scientifically selecting workers and training them in efficient work methods; and having managers plan efficient work methods; and having managers plan work activities and workers implement management’s plans.
38
According to Taylor's Scientific Management, what are workers primarily motivated by?
Economic Self-Interest (pay)
39
What is the Human Relations Model?
Based on research at the Western Electric Company, it emphasizes the impact of worker needs, attitudes, and relationships on satisfaction, motivation, and productivity.
40
What is the Hawthorne Effect?
Improvements in performance due to attention
41
According to the Human Relations Model, what is level of performance impacted by?
Informal work group norms that determine what levels of performance are acceptable
42
What is McGrgeor's belief about management?
McGregor believes that a manager's assumptions impact how employees actually behave. He uses Theory X and Y to describe manager types.
Theory X managers believe that employees dislike work and avoid it whenever possible and, consequently, must be directed and controlled through persuasion, rewards, and punishments.
Theory Y managers believe employees are capable of self-control and self-direction, and they work collaboratively with employees to align employee and organizational goals organizational goals.
43
What does initiating structure refer to in leadership?
The degree to which the leader is task-oriented.
44
What does consideration refer to in leadership?
The Degree to which the leader is person oriented.
45
According to Ohio State University, leader behaviors can be described in terms of two dimensions. Are the dimensions independent or dependent and which is associated with the highest outcome?
Initiating structure and consideration are independent dimensions. A combination of high levels of both are associated with the best outcomes.
46
How do decision-making styles differ between male and female leaders?
Women tend to be more democratic or participative. Men tend to be more autocratic and directive.
47
Is intelligence a good predictor of leadership performance?
No. There is a relatively low correlation. It may be due to a restricted range of scores for leaders or due to moderating variables.
48
What is Fiedler's Contingency Theory of Leadership?
It predicts that the most effective leadership style depends on the favorableness of the situation.
Favorableness is determined by the nature of the leader’s relationships with subordinates, the degree of task structure, and the leader’s power.
49
What are the two leadership styles Fiedler's Contingency Theory outlines and are they changeable?
Low- LPC: task-oriented and do best in very favorable and very unfavorable situations.
high-LPC: person-oriented and do best in moderately favorable conditions.
Leaders cannot change their leadership style.
50
What are the four leadership styles identified by Hersey and Blanchard's Situational Leadership?
1. Telling Leaders: high task, low relationship orientation
2. Selling Leaders: high task, high relationship orientation
3. Participating Leaders: low task, high relationship orientation
4. Delegating Leaders: low task, low relationship orientation
51
What does the most effective leadership style depend on occurring to Hersey and Blanchard's Situational Leadership theory?
The most effective style depends on the employee’s maturity level, which is determined by his or her willingness to assume responsibility and ability level.
52
What is House's Path-Goal Theory of Leadership?
It proposes that motivation, satisfaction, and performance are maximized when employees believe the leader is helping them achieve their own personal goals.
53
What are the four leadership styles outlined by House's Path-Goal Theory?
1. Instrumental Leaders - prove specific guidelines and establish clear rules
2. Supportive Leaders - focus on establishing good relationships and satisfying their needs
3. Participative Leaders - include subordinates in decision-making
4. Achievement-Oriented Leaders - Set challenging goals for workers and encourage high levels of performance
54
What is Vroom, Yetton, and Jago’s Normative Model?
Distinguishes between five decision-making styles (2 autocratic, 2 consultative, and 1 group). It assumes that optimal style depends on certain characteristics of the situation determined by a decision tree.
55
What is a transformational leader?
They recognize the need for change; communicate a vision for change; and then effectively accomplish change. They rely on a variety of strategies to motivate employees including being sensitive to employees’ needs, developing close relationships, and empowering employees. They appeal to employees’ ideals and moral values by using “framing,” which involves describing organizational goals in ways that enhance their value.
56
What are transactional leaders?
They focus on maintaining the status quo and use rewards and punishments to motivate subordinates. Some also rely on “management by exception,” which reflects the assumption that it’s not necessary to take action unless there’s a problem.
57
What are the 5 needs outlined in Maslow's need hierarchy from lowest go highest?
1. Physiological
2. Safety
3. Social
4. Esteem
5. Self-actualization
58
What is Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory?
It predicts that satisfaction and dissatisfaction are independent characteristics.
59
According to Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory which factors produce dissatisfaction and which produce satisfaction?
Dissatisfaction (hygiene) factors: pay, safe work environment, and pleasant co-worker relations. Satisfaction (motivator) factors: opportunities for decision-making, responsibility, and advancement.
60
What is job enrichment?
Job redesign that involves increasing availability of motivator factors.
61
What is job enlargement?
It involves adding a wider variety of tasks to the job but does not provide motivator factors.
62
What is the Goal-Setting Theory?
It predicts that goals are most effective when they’re specific and moderately difficulty; when workers are committed to them; and when workers receive regular feedback about their progress toward achieving goals.
63
For Goal-Setting Theory, do supervisors or supervisees set more difficult goals?
Supervisees
64
What is Equity Theory?
It predicts that motivation is affected by the perceived ratio between one’s own inputs and outcomes and the ratios of comparable others.
65
According to Equity Theory, what are overpayment and underpayment?
Overpayment occurs when a worker thinks they are putting in less and getting out more than other workers.
Underpayment occurs when a worker thinks they are putting in more and getting out less than other workers. It has the most negative consequences and can lead to lower productivity, sabotage, absenteeism, and turnover.
66
What is the Expectancy Theory?
It predicts that worker motivation is a function of three types of beliefs: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence.
67
According to Expectancy Theory, what is expectancy?
The worker’s beliefs about the relationship between effort and performance
68
According to Expectancy Theory, what is instrumentality?
The worker’s beliefs about the relationship between performance and outcomes
69
According to Expectancy Theory, what is valence?
The value the worker places on the available outcomes
70
What is distributive justice?
Perceptions about the fairness of decision outcomes
71
What is procedural justice?
Perceptions about the fairness of procedures and policies used to make decisions
72
What is interactional justice?
Perceptions about how employers and managers carry out the decisions they’ve made
73
What is Organizational Development?
It refers to the use of organization-wide interventions that rely on behavioral science principles to facilitate planned change. The primary goal is to improve effectiveness and efficiency by enhancing the functioning of individuals, teams, and the organization as a whole.
74
What is Lewin's Forced-Field Model of Planned Change?
When driving forces become stronger than restraining forces, change is likely to occur.
75
What are the 3 stages of Lewin's Forced-Field Model of Planned Change?
1. Unfreezing - occurs when the need for change is recognized and steps are take to make members receptive to change.
2. Changing - involves moving the organization in the new direction by helping employees acquire new behaviors, values, and attitudes.
3. Refreezing- entails supporting the changes that have been made.
76
What is process consultation?
It focuses on helping members of an organization help themselves by improving their ability to perceive, understand, and alter behaviors that are adversely affecting interactions at work,
77
How does process consultation work?
An external consultant observes employees while they engage in interactions that are a normal part of their jobs. The consultant then meets with employees to discuss the problems he or she observed and to help them identify methods for resolving those problems.
78
What is Survey Feedback and what are the 3 phases?
It focuses on employees' attitudes and perceptions. 3 phases:
1. Data Collection - consultant develops an attitude survey and distributes it to employees.
2. Feedback Meeting - the consultant meets with groups of employees to present survey results and identify problems that need to be addressed.
3. Action Plan Phase - employees meet in teams to develop specific plans for each problem
79
What is a self-managed work team?
It is an autonomous work groups that consist of individuals who make decisions related to hiring, budgeting, and other organizational functions. Members assume roles typically held by management. Leadership usually rotates from one team member to another, acting as a facilitator.
80
What is Total Quality Management?
Its primary focus is on the continuous improvement of the quality of the organization’s goods and services and the employees' quality-of-work-life.
81
What is social facilitation?
It occurs when the presence of others improves a person’s performance and is most likely when the task is easy, routine, or well-rehearsed.
82
What is social inhibition?
It occurs when the presence of others impairs a person’s performance and is most likely when the task is difficult, complex, or novel.
83
When is social loafing most likely to occur?
In an additive task in which the contribution of each member is added to form the group product. The risk is reduced when group members perceive the task as important, the contribution of each member is identifiable, and each member is rewarded for their contribution.
84
How do you reduce group think?
Methods for reducing groupthink include making sure the leader doesn’t offer a solution too early, bringing in outside experts to offer opinions, and encouraging criticism and dissent.
85
Frame-of-Reference Training
It is a type of rater training that emphasizes the multidimensional nature of job performance and focuses on the ability to distinguish between good and poor work-related behaviors. It is useful for eliminating rater biases.
86
Yerks-Dodson Law
predicts that the highest levels of performance are associated with moderate levels of arousal - i.e., the relationship between arousal and performance takes on the shape of an inverted-U.
87
Research suggests that social loafing is MOST likely to occur in which of the following conditions?
A large group with low cohesion
88
Decentralized Networks
Communication flows freely between employees (e.g., all-channel). These networks are best for complex tasks.
89
Centralized Networks
Communication between employees is restricted and must go through a central person (e.g., chain, Y). Centralized networks are best for simple tasks.
90
A meta-analysis of the research by Balteset al. (1999) found that, in terms of job outcomes, the compressed workweek has the MOST positive impact on:
Overall job satisfaction and supervisor ratings of employee performance. In contrast, the compressed workweek did not have a strong impact on objective measures of job performance or absenteeism.
91
According to Hersey and Blanchard’s (1974) situational leadership model, the optimal leadership style depends on which of the following?
The model proposes that a leader is most effective when his/her leadership style matches the subordinate's ability and motivation (willingness to accept responsibility), and they distinguish between four styles.
92
To intervene effectively, a mediator should:
Introduce new ideas and alternatives for reaching an agreement to the disputants.
93
In organizations, peer evaluations:
Have been shown to be useful in predicting an employee's subsequent promotions.
94
"Criterion contamination" is a concern when:
The measure of performance is subjectively scored
95
According to Dawis and Lofquist's (1984) Theory of Work Adjustment, job satisfaction depends most on which of the following?
The degree to which the characteristics of the job correspond to the worker's needs and values
96
Tiedeman and O'Hara's approach to career development:
Views career development as an aspect of ego identity development.
97
What is the greatest contributor to job-related stress?
Lack of control over the pace of one's work
98
From the perspective of Herzberg's two-factor theory, the relationship between pay and motivation is best described by which of the following?
Pay does not act as a motivator,
99
A colleague tells you that she is designing a study to determine the correlates of job satisfaction. Based on your knowledge of the existing research on this issue, you tell her that job satisfaction has the strongest correlation with:
Turnover
100
To gain "idiosyncrasy credits," you would:
Consistently conform to group norms. Idiosyncrasy credits allow a group members to occasionally deviate from group norms. Methods for accumulating idiosyncrasy credits include having a history of conforming to group norms, being the group leader, and making outstanding contributions to the group.
101
Herbert-Simon Decision Making
Simon (1979) distinguished between two types of individual decision-making--rational-economic and bounded rationality. According to Simon, decision-makers are sometimes less than totally rational due to limitations related to abilities, time, and resources. He referred to this type of decision-making as bounded rationality.
102
Heterogeneity of team members is:
Associated with greater creativity and better decision-making
103
What is the difference between personnel assessments and self-assessments?
Self-assessments are utilized to direct organizational development, and are most effective when stakeholders are involved. Personnel assessments collect individual data, which may include records, biographical data, test results, and work samples.
104
Having employees meet in groups to discuss alternative ways of accomplishing change is an example of which of the following strategies?
Chin and Benne (1976) identified three strategies for overcoming resistance to change. As its name implies, the normative-reeducative strategy is based on the assumption that peer pressure and sociocultural norms are potent forces of change.
105
According to Schein (1992), organizational culture can be described in terms of three levels. The deepest level consists of basic underlying assumptions that can serve as:
Schein (1992) distinguished between three levels of organizational culture—observable artifacts, espoused values and beliefs, and basic underlying assumptions. According to Schein, underlying assumptions are taken-for-granted beliefs and emotions that can act as cognitive defense mechanisms.
106
Meta-analyses conducted in the past 10 to 20 years suggest that, across jobs and organizations, the best predictor of job performance is:
General mental ability tests
107
What is a predictor's incremental validity impacted by?
A predictor's incremental validity (decision-making accuracy) is affected by its validity coefficient, the selection ratio, and the base rate. A predictor with a low validity coefficient can improve decision-making accuracy when the selection ratio is low (e.g., 1:50) and the base rate is moderate (around .50).
108
One disadvantage of empirically-derived Biographical Information Blanks (BIBs) is that they may contain items that:
Lack face validity. BIBs are a type of empirically-derived form that consists of multiple-choice items that address biographical information that has been linked to job performance. A disadvantage of BIBs and other empirically-derived forms is that their items often lack face validity—i.e., even though they address information that has been linked to job performance, they may not "look like" they are clearly linked to performance. As a result, applicants may feel that the form is asking for irrelevant information and that their privacy is being invaded.
109
An organizational psychologist will most likely apply the concept of "identical elements" originally proposed by Thorndike and Woodworth (1901) to which of the following?
Employee training. According to Thorndike and Woodworth (1901), transfer of training is maximized when there are identical elements(similarities) in the learning and performance settings. Research on Thorndike and Woodworth's theory has supported the importance of providing identical elements for transfer of training.
110
In response to a charge of adverse impact, an employer contends that hiring only men for a particular job is necessary because only males can perform the duties associated with that job. This employer is using which of the following standards to justify the hiring of males only for this job?
Bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) is described in Section 703(e) of Title VII as a legitimate defense to a charge of adverse impact. An example of a BFOQ is hiring only male actors for male roles in a play.
111
Job rotation, job enrichment, and job enlargement:
b) Help alleviate alienation and boredom.
112
Alderfer’s (1972) ERG theory is best viewed as a modification of and alternative to:
Alderfer modified Maslow’s need hierarchy theory so that it better corresponds to research showing that humans have three (rather than five) distinct needs and that more than one need can act as a motivator at any point in time.
113
In organizations, the level of affective commitment is likely to be least predictive of which of the following?
Productivity
114
Job satisfaction is an accurate predictor of:
The research has found that job satisfaction is a good predictor of longevity and mental and physical health.
115
Research investigating goal-setting as a method for increasing employee motivation and performance has demonstrated that:
Participation in goal-setting and the provision of monetary rewards increases the probability that goals will be accepted.
116
The research indicates that, when Total Quality Management (TQM) fails to live up to its potential, this is most often because:
Employees were not sufficiently involved in decision-making
117
According to Krumboltz (1996), a person’s career path is determined primarily by:
Learning that occurs as the result of interactions with other people
118
As defined by Brousseau and Driver (1994), “career concept” refers to a person’s:
Individual’s career decisions and motives, which vary in terms of three dimensions – frequency of job change; direction of change; and type of change in job content. Status on these dimensions produces four career concepts: steady state, linear, spiral, and transitory.
119
When performing a(n) ________ task, group members select a solution offered by one of the group members as the group’s solution.
Disjunctive
120
A problem with the "critical incident technique" is that:
It does not provide a very good picture of what is typically required for effective job performance.
121
The Leaderless Group Discussion is used in organizations to:
Train and evaluate managerial-level employees. When using this technique, each participant has an opportunity to assume the leader role. This allows each participant to demonstrate his/her leadership (managerial) skills.
122
Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory
Distinguishes between four processes that contribute to self-regulation: goal-setting, self-observation, self-evaluation, and self-reaction. According to this theory, self-regulation (the exercise of influence over one’s own behavior) is a primary determinant of motivation.
123
Is job satisfaction a stable or unstable trait?
It is a relatively stable trait and is minimally affected by job changes.
124
What is the paired comparison technique?
An employee is compared to every other employee on each dimension of job performance.
125
Assessment centers are most commonly used to:
Hire and promote managers
126
In terms of initiating structure and consideration, the two core dimensions of leadership, research in organizations suggests that:
Contrary to gender stereotypes, males and females do not differ substantially in terms of consideration or initiating structure.
127
The Taylor-Russel tables will indicated that a new selection test is most likely to be helpful in choosing job applicants who will be satisfactory employees when:
There are only a few job openings and many applicants for the job.
128
In addition to identifying "bounded rationality" as an impediment to rational decision-making, Herbert Simon is known for his work on:
Artificial Intelligence
